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Why England and not Saxland?

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Topic: Why England and not Saxland?
Posted By: vulkan02
Subject: Why England and not Saxland?
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 13:52
Ok so Ive heard it before that the Saxons and the Angles are the first germanic tribes to invade England after Roman power in the British isles fell.
In England you had many kingdoms later on and I believe the most powerful king who united it was the king of Wessex. Then you had other Saxons kingdoms such as Essex, Sussex etc. If there was so many SAXON kingdoms why did this nation take the name of the Angles??
Also why are the isles called the British isles too?? Were the Britons a major tribe because i never heard of them??


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The beginning of a revolution is in reality the end of a belief - Le Bon
Destroy first and construction will look after itself - Mao



Replies:
Posted By: Styrbiorn
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:01
Saxland is north-western Germany


Posted By: vulkan02
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:05
Saxland or Saxony?

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The beginning of a revolution is in reality the end of a belief - Le Bon
Destroy first and construction will look after itself - Mao


Posted By: rider
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:05
And probably the Anglo-Saxons were the majority (anglo is the first word) and therefore Angland - England...

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Posted By: Temujin
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:06
this is something i have ever wondered...I know Brits or at least some of them considder themselves Anglo-Saxon...but to which degree do they considder themselves Saxon, and what do they think about their relation to the German Saxons?

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Posted By: Styrbiorn
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:07
Originally posted by vulkan02

Saxland or Saxony?

http://lind.no/nor/index.asp?lang=gb&emne=nor&person=&list=!k%20%3CI%3ESaxland%3C/I%3E&vis=Stadnamn - Saxland.


Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:17
The Welsh and Gaelic names for the English derive from the localised words for Saxon.

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Posted By: Jazz
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:17
Not sure about the Angle-land, Sax-land part, but the Britons were one of the many Celtic tribes displaced by the Germanic migrations. 

As for the etymolgy of the term British Isles, I would guess that because the Britons were the tribe in most contact with the then outside world, and because the rest of the tribes were mostly Celtic in origin, outsiders might not have been able to distinguish between all of them.  Thus because these Celtic tribes held parts of what is now England proper and virtually all the islands inbetween, that is perhaps how the term originated....

Again, this is all just a guess.


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Posted By: vulkan02
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:28
Hmm in wikipedia it states that Britons were called so by Phoenician traders way before Rome. I think Angles and Saxons weren't much different in language or customs but the mystery is why Saxons created so many powerful kingdoms and then fail to name the country accordingly.
I found this map and it seems the Angles had only one kingdom named after them.




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The beginning of a revolution is in reality the end of a belief - Le Bon
Destroy first and construction will look after itself - Mao


Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:31
Hmm, The Greeks called it Pretani (sp?), a name from some people who lived in the south, supposed to mean Painted people or somesuch.

The name of the Island is in part due to the Romans, and in part due to The Franco-Normans. The Roman province was of course called Britannia, whilst Scotland was called Caledonia. That got the tradition started.
When the Normans invaded, they brought the French language over, which had Grand Brettange (Great Britian), and plain Brettangne (Brittany), Great Britian being the bigger of the two, that became the name of the main island.
The term 'British Isles' wasn't used untill relativly more recently, different people dispute what the implied reason for the name was, but it emerged out of geographical convenience more than anything else.

Hmm in wikipedia it states that Britons were called so by Phoenician traders way before Rome.


The Phoenicans called it the Tin Islands, they traded indirectly (?) with the natives for tin, which was found in abundance (still is, if you can afford the water pumping bills) particualry in Cornwall.


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Arrrgh!!"


Posted By: vulkan02
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:37
thanks for the info there Cwyr but the main question is still left unanswered

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The beginning of a revolution is in reality the end of a belief - Le Bon
Destroy first and construction will look after itself - Mao


Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:49
I think its because the Angles were politicly/culturaly dominant.

