Print Page | Close Window

The Battle of Bannockburn, 1314

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: General History
Forum Name: All Battles Project
Forum Discription: Forum for the All Battles military history project
URL: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=14312
Printed Date: 19-May-2024 at 15:06
Software Version: Web Wiz Forums 9.56a - http://www.webwizforums.com


Topic: The Battle of Bannockburn, 1314
Posted By: TheDiplomat
Subject: The Battle of Bannockburn, 1314
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 13:20
How come an army of 5000 Scots under the leadership of Robert Bruce could defeat 23.000 English on 23rd and 24th June of 1314?

-------------
ARDA:The best Turkish diplomat ever!




Replies:
Posted By: Kaysaar
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 14:05
The numbers in my source are given as follows:

Scots (estimatd):
Mounted Men-at-Arms - 500
Pikemen - 9000

Total: 9500

English (estimated):
Mounted Men-at-Arms - 1000
Infantry (including archers) - 17,000

Total: 18,000

The British had the advantage of numbers, but the biggest factors in the Battle of Bannockburn were the use of pikemen and choice of battlefield

The Scots had the fortune of both. The Scots pick the location as an intercept point to prevent the marching English from relieving the castle at Stirling. The location they picked gave some high ground, and a marshy portion of land that would slow the English heavy cavalry. This ended up sandwhiching the cavalrymen between the advancing pikemen, and the English archers, which diminishes the abilities of both the horses and the archers.

A small contigent of archers tried to flank the Scottish schiltrons (pike squares) but were cut down my Robert the Bruce's cavalry reserve. The pikemen continued advancing, pushing the cavalry up against the English infantry, resulting in great confusion. The British line dissolved and largely fled.

Paraphrased from:
Dougherty, Martin. Battles of the Medieval World. Amber Books ltd. 2006


Posted By: Roberts
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 14:30
Originally posted by Kaysaar

The numbers in my source are given as follows:

Scots (estimatd):
Mounted Men-at-Arms - 500
Pikemen - 9000




Did Scots actually had pikemen units back then?
I think that they( Scots ) were mostly spearmen and pike certainly wasn't in Scottish armament afaik.


-------------


Posted By: Kaysaar
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 14:52
Originally posted by axeman

Did Scots actually had pikemen units back then?
I think that they( Scots ) were mostly spearmen and pike certainly wasn't in Scottish armament afaik.


Not pikemen so much as in the modern sense. Spearmen, but used in the general manner of a pike square would be my understanding.


Posted By: Gundamor
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 15:57
Larger numbers cant overcome incompetent leadership like Edward II. They used pikeman and shattered an unorganized english cavalry charge then pretty much mopped up the unorganized english army. The scottish pikeman proved that infantry could stand up to heavy cavalry which would be seen again in future battles in Europe.

A spear is a general term that encompasses alot of weapons including alot of polearms and throwing missiles. A pike is a spear and they were using what most people consider pikes or some other hybrid polearm.

-------------
"An eye for an eye only ends up making the whole world blind"


Posted By: TheDiplomat
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 16:46
Originally posted by Gundamor

The scottish pikeman proved that infantry could stand up to heavy cavalry which would be seen again in future battles in Europe.
.
 
The story goes that, while in hiding, Robert Bruce was inspired to go on fighting after seeing a spider struggle up its thread again and again- and eventually succeed.


-------------
ARDA:The best Turkish diplomat ever!



Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 17:02
It was a nice follow on from the Battle of the Golden Spurs, the early 14th century providing the key inspirations for the organised infantry response to cavalry's fearsome reputation.

-------------


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 17:18
Why do you call them [the English] British?

-------------


Posted By: Emperor Barbarossa
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 17:52
Zagros, it is a common thing here in America because people think that England=Britain, and that Scotland and Wales are part of England. The sad thing about this horrible mistake of calling the English "British" during the Middle Ages is that the Scottish are just as modern-day British as the English. This mistake  is so prevelant here in the United States that I even heard of a historian on the History Channel make the same mistake of calling the English "British" at the Battle of Bannockburn. British can be used after James I in 1603(though it was only a personal union), but most correctly after the Act of Union between England and Scotland in 1707.

-------------



Posted By: Kaysaar
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 17:54
Me? Sometimes I just accidentally swap them. I just wrote a paper on the modern era, so everything was Britain rather than England. I just have to switch back to the Medieval mode, and remember that there is no Britain yet.


Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 19:41
Originally posted by Zagros

Why do you call them [the English] British?
 
In this context, i.e Bannockburn in the 14th century, it is imperative to differentiate between English and British.  But, in 1314, England and Scotland were separate kingdoms. So it was the English vs the Scots. British is more a modern construct.
 
Nowadays, your average person could easily make out the difference between English and British. British are crudely made up of the Welsh, English, northern irish and Scots. The English are people from England.


-------------


Posted By: TheDiplomat
Date Posted: 27-Aug-2006 at 19:43
Agreed. England and Scotland united with the act of Union in 1707,whereas this battle had taken long time ago: 1314

-------------
ARDA:The best Turkish diplomat ever!



Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 28-Aug-2006 at 01:30
The war was indeed between two distinct national people. But it is worth noting that by this stage the English had soldiers serving with them from Wales, their estates there being productive enough to contribute levies of archers. So really it was an army comprised of Anglo-Welsh soldiers facing the Scots.

-------------


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 28-Aug-2006 at 04:19
British isn't a modern construct particularly. It's an ancient one.  It's perfectly OK to call the pre-Anglo-Saxon inhabitants 'Britons' and 'British': King Arthur may be fictitious, but he is a fictitious Briton, just as Boadicea is a real one.
 
It gets tricky with the Anglo-Saxons, since a lot of them settled in what is now modern Scotland, which is why Scotland's greatest poet wrote in 'English', and only gets a bit clearer when on the one hand the Normans and the Anglo-Saxons and the Danes kind of merged into one 'people', while on the other hand other Anglo-Saxons, Irish Scots and Highland Gaelic-speakers started seeing themselves as a different 'people'.
 
Mostly though that was a question of which king you recognised, so the medieval distinction between English and Scots is political rather than ethnic.
 
At any time though it ought to be permissible to refer to Welsh, Scots and English all as 'British' since they live in Britain. It's just thinking that English=British that is wrong.
 
 


-------------


Posted By: Emperor Barbarossa
Date Posted: 28-Aug-2006 at 06:57
Well, glce2003, it is wrong to refer to the English as "British" and then not refer to the Scots as "British" also. I don't think that British is useful during the Medieval Ages, because even though there was Britain, the island, it was not united. For example, I could say, the British(English) tried to conquer France during the Hundred Years War. The British(Welsh) provided longbowmen for the English. Yet, I could also say, the British(Scots) sent aid to the French during the Hundred Years War. The term should be used sparingly, for example, "The ancient British Celts", but when it involved the kingdoms of England or Scotland during the Middle Ages, it is much better and easier to use English and Scottish.

-------------



Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 28-Aug-2006 at 22:33
Originally posted by Emperor Barbarossa

Well, glce2003, it is wrong to refer to the English as "British" and then not refer to the Scots as "British" also. I don't think that British is useful during the Medieval Ages, because even though there was Britain, the island, it was not united. For example, I could say, the British(English) tried to conquer France during the Hundred Years War. The British(Welsh) provided longbowmen for the English. Yet, I could also say, the British(Scots) sent aid to the French during the Hundred Years War. The term should be used sparingly, for example, "The ancient British Celts", but when it involved the kingdoms of England or Scotland during the Middle Ages, it is much better and easier to use English and Scottish.
 
Add to that the fact the English ruling class were entirely french and Gascony supplied many of men- at-arms. For simplicity we called the faction English, pertaining to the fact it was led by the English king (which was French by blood.)
 
Gcle is wrong as usual; how surprising! I hate when people try to complicate a trivial, simple concept. I believe Gcle must be a very confused individual in real life. No pun intended , just stating the obvious. I like to take cheap shots at Gcle. :) Everyone has his bete-noire.
 
Yes British is a modern construct; although Briton was a vague term, pertaining to people living on the British isle, usually irrelevent of ethnicity.


-------------


Posted By: Dawn
Date Posted: 28-Aug-2006 at 22:50
I think that perhaps http://www.allempires.com/forum/member_profile.asp?PF=73&FID=14 - Quetzalcoatl   you should not issue personnal insults to other members.  

-------------


Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 29-Aug-2006 at 01:08
Originally posted by Dawn

I think that perhaps http://www.allempires.com/forum/member_profile.asp?PF=73&FID=14 - Quetzalcoatl   you should not issue personnal insults to other members.  
 
