Normans ethnic cleansing
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Category: Regional History or Period History
Forum Name: Medieval Europe
Forum Discription: The Middle Ages: AD 500-1500
URL: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=557
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Topic: Normans ethnic cleansing
Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Subject: Normans ethnic cleansing
Date Posted: 09-Sep-2004 at 21:13
Apparently the normans reign in England was tyrranny. According to that article the normans never tried to make any efforts to assimilate with the English. And there were a system of apartheid between the English and Normans. Could that be the origin of English hatred for the french. And also could that be the origin of the Upper class accent. You have to admitt that in England not so long ago they existed a caste system there. The article itself is controversial but nevertheless a good read. Somehow, I no longer feel proud of having a norman ancestry anymore.
http://www.bbc.co.uk/history/lj/conquestlj/conquered_01.shtml?site=history_conquestlj_conquest - http://www.bbc.co.uk/history/lj/conquestlj/conquered_01.shtm l?site=history_conquestlj_conquest
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Replies:
Posted By: Roughneck
Date Posted: 10-Sep-2004 at 00:31
Don't feel so bad. Every ruler was a butcher back then. This divide could be the cause of the accents, but not the ancestral hatred. I suspect the reason for that is simply the fact that england and France were in a state of near constant warfare, at least great tension, from the Middle Ages to 1815. Some of the hatred was watching soldiers march over your land, but others was good PR by the government I'm sure, an early form of propaganda.
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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 10-Sep-2004 at 06:34
Originally posted by Clovis
Could that be the origin of English hatred for the french. |
I would say the "hatred" is mutual and based more in the hundred years war, Nap wars and so on, which are far closer to us.
Besides, the neighbours hate each other: French-germans, french-british, french-spanish, german-poles, poles-russians, spanish-portuguese, ...
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Posted By: Dawn
Date Posted: 12-Sep-2004 at 16:41
One of the books I'm reading now "1066 the year of the Conquest" flips back and forth between Norman and English veiws of what lead up to and the conquest it self. It examines possible reasons for Williams invasion and looks at the English veiw of it. England having been at peace for some time and having their own way of electing a king were understandably upset by the invesion and left William little choice in subjegating them.
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Posted By: Berosus
Date Posted: 13-Sep-2004 at 07:40
The English didn't get along well with most of their neighbors at the
time, don't forget. Besides the French, there were frequent
squabbles with the Scots and Welsh, and Ireland after Henry II invaded
the Emerald Isle. In another forum, I saw somebody write that the
worst thing about Scotland's history is that the Scots were unlucky
enough to have England for a neighbor.
Apartheid would be a correct term for what the Normans did right after
1066, but not ethnic cleansing--I don't see an organized effort to
destroy the Anglo-Saxons as an ethnic group, or even to remove them
wholesale from the land, as the Serbs did more recently with their
"ethnic cleansing." The land would have been useless without
serfs to tend it, after all, and everything the Normans did was to make
sure they remained in charge, which was also part of the thinking
behind what the South African whites did with their form of
apartheid. Appropriately, in the Afrikaner language, it's
pronounced "apart-hate."
They could defeat enemy soldiers but they couldn't defeat time, and
eventually the Normans were assimilated in every place they
conquered--in France, England, southern Italy and the Holy Land.
As the best knights in Europe, they excelled in fighting and
castle-building. However, their main role was to be the catalysts
of medieval culture. They invented almost nothing on their own,
but instead learned architecture, tactics and the techniques of
government from others. Once they had improved on all of these
things, and changed the face of Europe, they faded away. By 1200
they were no longer a distinct people, and their kingdoms were in the
hands of their former students.
------------- Nothing truly great is achieved through moderation.--Prof. M.A.R. Barker
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Posted By: Evildoer
Date Posted: 13-Sep-2004 at 11:53
Also remember that kings like Richard le Coeur de Lion was a total Norman, yet he is revered by the English. He did not even speak English, only French!!!
I would say that Normans are more of Vikings than French. True, they adopted some parts of French culture and spoke a diluted form of French, but their warrior spirit was truely viking.
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Posted By: Landsknecht_Doppelsoldner
Date Posted: 13-Sep-2004 at 13:50
Originally posted by Dawn
One of the books I'm reading now "1066 the year of the Conquest" flips back and forth between Norman and English veiws of what lead up to and the conquest it self. It examines possible reasons for Williams invasion and looks at the English veiw of it. England having been at peace for some time and having their own way of electing a king were understandably upset by the invesion and left William little choice in subjegating them.
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David Howarth's Hastings book is excellent, and his book regarding the Spanish Armada is great too.
------------- "Who despises me and my praiseworthy craft,
I'll hit on the head that it resounds in his heart."
--Augustin Staidt, of the Federfechter (German fencing guild)
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Posted By: Landsknecht_Doppelsoldner
Date Posted: 13-Sep-2004 at 13:53
Originally posted by Evildoer
Also remember that kings like Richard le Coeur de Lion was a total Norman, yet he is revered by the English. He did not even speak English, only French!!!