They never called themselves Angles, but rather Engele [sp] (Angle is just Latin getting it wrong again), and this can be seen by how all Germanic languages call it that way, only languages that got the name via Latin replace the 'e' with an 'a'.
But why England, and not Sachsaland or Seaxland or whatever.
Alfred the Great coined the title Rex Anglorum Saxonum, but by then the name England was already in use, the Anglo-Saxon bit is just due to Latin rivial amoungst the educated, and was actualy first used on the continent, not in Britian

Early Saxon writers note that they are part of the Anglelcyn fairly early on, and that they speak Englisc. So the real question is why they saw things that way?


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Arrrgh!!"


Posted By: Temujin
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:49
Northumbria, Mercia and Lindsey were Anglican kingdoms too, so overall, Angles occupied much more of Britain than Saxons. obviously the main thrust to britain was also carried out by Angles, because today there are still Saxons on the mainland, but no Angles...

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Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 14:49

Originally posted by Jazz

Not sure about the Angle-land, Sax-land part, but the Britons were one of the many Celtic tribes displaced by the Germanic migrations. 

As for the etymolgy of the term British Isles, I would guess that because the Britons were the tribe in most contact with the then outside world, and because the rest of the tribes were mostly Celtic in origin, outsiders might not have been able to distinguish between all of them.  Thus because these Celtic tribes held parts of what is now England proper and virtually all the islands inbetween, that is perhaps how the term originated....

Again, this is all just a guess.

Oddly enough perhaps the Anglo-Saxons called the country Bretenland. The Romans called the country Britannia (Brittania, Britania, whatever) because they called the Celts who lived there Britanni. What the Britons called themselves or their country I don't know (similarly, what did the Belgae and the Gauls call themselves?)

When the Romans moved out several groups of invaders moved in: Jutes (from Jutland ), Saxons from (Lower) Saxony, Angles from the country in between and occasional others like Friesians. This is how the Venerable Bede describes it in his Ecclesiatsical History of the English People in 731.

They came from three very powerful Germanic tribes [de tribus Germaniae populis fortioribus], the Saxons, Angles and Jutes. The people of Kent [Cantuari] and the inhabitants of the Isle of Wight [Uictuarii, hoc est ea gens quae Uectam tenet insulam] are of Jutish origin and also those opposite the Isle of Wight, that part of the kingdom of Wessex [in provincia Occidentalium Saxonum] which is today called the nation of the Jutes [Iutarum natio nominatur]. From the Saxon country, that is, the district now know as Old Saxony, came the East Saxons, the South Saxons and the West Saxons. Besides this, from the country of the Angles, that is, the land between the kingdoms of the Jutes and the Saxons, which is called Angulus, came the East Angles, the Middle Angles, the Mercians and all the Northumbrian race [tota Nordanhymbrorum progenies] (that is, those people who dwell north of the river Humber) as well as the other Anglian tribes [ceterique Anglorum populi]. Angulus is said to have remained deserted from that time to this. Their first leaders are said to have been two brothers, Hengist and Horsa. Horsa was afterwards killed in battle by the Britons, and in the eastern part of Kent there is still a monument bearing his name. They were the sons of Wihtgisl, son of Witta, son of Wecta, son of Woden, from whose stock [de cuius stirpe] the royal families of many kingdoms [multarum provinciarum regium genus] claimed their descent.

Bede later and in general uses gens Anglorum to refer to the whole caboodle, but why I don't know. Gregory the Great is said to have seen some beautiful children being sold in the slave market in Rome and to have asked what they were. 'Angli' he was told. 'Non Angli, sed Angeli' he is supposed to have replied. Indicating that Angli was becoming the generic name as early as the Sixth century (if the story is true)

Of course it's very useful that 'England' emerged as the name, because if it had been Saxonland or Jutland or Friesland, life could have got very confusing. Luckily the name 'Angulus' seems to have died out as a German placename.

Incidentally, talking about apocryphal stories, Heinrich Heine is supposed to have remarked about something or other: 'Wie eng, wie englisch'.