Common now, Gcle and I are buddies.  Aren't we Gcle? (turning to Gcle, giving him the evil eye) Tongue. Aren't we Gcle?
 
I've known Gcle for a couple of years now. He'll strike back, with his trademark: "Wrong. The british are ... etc." or "You are wrong ..." 
 
It's not like I'm hurling invective at Gcle. Besides, Gcle is sharp-witted individual.
 
You people are a little oversensitive. I mean, Gcle is a familiar, although there is little love lost between us. A little bit of plain-talking, roughhousing has never done any harm, just adding a little spice to the conversation.


-------------


Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 29-Aug-2006 at 01:45
Originally posted by gcle2003

British isn't a modern construct particularly. It's an ancient one.  It's perfectly OK to call the pre-Anglo-Saxon inhabitants 'Britons' and 'British': King Arthur may be fictitious, but he is a fictitious Briton, just as Boadicea is a real one.
 
It gets tricky with the Anglo-Saxons, since a lot of them settled in what is now modern Scotland, which is why Scotland's greatest poet wrote in 'English', and only gets a bit clearer when on the one hand the Normans and the Anglo-Saxons and the Danes kind of merged into one 'people', while on the other hand other Anglo-Saxons, Irish Scots and Highland Gaelic-speakers started seeing themselves as a different 'people'.
 
Mostly though that was a question of which king you recognised, so the medieval distinction between English and Scots is political rather than ethnic.
 
At any time though it ought to be permissible to refer to Welsh, Scots and English all as 'British' since they live in Britain. It's just thinking that English=British that is wrong.
 
 
 
It is a modern construct in the contemporary sense of the word. British as citizen of the United Kingdom. Prior to the establishment of the UK, in 1801, British or Briton was more a loose term--akin to the term Iberian-- which simply refers to the various peoples inhabitating the British Isles


-------------


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 29-Aug-2006 at 07:46
 
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

 
It is a modern construct in the contemporary sense of the word. British as citizen of the United Kingdom.
I think you're thinking of 'British' as used by other peoples.
 
'British' and 'citizen of the UK' are not the same concept at all. The concept of a 'citizen of the United Kingdom' only came into legal effect with the 1971 Immigration Act, and even now a British citizen is not necessarily a citizen of the UK.
 
But of course it's a contemporary construct 'in the contemporary sense'. The point is it's an ancient construct generally.  What else are you going to call the British Isles? Or, for that matter, the British climate, if you can bear to talk about it?
 
It's perfectly OK to call Castilians and Aragonese 'Spanish' in the middle ages as in any other period. It's perfectly OK to call Bavarians, Saxons, Prussians, 'Germans'  in the middle ages, and similarly it's perfectly correct to call the medieval Welsh, Cornish, Anglo-Saxon Scots and Gaelic Scots and English, 'British' as long as when you do it you are referring to all the inhabitants of the island (who do in fact have quite a lot in common culturally).
 
As I said what's wrong is to use the term when you are only referring to one or two of the British peoples. And that is wrong just as much today as it was in the Middle Ages.
[/QUOTE]
 
Prior to the establishment of the UK, in 1801, British or Briton was more a loose term--akin to the term Iberian-- which simply refers to the various peoples inhabitating the British Isles
[/QUOTE]
 
As I said above, it's more akin to using the term 'Spanish' prior to 1700 or 'German' prior to 1871 or 'Italian' prior to 1861. Or 'Scandinavian' right up to today.
 
And I don't mind being insulted. It's usually a sign that someone has run out of arguments.
 
 


-------------


Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 29-Aug-2006 at 14:29
Originally posted by gcle2003

 
 
And I don't mind being insulted. It's usually a sign that someone has run out of arguments.
 
 
 
Which would make Quetzalcoatl the person most bereft of arguments on the whole forum......


-------------
Light blue touch paper and stand well back

http://www.maquahuitl.co.uk - http://www.maquahuitl.co.uk

http://www.toltecitztli.co.uk - http://www.toltecitztli.co.uk


Posted By: Emperor Barbarossa
Date Posted: 29-Aug-2006 at 19:31
Originally posted by gcle2003

 
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

 
It is a modern construct in the contemporary sense of the word. British as citizen of the United Kingdom.
I think you're thinking of 'British' as used by other peoples.
 