I would say that Normans are more of Vikings than French. True, they adopted some parts of French culture and spoke a diluted form of French, but their warrior spirit was truely viking.
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Perhaps it would even be more accurate to simply state that the Normans were, well... Normans. They believed in the concept of Gens Normannorum ("The Norman People").
------------- "Who despises me and my praiseworthy craft,
I'll hit on the head that it resounds in his heart."
--Augustin Staidt, of the Federfechter (German fencing guild)
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Posted By: Cornellia
Date Posted: 13-Sep-2004 at 14:21
Richard is actually the second Plantagenat king.
He was the grandson of Mathilda, daughter of Henry I, and Geoffrey of Anjou.
------------- Felix qui potuit rerum cognoscere causas
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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 14-Sep-2004 at 05:58
I would say that Normans are more of Vikings than French. True, they adopted some parts of French culture and spoke a diluted form of French, but their warrior spirit was truely viking. |
The Normans were quick to become French, particularly since they were a minority in their new duchy and a disproportionate number of the new people were young male Vikings who took local women for wives. After a few generations, the Norwegian language and customs were fading fast and the Normans were French
Viking are incapable of Frankish organisation and order. The Viking were a bunch of raiders, each time they met a real army they ever flee or faced defeat. THe viking was in fact crushed by Frankish duke Robert "Le Justicier" at Charte 911. However, they took advantage of the situation in peace treaty by allowing the viking to settle in normandy. Rollo readily converted to christianity and the large number of single man readilt married into the disproportionately larger Gallic population. 150 years, in 1066, no one knows who the fvck the viking are. The Normans were more french than the Franks themselves. Same hair cut, same language (in fact they spoke a more refine french), same architecture, the fight on horse. There names are as french as it can get. Together they brought the Frank from ile-de-france to assault england. In fact the majority the William armies weren't from normandy. To remind you the viking never conquered normandy, they were just raiders.
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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 14-Sep-2004 at 06:04
Also remember that kings like Richard le Coeur de Lion was a total Norman, yet he is revered by the English. He did not even speak English, only French!!! |
Wrong, Coeur de Lion mother was Eleanor of Aquittaine (born in poitier Aquittaine, France) and her Father was Henri Plantagenêt (note the French name indicating he has no freaking viking ancestry) the duke of normandy. Richard automatically inherited Aquittaine, the place he died and was buried.
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Posted By: Dawn
Date Posted: 14-Sep-2004 at 10:07
Originally posted by Landsknecht_Doppelsoldner
David Howarth's Hastings book is excellent, and his book regarding the Spanish Armada is great too.
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I'm finding this one verygood as well. Almost done it I'll have to look for Hastings.
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Posted By: Dawn
Date Posted: 14-Sep-2004 at 10:25
Quetzalcoatl of course the Normans were not Vikings, if they were William would not have had to spend six months or more gathering and building ships to go to England and would not of had to promise half of England to his nobles. There would have been little concern about the cannel crossing It would have been a routine thing for a Viking force. To assume that the Vikings were "incapable of Frankish organisation and order" is a fallacy. For what ever reason they choose their own form of society structure but the Vikings were far from simply raiders. They were very ferocious, highly adaptable, with there own code of conduct and probably the best seamen around(at least in northern Europe) It has been suggested that the fighting mentality of the Normans was a direct result of the Norwegian blood that was introduced to the local population.
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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 14-Sep-2004 at 18:16
It has been suggested that the fighting mentality of the Normans was a direct result of the Norwegian blood that was introduced to the local population. |
That is total nonsense for the simple reason the vast majority of the army were Frank mercenaries (Frank here is used to describe the early french, because at this time anyone in Francia occidentalis were referred as Franc(FRank) by outsiders even the normans). If the vikings were such great warriors how come they were always defeated in large conventional battles such as Chartre and stamford bridge. This shows they were only adapted for raids and small scale fight. THe viking blood thing is a myth without any real foundation. The normands before even the arrival of the vikings were already fierce warriors which were from the original Gaul population. And the viking never conquered the place, the land was given to them from (an agreement after their defeat). It's like you telling me 10000 people arriving in a population of nearly 1 million, will turn them into viking. This is ridiculous. Plus unlike in England the Gallic lords already in the region were powerful and they readily married with the viking leaders forming the norman elites. And this point they are Gallo-scandinavian but 150 years later, the vikings were just tales for the kids.
And there is no proof that the early viking has any decent military organisation like the Franks. They fought mostly in war band usually less than 200 and were rather the opportunists type not the warrior who fought for honour , glory or a cause. This classify the viking mostly as barbars, not different from any primitive tribes.
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Posted By: Dawn
Date Posted: 15-Sep-2004 at 16:28
As interesting as discussing the merits (or lack thereof )of Viking warriors is ,it might be better suited to a thread of it’s own rather than hi jacking this one.