 

 



Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 15:09
Is there much evidence to support that the Saxons in England regarded themselves as culturaly and linguisiticly distinct from the Angles? I'm thinking the language it begins to look like the opposite fairly early on.
Could it be that it was just a political tag, that lost its relevance once Alfred had united the country?


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Arrrgh!!"


Posted By: vulkan02
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 15:23
Originally posted by Temujin

Northumbria, Mercia and Lindsey were Anglican kingdoms too, so overall, Angles occupied much more of Britain than Saxons. obviously the main thrust to britain was also carried out by Angles, because today there are still Saxons on the mainland, but no Angles...


Isn't there in Germany a region called Angle just like styrobiorn said there's a region called Saxland?


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The beginning of a revolution is in reality the end of a belief - Le Bon
Destroy first and construction will look after itself - Mao


Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 15:28
AFAIK, its in Denmark, Southern Denmark to be precise, or maybe part of it is technicly in Germany.
I don't think it goes by that name anymore though.


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Arrrgh!!"


Posted By: Reginmund
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 15:41
Originally posted by rider

And probably the Anglo-Saxons were the majority (anglo is the first word) and therefore Angland - England...


Most of what I know about this subject has already been said, but let's just make one thing absolutely clear: "Anglo-Saxon" is a modern term, 19th century if I'm not mistaken, used to sum up all the invading Germanic tribes; mainly Saxons and Angles, but also Jutes and Frisians.

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Posted By: Temujin
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 15:45

Originally posted by vulkan02


Isn't there in Germany a region called Angle just like styrobiorn said there's a region called Saxland?

well, first of, it was not called Saxland by the natives but Sachsen (ch pronounced like a x, this is a special exception in German language), Saxland being the Scandinavian name for it. and no, at least in Germany there are no Angles and no region that was called like that.



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Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 15:54

Originally posted by Temujin

this is something i have ever wondered...I know Brits or at least some of them considder themselves Anglo-Saxon...but to which degree do they considder themselves Saxon, and what do they think about their relation to the German Saxons?

Most archaeological evidence which seemed to these days be supported by genetic research puts the number of Germanic invaders (excluding later vikings) as less than 20,000 total onto a population of over 3 million. Which is pretty similar to both the numbers of vikings and normans that came over. Still enough for most people in the country to have a small grain in them.

As for the thinking side, culturally the English really don't think about that kind of thing, the welsh and scots do a lot, outside a dubious right wing group you'd struggle to find and englishman who considered himself kindred to a resident of saxony.

 



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Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 16:00

Originally posted by Cywr

Is there much evidence to support that the Saxons in England regarded themselves as culturaly and linguisiticly distinct from the Angles? I'm thinking the language it begins to look like the opposite fairly early on.
Could it be that it was just a political tag, that lost its relevance once Alfred had united the country?

If you go down to Kent west of the river Medway still to this day they call themselves Kentishmen and east of the Medway they're call Men of Kent. Ths goes right back to the saxon conquest when the Jutes-Kentishmen were pushed into a small corner of their county by the invading Saxon-Men of Kent.



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 17:22
Let's see: Northumbria and Mercia (Anglo kingdoms) were the dominant powers for most of the Heptarchy. Only when the Danes invaded the NE (Danelaw), could a Saxon realm (Wessex) relace these as hegemon. Probably Anglos were dominant for most of the Heptarchy period and they were regarded as such by their continental neighbours as well. At least some Carolingian rulers seem to have acknowledged Anglo kings of the north as overlords of all Britain.

In French and other continental languages the use of Anglaterre and derivates is quite clear, so the ethnonym commonly adopted was that of Anglos probably already in very early times. The name may well have migrated from France to England with the Norman invasion, as I have no knowledge of it being used in the islands before Hastings.