'British' and 'citizen of the UK' are not the same concept at all. The concept of a 'citizen of the United Kingdom' only came into legal effect with the 1971 Immigration Act, and even now a British citizen is not necessarily a citizen of the UK.
 
But of course it's a contemporary construct 'in the contemporary sense'. The point is it's an ancient construct generally.  What else are you going to call the British Isles? Or, for that matter, the British climate, if you can bear to talk about it?
 
It's perfectly OK to call Castilians and Aragonese 'Spanish' in the middle ages as in any other period. It's perfectly OK to call Bavarians, Saxons, Prussians, 'Germans'  in the middle ages, and similarly it's perfectly correct to call the medieval Welsh, Cornish, Anglo-Saxon Scots and Gaelic Scots and English, 'British' as long as when you do it you are referring to all the inhabitants of the island (who do in fact have quite a lot in common culturally).
 
As I said what's wrong is to use the term when you are only referring to one or two of the British peoples. And that is wrong just as much today as it was in the Middle Ages.
 
Prior to the establishment of the UK, in 1801, British or Briton was more a loose term--akin to the term Iberian-- which simply refers to the various peoples inhabitating the British Isles
[/QUOTE]
 
As I said above, it's more akin to using the term 'Spanish' prior to 1700 or 'German' prior to 1871 or 'Italian' prior to 1861. Or 'Scandinavian' right up to today.
 
And I don't mind being insulted. It's usually a sign that someone has run out of arguments.
 
 
[/QUOTE]

Yes, I agree with you, and this was exactly my point about British. British should be used to refer to all, not one, of the peoples of the British Isles. Only calling the English British would be like saying "The Danish were beating the Scandanvians(Norwegians) in the battle."


-------------



Posted By: Denis
Date Posted: 14-Jan-2007 at 18:34
Oh yeah, Bannockburn was that battle at the end of Braveheart where that Bruce guy charged at the English at the end... When he was outnumbere ten to one and all that. Oh yeah, that scene in the film...

(Sarcasm overload)


-------------
"Death belongs to God alone. By what right do men touch that unknown thing"

Victor Hugo


Posted By: Emperor Barbarossa
Date Posted: 14-Jan-2007 at 18:45
I know, I think it is just hilarious how the Battle of Bannockburn was represented in Braveheart. I remember when I first saw the ending of the movie on television (at the time, I did not know what I was watching), I thought it was a movie about the Jacobites due to the kilts (which were not worn at the time) and the sort of "Highland Charge" that was occurring. Braveheart totally misrepresented the battle as just some stupid "charge into the way larger mass of the enemy." Robert the Bruce was no idiot, and he would have never done such a mindless thing.

-------------



Posted By: King John
Date Posted: 14-Jan-2007 at 20:00
I don't think that Mel tried to portray the Battle as a stupid charge but rather as a honorable act akin to the way that Lord Tennyson portrayed the Charge of the Lightbrigade. What he attempts to do in that scene is show the desire of the Scots for "FREEEEEDOM!" I think he makes this attempt pretty clear when you listen to the words spoken by "Robert the Bruce" as they charge and just after. With that said I thought he did a horrible job historically with that movie. The whole kilt thing was comical to those with knowledge of the anachronism but to most esp. in Hollywood there is nothing more Scotish then a kilt (unfortunately).

What I see some people forgetting is that the army of the English was not just made up of Englishmen. There were Welsh bowmen and other people. Just like we commonly refer to William I's army as Norman but in fact there were Normans, Frisians, Flemish, Britons (from Britanny) in William's retinue. To call the English British is not right but at the same time it's not wrong. The same can be said about referring to modern day France as a Medieval Kingdom. This just is not the case in actuality the dukes and counts of that region after the death of Charlemagne were more like princes of their own kingdoms than subjects of the Isle de France. A good introduction to this notion is Jean Dunbabin's France in the Making.


Posted By: Emperor Barbarossa
Date Posted: 14-Jan-2007 at 20:09
Originally posted by King John

I don't think that Mel tried to portray the Battle as a stupid charge but rather as a honorable act akin to the way that Lord Tennyson portrayed the Charge of the Lightbrigade. What he attempts to do in that scene is show the desire of the Scots for "FREEEEEDOM!" I think he makes this attempt pretty clear when you listen to the words spoken by "Robert the Bruce" as they charge and just after. With that said I thought he did a horrible job historically with that movie. The whole kilt thing was comical to those with knowledge of the anachronism but to most esp. in Hollywood there is nothing more Scotish then a kilt (unfortunately).