To return to your original premise that the Normans reign in England was nothing short of tyranny. From the point of view of the English how could it be anything but. The Normans invaded England on a premise that can still be said to be flimsy at best. That Duke William had a right to the throne because of a few suggested(I only say this because it is not 100% certain that they were made) promises and had gained papal support under false pretenses . Hereditary claims did not exist in that England and the death bed request of Herold carried a great deal of weight. The English were happy with their councils choice of king and then along comes William and his army and wins. One of the biggest problems the English had was that William distributed most of the lands to his Norman followers but what choice did he have. He had promised them it. He was ruthless in putting down the rebellions that followed (5 years or mor of them) And his harsh measures touched not only the nobles but the commoners as well. The ring of Norman castles must have been ment for protection from the locals because there wasn’t much of an outside threat at the time. That constant remainder of the conquest couldn’t have been good for creating good feelings with the locals.
You said that the Normans made no efforts to assimilate the English but within a few generations the English had assimilated the Normans to make a new bread of Englishman different than the old but not the same as the Normans of the continent either. Could it be responsable for the long standing hatred between the two states? Well it could make a real good start at it. What was the condition of affairs between the two before Hastings?
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Posted By: Evildoer
Date Posted: 15-Sep-2004 at 16:58
I disagree, the English kings that lead the invasion into France during 100 years war were themselves very Frenchy-blooded - it was the later wars against the real French and not the Normans that dampened the relations.
I disagree Quetzal, the Vikings quite effectively attacked Paris and I think the inhabitatants had to starve for a time, although I don't know much about it.
Remember that there was the Danelaw that took over the entire section of England and even Alfred the Great had to bargain with them. Even Shakespeare's Macbeth has a mention of a Norweigian army invading Scotland. It is no conincidence that Scottish accent acttually closely resembles the Scandinavian accent... The founders of Russian nation were thus Scandinavian too. They even dared to attack Byzentium once too, and they once held a whole chunk of Ireland.
I read from an account by a Norman monk at the site of Hastings that Norman haircut was similar to that of monks.... so the Saxons were surprised that Norman army was made of "monks" ahahhaha
I have doubts about Normans speaking refinded French.... they even pronounced H's! (Je parle francais un peu...) And likely their accent resembled Scandinavian.
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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 15-Sep-2004 at 18:46
I disagree, the English kings that lead the invasion into France during 100 years war were themselves very Frenchy-blooded - it was the later wars against the real French and not the Normans that dampened the relations. |
Well strictly speaking it wasn't England vs France, more like an alliance of Anglo-Franco-Burgundian vs France and Scottland. Normandy naturally was at time under Frankish control. Since they sided with France after France defeated England and the flemish during the Capetian wars during the 13th century.
I disagree Quetzal, the Vikings quite effectively attacked Paris and I think the inhabitatants had to starve for a time, although I don't know much about it. |
Well these were war bands, a rather large one in that particular case. Knowing the nature of the conflict , it's pretty hard for the Frank to response to them. But they were thouroughly defeated later and at many occassion. But they don't seem to be under any central authority so another nabd will come later and raid another place. Anyone will appreciate that the vikings were successful because they have high mobility. They usually went for soft targets.
Remember that there was the Danelaw that took over the entire section of England and even Alfred the Great had to bargain with them. Even Shakespeare's Macbeth has a mention of a Norweigian army invading Scotland. It is no conincidence that Scottish accent acttually closely resembles the Scandinavian accent... The founders of Russian nation were thus Scandinavian too. They even dared to attack Byzentium once too, and they once held a whole chunk of Ireland.
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Well there is nothing they could do about, it is rather impossible in that time to protect there cost against the vikings. So they settled, gradually increase in number and therefore forming larger war bands which ressembled actually an army. Scottish certainly have little scandinavian influence, they are celtic, only the southern part of scotland was settled by viking. And I believe this has to nothing to do with there accent.
I read from an account by a Norman monk at the site of Hastings that Norman haircut was similar to that of monks.... so the Saxons were surprised that Norman army was made of "monks" ahahhaha |
Like Jean Reno in "les visiteurs" . No it's Frankish hair style not normans, the original people of normandy already had it. It was for the warrior class in all France. Well the immigrants certainly adopted it.
I have doubts about Normans speaking refinded French.... they even pronounced H's! (Je parle francais un peu...) And likely their accent resembled Scandinavian. |
Normands french is known as langue d'oil, considered as more refined as la langue d'oc. They were spoken in France even before the arrival of the disproportionately smaller viking immigrants. The viking simply adopted the language and didn't modify it. THe reason for that is because the children usually take the accent of the mother, and although the viking population was small, they were also single so they married the locals. Basically there children will speak la langue d'oil. I'll believe William (Guillaume) would have spoken like Jean Reno in le Voyageur, old French is not exactly the same as modern French.
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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 15-Sep-2004 at 18:50
You said that the Normans made no efforts to assimilate the English but within a few generations the English had assimilated the Normans to make a new bread of Englishman different than the old but not the same as the Normans of the continent either. Could it be responsable for the long standing hatred between the two states? Well it could make a real good start at it. What was the condition of affairs between the two before Hastings? |
It took them like 300 years to start speaking English. When I speak of normans I'm not talking about the vikings but about the people from normandy. Yes they have viking immigration. But those viking was thoroughly assimilated in 150 years and the local lords have tremendous power in the area.