The rebels to Norman rule seem to have identified themselves as Saxons, what probably made any potential "Saxland" a politically charged name. Meanwhile Anglaterre or England would probably seem more neutral and more in accordance with the French background of the Norman conquerors.
This is my best guess.

On the original regions, for some reason, while Jutland (Denmark) and Saxony (Germany) kept their names through history, the original region of the Anglos (Schleswig-Holstein, mostly in Germany now) lost its possible ethnonym rather soon. I imagine this was caused by the Slavic migration that made that area a badly defined frontier land, divided between Franks/Germans, Danes and Slavic tribes. When it became German again nobody surely recalled the original inhabitant's name.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: vulkan02
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 17:51
Originally posted by Maju

Let's see: Northumbria and Mercia (Anglo kingdoms) were the dominant powers for most of the Heptarchy. Only when the Danes invaded the NE (Danelaw), could a Saxon realm (Wessex) relace these as hegemon. Probably Anglos were dominant for most of the Heptarchy period and they were regarded as such by their continental neighbours as well. At least some Carolingian rulers seem to have acknowledged Anglo kings of the north as overlords of all Britain.

In French and other continental languages the use of Anglaterre and derivates is quite clear, so the ethnonym commonly adopted was that of Anglos probably already in very early times. The name may well have migrated from France to England with the Norman invasion, as I have no knowledge of it being used in the islands before Hastings.

The rebels to Norman rule seem to have identified themselves as Saxons, what probably made any potential "Saxland" a politically charged name. Meanwhile Anglaterre or England would probably seem more neutral and more in accordance with the French background of the Norman conquerors.
This is my best guess.



Its clearer now, thanks for the explanation on Northumbria and Mercia being Angle kingdoms. I thought they were kingdoms of original Romano-Celtic inhabitants and were pushed further by the Saxons of Wessex and other kingdoms.

I was thinking something on that line too, that their name has to do  with the Norman invasion of 1066. I remember a while back a professor at an English elective I took told me that when the Normans invaded England anyone caught speaking the language at their would be severely punished.

Thats why we have words like
Sheep and the meat of sheep - mutton
cow and the meat of cow - beef
flesh - meat ?
One is Germanic and the other the Romance version introduced during the Norman invasion.

Maybe it was the Normans who introduced a name similar to England and it was adopted as such because of their forceful methods?


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The beginning of a revolution is in reality the end of a belief - Le Bon
Destroy first and construction will look after itself - Mao


Posted By: Jazz
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 18:18
Well, West Saxony became Wessex.

Imagine if "Saxland" had somehow evolved into "Sexland"  




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Posted By: vulkan02
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 18:49
Well that would never happen... German women aren't especially known for their dazzling beauty

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The beginning of a revolution is in reality the end of a belief - Le Bon
Destroy first and construction will look after itself - Mao


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 19:29
I must correct my guess in the sense that it weren't the Normans who introduced the name. According to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kingdom_of_England - Wikipedia : http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alfred_the_Great" title="Alfred the Great" style="font-style: italic; - Alfred the Great (reigned http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/871" title="871" style="font-style: italic; - 871 – http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/899" title="899" style="font-style: italic; - 899 ) was the first King of Wessex to style himself "King of England".

So, I guess that while the name may have initially been used in the other side of the Channel, it were the Saxon kings who first used it. Nothing to do with the Normans but either with the central role of Franks in Europe or maybe as a mean to secure the sympathies of his Anglo subjects (or both).


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 20:03

The list shows which king was elected to the title of Bretwalda (high king), showing which kingdom was most powerful at any one time.