What I see some people forgetting is that the army of the English was not just made up of Englishmen. There were Welsh bowmen and other people. Just like we commonly refer to William I's army as Norman but in fact there were Normans, Frisians, Flemish, Britons (from Britanny) in William's retinue. To call the English British is not right but at the same time it's not wrong. The same can be said about referring to modern day France as a Medieval Kingdom. This just is not the case in actuality the dukes and counts of that region after the death of Charlemagne were more like princes of their own kingdoms than subjects of the Isle de France. A good introduction to this notion is Jean Dunbabin's France in the Making.


Well, you see, the problem is that many people call the English "British" and then call the Scots just Scots, which is ridiculous as both are British, and it shows plain bias. It would be like calling, as I said earlier, "The Scandanavians (Norwegians) beat the Swedes."


-------------



Posted By: King John
Date Posted: 14-Jan-2007 at 20:27
I'm not arguing that all I said was it's not right but it's not wrong. Are the English and Welsh not British? Although the Scots are also British they were up against an army made up of the other 2 Kingdoms of Britain - granted both were united under one King through conquest. Again I'm not saying that it's right to call the English army at Bannockburn British but it is certainly not entirely wrong. To use your example let's say the Danes and Norwegians were in a battle with the Swedes and the Swedes were defeated although all involved are Scandanavians one could say that a greater Scandanavian army defeated the Swedes. This statement would not be wrong since in fact it was neither the Danes nor the Norwegians but an army of greater Scandanavia who defeated the Swedes. The same can be said about the battle of bannockburn.


Posted By: Byzantine Emperor
Date Posted: 14-Jan-2007 at 20:38
Originally posted by King John

To call the English British is not right but at the same time it's not wrong. The same can be said about referring to modern day France as a Medieval Kingdom. This just is not the case in actuality the dukes and counts of that region after the death of Charlemagne were more like princes of their own kingdoms than subjects of the Isle de France. A good introduction to this notion is Jean Dunbabin's France in the Making.
 
Big%20smile
 
This became especially apparent in the later middle ages in France.  The dukes of Burgundy considered their domains as separate from the Isle de France.  They even harbored open hostility towards the king of France and had designs on the throne itself.  Economically, Burgundy was richer than the crown, an example of which can be seen in the dukes financing of later crusades while the King of France stayed home and twiddled his thumbs.
 


-------------
http://www.allempires.net/forum_posts.asp?TID=12713 - Late Byzantine Military
http://www.allempires.net/forum_posts.asp?TID=17337 - Ottoman perceptions of the Americas


Posted By: Emperor Barbarossa
Date Posted: 14-Jan-2007 at 21:07
Originally posted by King John

I'm not arguing that all I said was it's not right but it's not wrong. Are the English and Welsh not British? Although the Scots are also British they were up against an army made up of the other 2 Kingdoms of Britain - granted both were united under one King through conquest. Again I'm not saying that it's right to call the English army at Bannockburn British but it is certainly not entirely wrong. To use your example let's say the Danes and Norwegians were in a battle with the Swedes and the Swedes were defeated although all involved are Scandanavians one could say that a greater Scandanavian army defeated the Swedes. This statement would not be wrong since in fact it was neither the Danes nor the Norwegians but an army of greater Scandanavia who defeated the Swedes. The same can be said about the battle of bannockburn.

Yes, I see your point, but the army fighting against the Scots was fighting for the English crown, so it is justified to call it an English army, because it was fighting for England, though its actual ehtnic composition was different. I would say that British definitely not a favorable term to use because it is discriminatory against the Scottish nationality, and it leads to confusion due to the use of the modern day term of British (it makes it seem that the Scots are not British, yet the English are).


-------------



Posted By: rider
Date Posted: 15-Jan-2007 at 09:07
Well, again I'd recommend Saul David's Military Blunders for this one... the description was a good one.




-------------



Print Page | Close Window

Bulletin Board Software by Web Wiz Forums® version 9.56a - http://www.webwizforums.com
Copyright ©2001-2009 Web Wiz - http://www.webwizguide.com