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Posted By: Evildoer
Date Posted: 15-Sep-2004 at 20:29
William was originally known as William the Bastard... lol.
What are the differences between Langue d'Oc and Langue d'Oil? Was Langue d'Oil used in rest of Northern France as well such as in Champagne or Auvergne?
And what are Gascon and Provencal? Are they just dilects or are they a full language on their own?
Hmm... I suppose the Northern France would have been much more fully Celtic than the southern part since it was conquered later and was less accessible to Latin migrations from Roman Italy than souther parts.
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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 15-Sep-2004 at 21:10
What are the differences between Langue d'Oc and Langue d'Oil? Was Langue d'Oil used in rest of Northern France as well such as in Champagne or Auvergne?
And what are Gascon and Provencal? Are they just dilects or are they a full language on their own? |
Langue d'oc was the dialects of french spoken in southern of France. Occitan and Provencal are dialects of the Langue d'oc.
Langue d'oil was the medieval dialects of French spoken in central and northern France.
Hmm... I suppose the Northern France would have been much more fully Celtic than the southern part since it was conquered later and was less accessible to Latin migrations from Roman Italy than souther parts. |
Well britanny was celtic without any doubt, but normandy was rather more a mixture of Franks and celts plus it was a little bit romanised. But in these area poeple have celtic or germanic treats which contrast witht people of the south which have meditteranean features. In medieval southerners were probably different because later large number of immigrants from italy and Spain moved into southern France.
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Posted By: Evildoer
Date Posted: 15-Sep-2004 at 21:21
Thanks for the info. I am studying French in school (Grade 12).
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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 08-May-2005 at 21:59
Favourite Tyrants--William The Bastard
The bad stuff (there is some good stuff but that is not the topic
here)
The Desolation:
In the days following the battle of Hastings Field, the Normans
and the French of William”s army wrecked havoc. The Port of
Romney was annihilated—they had the effrontery to defend
them selves earlier. The towns of Benenden, Tenterden, and
Ashford were dealt with. Dover was burned. They surrendered
but he burned it anyway. (A little aside here--the Norman army
got a severe case of Dover’s Revenge—some even died of this
violent gastro-enteritis.)
Canterbury surrendered and was pillaged to some extent but
left intact. My guess is that the rapine so common at that time
was also enacted. No actual record of it though that I have
found. The area around Nutfield (near Redhill today) was
particularly severe. Evidently this was where the main force
waited word from the recon sent to London. Some of those
devastated were evidently never rebuilt and disappeared from
history. One thing is clear, William could not control the
excesses of his army—they had come not as settlers but for
booty after all.
King Edward”s widow, Edith, surrendered the city of Winchester
so it was pared—from pillage and rape though? Hard to
believe.
William did not take the straight route to London, but, as D.
Howarth (1066: The Year of Conquest) explains it, they took a
very circuitous route, prowling around London, as if suspecting
a trap. The devastation is documented in the Doomesday
record.
Other towns and their neighbors and surrounding environs that
met with the Norman boot, included Camberwell and
Southwark, Wallingford, Goring, in fact it is safe to say that if the
Norman army passed nearby, some atrocities if not downright
devastation were meted out. (But no surprises here. This is the
same crowd that rallied to the Crusaders cause some years
later—they did love a boisterous campaign. Marc Bloch
(Feudal Society) singles out Normandy for this. The Normans
were the great campaigners of the era and that means murder,
pillage and rape.)
The conquest was actually from 1066 through 1072 (according
to J.R. Strayer and D. C. Monroe “The Middle Ages: 395-1500).
So horribly did the Big B respond to the pathetically organised
rebellions that the Vale of York was still desert 20 years later.
Between York and Durham not a village was inhabited and
wild beasts and robbers ruled.
Howarth says the records are clear, William I devastated
thousands of square miles so completely they were
uninhabited and remained empty for a generation or more.
Howarth also proposes some figures. In the next twenty years,
one in five of the English die, some 300,000, killed by the
Norman Army or starved as a result of seizure of stock and
land. it was a period that also saw some 200,000 Normans and
French settle in England.
An example from the Doomesday book given by Howarth. In
Horstede, twenty miles from Hastings, eight from Pevensey
Harbour. Given the distance from the battle, chances are a lot
of the men went off to fight. In October it was raided by the
Normans, pillaged, raped, burned, slaughtered. Given its
subsistence level economy, in the time after the Conquest it is a
good bet that those remaining starved if they did not go
elsewhere—which would have been a very limited option. In
1066 its taxable value fell from 100 to 50 shillings. That taxable
amount had risen all of 10 shillings by 1086. Othere villages in
the area suffering pretty much the same fate—Gorde,
Mesewelle, Flesching.
Ruinous taxes, disenfranchisement, rape, pillage, massacre,
enslavement, plundered churches (this seemed to have the
most devastating effect. They could accept the rest as judgment
of God--this is also the time when St. Anselm went into exile
and Willie plundered the churches) and imprisonment and
mutilation. And all those castles.