Ζlle of Sussex (477–circa 514)
Ceawlin of Wessex (560–591)
Ethelbert of Kent (591–616)
Raedwald of East Anglia (616–627)
Edwin of Deira (627–632)
Oswald of Bernicia (633–641)
Oswiu of Northumbria (641–670)
Ethelbald of Mercia (circa 735–757)
Offa of Mercia (757–796)
Egbert of Wessex (829–839)
Ethelwulf of Wessex (839–855)
Ethelbald of Wessex (855–860)
Ethelbert of Wessex (860–866)
Ethelred of Wessex (866–871)
Alfred the Great of Wessex (871–899)



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Posted By: Janissary
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 21:51

Becouse Inc tribes founded it, so, Incland-Inkland-Enkland-England



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Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 23:50
the welsh and scots do a lot


*rolls eyes*

The Welsh name for the English coes back to that time peroid, and its because Wales neighbours to the East WERE Saxons, ditto for Gaelic, which was introdiced to Scotland at round the same time.
Do most Welsh people think the English come from Germany? No, save for Jokes about Charlie boy.


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Arrrgh!!"


Posted By: Dalsung Hwarang
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2005 at 23:56
Very interesante...

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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2005 at 00:25
Originally posted by Paul

Originally posted by Temujin

this is something i have ever wondered...I know Brits or at least some of them considder themselves Anglo-Saxon...but to which degree do they considder themselves Saxon, and what do they think about their relation to the German Saxons?

Most archaeological evidence which seemed to these days be supported by genetic research puts the number of Germanic invaders (excluding later vikings) as less than 20,000 total onto a population of over 3 million. Which is pretty similar to both the numbers of vikings and normans that came over. Still enough for most people in the country to have a small grain in them.

 

 I think you got the Franco-norman number totally wrong. and I would not put viking and normans in the same basket as if talking of the same pepole,the Normans have little or nothing in common with the vikings.  after the normans invasion, 1/3 of the british isles population were destroyed, they were either slaughtered or they died of famine and diseases after tha carnage, there is a reason why the anglo-saxon chronicle refers to the event as Doomsday. it is estimated nearly 200,000 normans, Angevin (from anjou) and people from lthe rest of france occupied the british territories. there was a system of apartheid where that minority would control the mass of of british population (and that would include the viking descendents) through a feudal system.



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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2005 at 00:33

Originally posted by Maju



In French and other continental languages the use of Anglaterre and derivates is quite clear, so the ethnonym commonly adopted was that of Anglos probably already in very early times. The name may well have migrated from France to England with the Norman invasion, as I have no knowledge of it being used in the islands before Hastings.

 I don't think that might be right, but on the tapestry of bayeux from a french POV the people on the british island were the " Angli" or Angles (or english if you want in modern term). I don't know how the angles called themselves. It is possible the island didn't have one name but many names for different region.  but after the invasion they were all collectively referred by the Normans as Angle, scots and welsh for the people of the region of England, scotland and wales respectively

 

 

 



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Posted By: tadamson
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2005 at 06:10
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

[QUOTE=Paul]
I think you got the Franco-norman number totally wrong. and I would not put viking and normans in the same basket as if talking of the same pepole,the Normans have little or nothing in common with the vikings.  after the normans invasion, 1/3 of the british isles population were destroyed, they were either slaughtered or they died of famine and diseases after tha carnage, there is a reason why the anglo-saxon chronicle refers to the event as Doomsday. it is estimated nearly 200,000 normans, Angevin (from anjou) and people from lthe rest of france occupied the british territories. there was a system of apartheid where that minority would control the mass of of british population (and that would include the viking descendents) through a feudal system.


Where have you read these numbers?  I've seen estmates of (a massive) 5% population loss (predominantly in the famines following the "harrowing of the North"), and  20,000-30,000 immigrants (mostly Angevin).


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      Tom..


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2005 at 12:16

[QUOTE=Quetzalcoatl there is a reason why the anglo-saxon chronicle refers to the event as Doomsday.[QUOTE]

The Anglo-Saxon Chronicles were written before the Conquest. The Domesday book wasn't so called till about a century after it was compiled, and the name seems to have started in a typically English way as a joke.

The historian William Lambarde wrote in the 16th century that the book was " to be called Domesday, bicause (as Mathew Parise saith) it spared no man, but iudged all men indifferently." 'Parise' (normally now spelt Paris) was a 13th century Benedictine monk and chronicler, evidently with a sense of humour.



Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2005 at 01:10

Originally posted by tadamson

Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

[QUOTE=Paul]
I think you got the Franco-norman number totally wrong. and I would not put viking and normans in the same basket as if talking of the same pepole,the Normans have little or nothing in common with the vikings.  after the normans invasion, 1/3 of the british isles population were destroyed, they were either slaughtered or they died of famine and diseases after tha carnage, there is a reason why the anglo-saxon chronicle refers to the event as Doomsday. it is estimated nearly 200,000 normans, Angevin (from anjou) and people from lthe rest of france occupied the british territories. there was a system of apartheid where that minority would control the mass of of british population (and that would include the viking descendents) through a feudal system.


Where have you read these numbers?  I've seen estmates of (a massive) 5% population loss (predominantly in the famines following the "harrowing of the North"), and  20,000-30,000 immigrants (mostly Angevin).

 Nope, 1/3 of the English population were destroyed. The carnage was massive. Read the link below. Also the majority of the immigrants weren't Angevin but Normands and bretons. After the initial army, nearly 20,000 troops from all around France moved in England. And that not considering the merchants, entertainers and labourers that followed (I would estimate that to be in the order of 200,000 to 300,000 over the reigned of the Normans and Angevin). Initially the Franco-Angevin-Normands were segregated from the initial population, they would marry the English, there were no marriage and intermixing, there was two clearly and distinctive clas sin britain. Check this link out

http://www.bbc.co.uk/history/lj/conquestlj/conquered_04.shtml?site=history_conquestlj_conquest - http://www.bbc.co.uk/history/lj/conquestlj/conquered_04.shtm l?site=history_conquestlj_conquest



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2005 at 09:48
Very interesting link, Quetzacoatl, but it says nowhere that 1/3 of all population was extermnated or anything of the like. It just says that Northumbria was subjected to a genocidal campaign that destroyed the region for decades and that several ten thousands Normans (maybe more but this is up to guess) migrated to the island.

Whatever the violence of the conquest and the French apartheid, as all lower classes stayed being 100% local and that is about 90% or more of the population in an agrarian feudal economy, it means that the Norman migration was small and rather meaningless in blood apportation. It may have affected more the region of Northumbria or some districts of the south but in any case it should have been minimal, as nowhere is read that they imported workforce (slaves or colonists) from elsewhere. Probably Celtic, Anglo-Saxon and Viking invasions were more important in their genetic apportation.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2005 at 15:57
The question how badly was the harrying of the north could be answered with the question, where were all the bodies buried? Or were the crops planted the following year. So far little damage to the agriculteral system has been detected and no mass graves found. Historian have a predeliction for the spectacular, mass invasions, huge migrations, cataclysmic genocides. Makes a good selling book but unfortunately reality always tends to be a little more sober. The harrying of the north was a great attrocity killing 1000's, but an early auschwitz it was not.

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Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2005 at 01:53
I thought most of the deaths during the harrying of the North were due to famine.

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Arrrgh!!"


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2005 at 06:35

Originally posted by Maju

Probably Celtic, Anglo-Saxon and Viking invasions were more important in their genetic apportation.

Genetic studies I've seen are confusing. If you look at the Y chromosome, which passes only down the male line, it appears that modern male inhabitants of England are much closer to the Dutch and the Friesians than they are to the Welsh.

However, studies of mitochondrial genetic material, which comes only from the maternal line, have found the opposite. Englishmen and women, in that regard have more in common with the Celtic peoples.

Which of course points to a conclusion that an awful lot of children were being born of Celtic mothers and Anglo-Saxon fathers. Anyone surprised?

 



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2005 at 15:30
The European Y-chromosome haplogroups' map posted in some topic some time ago gave for "East Anglian" people about 60% of Hg1, which is typical Western European ("Celtic" or much more likely pre-Celtic). Actually the closest distribution for the Y-chromosome is found in Belgium or France, though Danes (and not Dutch) are pretty close too.