Siege Mentality and Subsequent Castellation
Another change Wm. I imposed--vast number of castles
constructed to control the country and rather than protect the
people from the bad guys, the castles served to protect the bad
guys from the oppressed. Norman castellation from 1066 to
1154 saw nearly 900 of them. Good section on fortifications in
J. Keegan’s “A History of Warfare.
Absolute Tyranny
Willie had not been able to command his men in Normandy to
go with him. He was compelled to offer inducements—and
there were a lot of people to reward. There was really only one
way to deal with this. The Conquering Bastard took the entire
country as his property and with the exception a few small land-
owners already in residence who had joined him, he
dispossessed all but a few of the smaller landowning families
and whatever else he could have. He imposed absolute
Norman Feudalism. No lands were given out even to his own
men but that they were merely fiefdoms, not held freely.
William extended his grasp through the door of every cottage
and hut. The Normans who took over, fiefdoms though they
were, had absolute power over those on their land.
Not that Willie trusted his own boys. Even that land held in fief
was broken up into many locations to forestall any
concentration by any one man in any one area (exceptions
were the Welsh and Scottish borders) so the landlords had to
travel about to keep an eye on things.
Slavery/Serfdom
Norman rule initiated and designed by WtC saw that by the
13th century in the time of William the Confessor, many who
would have been free pre-Norman were mere serfs.
Decline of Commerce
Cut off from their Danish markets, the towns suffered severely.
The Bastard imposed an audit, which later earned the
sobriquet “The Doomsday Inquest,” in 1086 on the entire
country, detailing everything of value, down to the last pig. (This
survey is now a highly regarded document by the way, it was
that extensive.) Whatever there was, he owned it and he taxed
it. Ruinously.
Decline of Food Sources
While much of the agriculture did continue, Willie and the boys
did enough damage in extensive areas to bring agriculture to a
halt for more than a generation. He also apportioned vast
stretches of land for hunting. Poachers were blinded if caught
on the royal forests—he valued deer over hungry people. (The
feelings of the people are reflected in the tales of Robin Hood.)
Displacement of the Anglo-Saxons in Positions of Authority
In offices lay and ecclesiastical, Normans replaced the Saxons
and the overwhelming majority of the English were reduced to
villeinage. St. Anselm was exiled, William's French clergy took
over. (These were the days of the Gregorian reformation.) The
Anglo-Saxon witan yielded to whim and caprice of French and
Norman prerogative.
Cultural Displacement
The ruling classes spoke French and the low-rents spoke
English. Records were kept exclusively in Latin, putting the
common people even further away from any sort of power over
their lives. One interesting aspect of the language change,
words associated with the labour of producing food (cu, pigge,
sceap) were to remain Anglo-Saxon. Those words to describe
the same food when ready to eat, (boeuf, porc, mouton
respectively) were French. Words today for control and
authority--order, police, court, judge, trial, sentence, prison,
punishment, execution—are all from Norman French.
While pre-Norman customs were adhered to amongst the
villeins, the literature, architecture, dress, and education were
imported by the Normans, drawing a course line between the
haves and the have-nots. Apartheid indeed.
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Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 08-May-2005 at 23:19
Wow, I learned alot, thanks
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Posted By: Gavriel
Date Posted: 18-Jun-2005 at 19:36
At Williams funeral he burst open in the Abbey and the congregation fled gagging at the stench,i bet the English loved that
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Posted By: Exarchus
Date Posted: 20-Jun-2005 at 04:31
Well, they weren't better here than in England. I wonder what is the Sicilian experience with them.
------------- Vae victis!
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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 20-Jun-2005 at 05:44
Originally posted by malangthon
Favourite Tyrants--William The Bastard
The bad stuff (there is some good stuff but that is not the topic here)
The Desolation: In the days following the battle of Hastings Field, the Normans and the French of William”s army wrecked havoc. The Port of Romney was annihilated—they had the effrontery to defend them selves earlier. The towns of Benenden, Tenterden, and Ashford were dealt with. Dover was burned. They surrendered but he burned it anyway. (A little aside here--the Norman army got a severe case of Dover’s Revenge—some even died of this violent gastro-enteritis.)
Canterbury surrendered and was pillaged to some extent but left intact. My guess is that the rapine so common at that time was also enacted. No actual record of it though that I have found. The area around Nutfield (near Redhill today) was particularly severe. Evidently this was where the main force waited word from the recon sent to London. Some of those devastated were evidently never rebuilt and disappeared from history. One thing is clear, William could not control the excesses of his army—they had come not as settlers but for booty after all.
King Edward”s widow, Edith, surrendered the city of Winchester so it was pared—from pillage and rape though? Hard to believe.
William did not take the straight route to London, but, as D. Howarth (1066: The Year of Conquest) explains it, they took a very circuitous route, prowling around London, as if suspecting a trap. The devastation is documented in the Doomesday record.
Other towns and their neighbors and surrounding environs that met with the Norman boot, included Camberwell and Southwark, Wallingford, Goring, in fact it is safe to say that if the Norman army passed nearby, some atrocities if not downright devastation were meted out. (But no surprises here. This is the same crowd that rallied to the Crusaders cause some years later—they did love a boisterous campaign. Marc Bloch (Feudal Society) singles out Normandy for this. The Normans were the great campaigners of the era and that means murder, pillage and rape.)
The conquest was actually from 1066 through 1072 (according to J.R. Strayer and D. C. Monroe “The Middle Ages: 395-1500). So horribly did the Big B respond to the pathetically organised rebellions that the Vale of York was still desert 20 years later. Between York and Durham not a village was inhabited and wild beasts and robbers ruled.
Howarth says the records are clear, William I devastated thousands of square miles so completely they were uninhabited and remained empty for a generation or more. Howarth also proposes some figures. In the next twenty years, one in five of the English die, some 300,000, killed by the Norman Army or starved as a result of seizure of stock and land. it was a period that also saw some 200,000 Normans and French settle in England.
An example from the Doomesday book given by Howarth. In Horstede, twenty miles from Hastings, eight from Pevensey Harbour. Given the distance from the battle, chances are a lot of the men went off to fight. In October it was raided by the Normans, pillaged, raped, burned, slaughtered. Given its subsistence level economy, in the time after the Conquest it is a good bet that those remaining starved if they did not go elsewhere—which would have been a very limited option. In 1066 its taxable value fell from 100 to 50 shillings. That taxable amount had risen all of 10 shillings by 1086. Othere villages in the area suffering pretty much the same fate—Gorde, Mesewelle, Flesching.
Ruinous taxes, disenfranchisement, rape, pillage, massacre, enslavement, plundered churches (this seemed to have the most devastating effect. They could accept the rest as judgment of God--this is also the time when St. Anselm went into exile and Willie plundered the churches) and imprisonment and mutilation. And all those castles.
Siege Mentality and Subsequent Castellation Another change Wm. I imposed--vast number of castles constructed to control the country and rather than protect the people from the bad guys, the castles served to protect the bad guys from the oppressed. Norman castellation from 1066 to 1154 saw nearly 900 of them. Good section on fortifications in J. Keegan’s “A History of Warfare.
Absolute Tyranny Willie had not been able to command his men in Normandy to go with him. He was compelled to offer inducements—and there were a lot of people to reward. There was really only one way to deal with this. The Conquering Bastard took the entire country as his property and with the exception a few small land- owners already in residence who had joined him, he dispossessed all but a few of the smaller landowning families and whatever else he could have. He imposed absolute Norman Feudalism. No lands were given out even to his own men but that they were merely fiefdoms, not held freely.
William extended his grasp through the door of every cottage and hut. The Normans who took over, fiefdoms though they were, had absolute power over those on their land.
Not that Willie trusted his own boys. Even that land held in fief was broken up into many locations to forestall any concentration by any one man in any one area (exceptions were the Welsh and Scottish borders) so the landlords had to travel about to keep an eye on things.
Slavery/Serfdom Norman rule initiated and designed by WtC saw that by the 13th century in the time of William the Confessor, many who would have been free pre-Norman were mere serfs.
Decline of Commerce Cut off from their Danish markets, the towns suffered severely. The Bastard imposed an audit, which later earned the sobriquet “The Doomsday Inquest,Ein 1086 on the entire country, detailing everything of value, down to the last pig. (This survey is now a highly regarded document by the way, it was that extensive.) Whatever there was, he owned it and he taxed it. Ruinously.
Decline of Food Sources While much of the agriculture did continue, Willie and the boys did enough damage in extensive areas to bring agriculture to a halt for more than a generation. He also apportioned vast stretches of land for hunting. Poachers were blinded if caught on the royal forests—he valued deer over hungry people. (The feelings of the people are reflected in the tales of Robin Hood.)
Displacement of the Anglo-Saxons in Positions of Authority In offices lay and ecclesiastical, Normans replaced the Saxons and the overwhelming majority of the English were reduced to villeinage. St. Anselm was exiled, William's French clergy took over. (These were the days of the Gregorian reformation.) The Anglo-Saxon witan yielded to whim and caprice of French and Norman prerogative.
Cultural Displacement The ruling classes spoke French and the low-rents spoke English. Records were kept exclusively in Latin, putting the common people even further away from any sort of power over their lives. One interesting aspect of the language change, words associated with the labour of producing food (cu, pigge, sceap) were to remain Anglo-Saxon. Those words to describe the same food when ready to eat, (boeuf, porc, mouton respectively) were French. Words today for control and authority--order, police, court, judge, trial, sentence, prison, punishment, execution—are all from Norman French.
While pre-Norman customs were adhered to amongst the villeins, the literature, architecture, dress, and education were imported by the Normans, drawing a course line between the haves and the have-nots. Apartheid indeed.
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Isn't that a little exagerated, the man was no different from other feudal rulers. There were rulers worst than William, Fulk Nera from anjou i heard was a real bastard. I've always viewed William as the greatest hero from the land of normandy. Of course medieval heroes were pretty barbaric. During the hundred years wars, the English-burgundian and allies pretty much devastated normandy and northern France.
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Posted By: vulkan02
Date Posted: 20-Jun-2005 at 16:03
the Normans considered themselves more French than Viking. They imposed the French language on England brutally too. My professor was explaining to me in this literature class i took before that this is very visible in English language today too.