I'll repost the map, because I can't find the original post:



Though it is not refelcted in this map, SW Britons, SW English included, are much more strongly "Celtic" (or pre-Celtic) for this male lineage. While maybe the people of such exposed areas as NE England (former Northumbria) may be more "Scandinavian".

In any case there's no one single marker that can give us a throughout answer, because all the peoples of Europe have interacted and mixed at diferent times in history and prehistory and how do you diferentiate an Hg1 haplotype from Cornwall or Denmark or even Pakistan or Ossetia?


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Temujin
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2005 at 15:39

is this the return of the Nazi maps?

 

this thread has gone off topic, if you want to talk about superiority stuff, go to the appropriate forum.



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2005 at 21:18
What "Nazi maps" and what "superiority" and what nothing? Did you read what I wrote? Besides, the map is a perfectly valid reply to the previous post, which was precisely mentioning Y-chromosome genetics on a perfectly relevant discussion raised by another post (again not mine) one the ammoun of Vikings or Normans that arrived to Britain and wether or not they did some sort of ethnic cleansing. I was precisely trying to dispel such assumption.

Please, read what we are talking about before censoring or whinning?


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Cywr
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2005 at 23:07
Genetics was much to sophisticated for the Nazis, they prefered made up blood percentage rules and such.

Anyways, regarding Northumberland, that was the area of Denelaw, where lots of Danes settled, so that has to be considered too.
Intrestingly, despite the North having a stronger scandinavian influence, i notices dark hair is more common up there, in contrast to the South East where there are lots of blonds.
Though these days so many people dye their hair such observations are fairly useless.


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Arrrgh!!"


Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2005 at 00:24
Originally posted by Temujin

is this the return of the Nazi maps?

 

this thread has gone off topic, if you want to talk about superiority stuff, go to the appropriate forum.

 

What NAZI map, it is the distribution of genetic haplotypes throughout europe, asia and north africa. nothing racist here. Actually it is anti-racist, unless you are from connahct then you can claim to be a pure race. what the NAZI gonna say about their "pakistani" inheritance. NAZI ideology was based on Anthrology, which is a ridiculos method to identify races. physical appearances or phenotypes are pretty much influence by environment.



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Posted By: Janissary
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2005 at 00:27

Becoyuse there is Saxland-Saxonia

So, it is England-Angloland



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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2005 at 00:28

Originally posted by Maju

What "Nazi maps" and what "superiority" and what nothing? Did you read what I wrote? Besides, the map is a perfectly valid reply to the previous post, which was precisely mentioning Y-chromosome genetics on a perfectly relevant discussion raised by another post (again not mine) one the ammoun of Vikings or Normans that arrived to Britain and wether or not they did some sort of ethnic cleansing. I was precisely trying to dispel such assumption.

Please, read what we are talking about before censoring or whinning?

 

Exactly the map is relevent here. but the Celtic "Connatch" haplotype is also present in the Normans, Angevin, anglo-saxons. all the map shows is celtic haplotype is predominant in britain.



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Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2005 at 06:01

Originally posted by Cywr

Anyways, regarding Northumberland, that was the area of Denelaw, where lots of Danes settled, so that has to be considered too.
Intrestingly, despite the North having a stronger scandinavian influence, i notices dark hair is more common up there, in contrast to the South East where there are lots of blonds.

The Danes were known at the time of the invasions for being dark compared to the Saxons. They still are.

Originally posted by Maju

Though it is not reflected in this map, SW Britons, SW English included, are much more strongly "Celtic" (or pre-Celtic) for this male lineage. While maybe the people of such exposed areas as NE England (former Northumbria) may be more "Scandinavian".  

Which is what one would expect, no?

What was interesting I thought was the difference between the female and male lines.