Sheep (english) - Mutton (meat of sheep... French )
cow (english) - beef (French)
they have other words too but as you can see the latter has nothing to do with the former so it was imposed on them.
------------- The beginning of a revolution is in reality the end of a belief - Le Bon
Destroy first and construction will look after itself - Mao
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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 21-Jun-2005 at 03:05
the Normans considered themselves more French than Viking. |
I never knew where the people get the idea that normans were vikings. You shouldn't confuse normenn and norman, the Anglo-saxons called the viking normenn but the norman romans (from an anglo-saxon perspective they still believe romans lived in France) Norman means people of the north, this has 2 origins, the vikings were called norseman but normandy is pretty north in France. It is true a group of viking settled in that area but they were quickly assimilated in the vast romano-germano-celtic population in the area. 150 years for these people the vikings exist somehow in history. I would doubt William would have had a drop of viking blood in him. Racially or culturally normans would have had little to do with vikings, some traditions would remain just like every foreigners will bring something new.
You need to be careful also with the term french contrary to belief it didn't come from the Franks but from the duchy of ile-de-france (which itself come from the Franks). everyone in northern France was a frank crudely speaking but the area was still being known as Gaul in those time. Only after the Philip from ile-de-France conquered France did the place started to be known as France. People in southern France didn't quite view themselves as French, they were occitans or Gascon, burgundian etc. A norman outside France will be known as a Frank inside he will be a norman, someone from ile-de-france will be a french and someone from burgundy will be burgundians. If burgundy had conquered France, the whole place may have been known today as Burgundy or Greater Burgundy.
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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 21-Jun-2005 at 03:13
Sheep (english) - Mutton (meat of sheep... French )
cow (english) - beef (French) |
pork--Porc
market-- Marche
Chair - chaise
And virtually(1) every word with two or more syllables (2) are derived(3) from french or latin. You can have word like chicken which is germanic but will have derivative(4) like poultry(5) (derived from french words like poulet (chicken)
Just check the example(6) above I've numbered(7) them and check their origin(8) in a dictionary(9).
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Posted By: Temujin
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 15:55
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl
market-- Marche
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market however is not French originated, in German it's Markt.
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Posted By: mord
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 16:20
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl
the Normans considered themselves more French than Viking. |
I never knew where the people get the idea that normans were vikings. You shouldn't confuse normenn and norman, the Anglo-saxons called the viking normenn but the norman romans (from an anglo-saxon perspective they still believe romans lived in France) Norman means people of the north, this has 2 origins, the vikings were called norseman but normandy is pretty north in France. It is true a group of viking settled in that area but they were quickly assimilated in the vast romano-germano-celtic population in the area. 150 years for these people the vikings exist somehow in history. I would doubt William would have had a drop of viking blood in him. Racially or culturally normans would have had little to do with vikings, some traditions would remain just like every foreigners will bring something new.
You need to be careful also with the term french contrary to belief it didn't come from the Franks but from the duchy of ile-de-france (which itself come from the Franks). everyone in northern France was a frank crudely speaking but the area was still being known as Gaul in those time. Only after the Philip from ile-de-France conquered France did the place started to be known as France. People in southern France didn't quite view themselves as French, they were occitans or Gascon, burgundian etc. A norman outside France will be known as a Frank inside he will be a norman, someone from ile-de-france will be a french and someone from burgundy will be burgundians. If burgundy had conquered France, the whole place may have been known today as Burgundy or Greater Burgundy.
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Umm...you're really only half correct.
What became the Duchy of Normandy was founded in the early 10th century (I believe in 910AD) when Charles the Fat, King of the Franks (or Charles the Bald--I can never keep those two straight) granted a Norwegian named Rollo (who led a band of Danes) land in the North of France. The Franks called Rollo and his Danes "North-Men" or, eventually, Normans. As time passed the Normans came from a land called Normandy, in the North of what became (with the establishment of Hugh Capet--founder of the Capetian Dynasty--later in the 10th Century.) "France."
The Normans find thier ancestory in Scandinavia. Scandinavians became Normans mostly due to economic and religious reason. They learned French and adopted Christianity through the reformed Clunaic Liturgy. By the time Rollo died (in the 920s, I think), his heir, William Longsword, was leading his people into thoroughly non-Danish, non-Viking culture.
Also, if I remember correctly The Anglo-Saxon pretty much refered to the Scandinavian Vikings as "Danes." The Irish, btw, differentiated the vikings by the hair color--there were "light haired foriengers" and "dark haired foriengers."
Finally, the Ile-de-France was never a duchy; it was the was the property, or the demese (domain) of the King of France.
Mord.
------------- errr...left turn at vinland?
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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 19:56
Originally posted by Temujin
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl
market-- Marche
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market however is not French originated, in German it's Markt.
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I'm not sure it could be german in origin, it is found in vulgar latin which turn lately in french, so it may have a german origin. But it's introduction into the english language is from french, do not confuse that one. It was introduce by the normans. it could have been from germany into french then from french into english. Now you need to prove that it actually was introduce from germanic language into french rather than from latin to germanic language.