 



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2005 at 06:54
Originally posted by Cywr

Genetics was much to sophisticated for the Nazis, they prefered made up blood percentage rules and such.

Anyways, regarding Northumberland, that was the area of Denelaw, where lots of Danes settled, so that has to be considered too.


I mentioned something about the NE in my commentary. The map only samples East Anglia and Cornwall so it may not be equally representative of all England. Yet the previous statement was that some article suggested that English (in general, not these or that) were more Frisian/Dutch than Gaelic Briton via Y-chromosome. I was just trying to show that such connection is not so clear - specially because all Europeans are so much alike and variation seems more related to geographic distance than anything else.

Intrestingly, despite the North having a stronger scandinavian influence, i notices dark hair is more common up there, in contrast to the South East where there are lots of blonds.


Don't know if it has any relation but I recall to have read some long time ago that the Anglo-Saxons called the Danes "black-haired barbarians" and the Norse, in contrast, "blond barbarians".


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2005 at 07:01
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

 

Exactly the map is relevent here. but the Celtic "Connatch" haplotype is also present in the Normans, Angevin, anglo-saxons. all the map shows is celtic haplotype is predominant in britain.



Quetzacoatl. You may want to read another topic I just started on the Anthropology forum: "How to read a genetic map", precisely that Y-chromosome genetic map - that I chose as example after finding some very relevant information on what each HgX mean. Take a look.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Temujin
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2005 at 16:01

i already said it before: what is this based? every individual has different of those haphlogroups or whatever, besides this has nothign to do with HISTORY, genetics are irrelevant to history because people are individuals, not some  60% this and 30% that kind of racial groupings, this IS racism, if you dont know what that is...i forgott, every person has thsoe pahplogroups which has a clear label on ti that says "me is slavic" and crap. please get ridd of those nationalistic ideas...



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2005 at 16:43
No. It is not racism and it means nothing (at least nothing significant) about "races" (a term that I never use, except with "..."). It is another type of archaeology and the danger is to misunderstand its true significance, either in the racist or, as you do, in the anti-racist way. Genes do hold clues to population history and that is a part of history that we just can't ignore.

Another thing is to talk without knowledge. One thing that population genetics is proving every day more is that our concepts of ethnicities, nationalities and even "races" are very shallow and that most people have stayed in their places since Paleolithic times, dismissing all (or most) claims to the false equation nation/ethnicity/language="race".

Anyhow, Temujin, you are hijacking the topic with your obsession. The topic is about Anglo-Saxon England and why it came to be called England and not Saxland. The discussion on Normans was somehow relevant but this on the meaning of genetics for sure belongs to another topic.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Temujin
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2005 at 16:53
well, i don't have an obsession, i'm moderator and i'm checking whats going on here, so far it looks the topics question has been answered and now the discussion goes off topic. and theres no relevancy of genetics to history, i own no book that has any of those genetical maps and i'm pretty much sure this is not considdered science among hsitorical circles at all. how you know anyways which haphlogroup is for which "ethnicity" or why you think this is proof at all for it? has god talken to you and told you his secrets? unless this is the case, this is only one of many evolutionary/ethnical theories or whatever without historical scientifical value.

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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2005 at 17:57
You may be a moderator but you're are talking from your own personal viewpoint with a lot of biases and prejudices and without even reading what we were talking about.

I don't take your intervention as that of a moderator but as that of an accidental viewer that has no idea and is hijacking the topic to another discussion totally unrelated with the topic. You should start a topic to discuss the scientifical and historical value of population genetics. In fact you could maybe use the topic that I started (before your intervention) in Anthropology, etc. precisely on how to read a genetic map and what it means. Precisely because I do have the feeling that many people don't understand what population genetics mean and try to use them to defend their nationalistic views without any base.

And yes, genetics is a science and population genetics is a very interesting branch of it, with potential applications to history or rather prehistory, as it seems now that most of the populations' configuration happened in prehistorical times.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!



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