[Middle English, from Old North French, from Vulgar Latin *marctus, from Latin merctus, from past participle of mercr, to buy, from merx, merc-, merchandise.]
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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 20:04
Umm...you're really only half correct.
What became the Duchy of Normandy was founded in the early 10th century (I believe in 910AD) when Charles the Fat, King of the Franks (or Charles the Bald--I can never keep those two straight) granted a Norwegian named Rollo (who led a band of Danes) land in the North of France. The Franks called Rollo and his Danes "North-Men" or, eventually, Normans. As time passed the Normans came from a land called Normandy, in the North of what became (with the establishment of Hugh Capet--founder of the Capetian Dynasty--later in the 10th Century.) "France."
The Normans find thier ancestory in Scandinavia. Scandinavians became Normans mostly due to economic and religious reason. They learned French and adopted Christianity through the reformed Clunaic Liturgy. By the time Rollo died (in the 920s, I think), his heir, William Longsword, was leading his people into thoroughly non-Danish, non-Viking culture.
Also, if I remember correctly The Anglo-Saxon pretty much refered to the Scandinavian Vikings as "Danes." The Irish, btw, differentiated the vikings by the hair color--there were "light haired foriengers" and "dark haired foriengers."
Finally, the Ile-de-France was never a duchy; it was the was the property, or the demese (domain) of the King of France.
Mord. |
no no and nooooooooo. The normans do not find their ancestry in scandinavia, the scandinavian ancestry is exagerated. Their is a scandinavian heritage but this is small nigh to insignificant. Don't you understand Rollo and his company were a small minority of male adventurers that were assimilated in a larger population in normandy. The normans that invaded England has little in common with Rollo or the viking, they were romano-germano celts with a negligible scandinavian input. You have to consider here the following points
1. Viking males settled in normandy were a minority
2. They married locals women
3. they did not totally control everything or displaced the lords already on the land but mixed with them, unlike in England.
4. 150 years later, anything viking is only traditional, saying Normans has viking ancestry rather than french ancestry is extremely ridiculous as if. They were assimilated and dissolved, they cannot be the ancestors of the normans. it is ridiculous to say my ancestors are vikings because I'm from normandy.
The Duchy of France was centred roughly around ile-de-France also known as the royal domain. Read the encyclopedia of France, it clearly have a duchy name as the Duchy of France, it was on the border of annilation it could have swallowed by anything like Aquittaine, Anjou, normandy or burgundy. Philip Augustus saved the place, they said Philip Augustus saved France, it wasn't modern France but ile-de-France. These terms are superficial, if someone from Aquittaine was powerful enough he could have conquered the whole France (as modern) including the duchy of France, and named the whole place as Aquittaine the new or Greater Aquittaine and set new rules. Infact in those time, the people in northern France were known as Franks, but the place known as Gaul still. But I got what you mean because the king resided there it could not be a Duchy right. remember kingship does not become hereditary among the Capetian until 1179, so prior ile-de-France (more like paris and orleans) was the Duchy of France. Understand that.
No the Anglo-saxons call the norwegian as Normenn (they could have called the danes something else) in the anglo-saxon chronicles whereas they called the normans as romans.
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Posted By: HistoryGuy
Date Posted: 08-Sep-2005 at 18:19
The Normans were descended from the Vikings. Norwegian Vikings I believe.
------------- هیچ مردی تا به Øال به شما درباره خدا Ú¯Ùته.
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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 08-Sep-2005 at 19:00
Originally posted by Evildoer
What are the differences between Langue d'Oc and Langue d'Oil? Was
Langue d'Oil used in rest of Northern France as well such as in
Champagne or Auvergne?
And what are Gascon and Provencal? Are they just dilects or are they a full language on their own?
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Lange d'Oc or Occitanian is a diferent language from French, in fact it
is closer to Catalonian (spoken in Andorra, Eastern Spain and the
French department of Bas Pyrenees), which is considered to be a dialect
of Occitanian by many. Provençal is another dialect of Occitanian but
Gascon is not. Gascon is a diferent Romance language: the Romance
spoken by those who used to be Basques in a time
(Vascon/Wascon->Gascon) and it has many peculiarities, that shares
with Castilian (Spanish) and Upper Aragonese, other Romances with a
very strong Basque influence. Of the three Gascon is noticeably the
most influenced by Basque. Nevertheless Gascon and Aragonese were under
the inluence of Occitanian (a very important language in the Middle
Ages, the language of trouvateurs) and this may cause some confusion.
The South of France (Occitania and Gascony) suffered a major cultural
assimilation into France starting with the violent Crusade against the
Albigensians and ending with Republican Jacobinism. Right now most
consider themselves French and are losing their languages. But the fact
that the French capital remains well in the north of the Republic but
in the geographical center of ethnical France is very meaningful of who
were the winners.
The reasons for the developing of two different Romance languages (not
counting Gascon) withing the Western Frankish Kingdom, aka France
can be foud in the following historical and ethnical facts:
- The "Roman Province" was only partially Gaulish to start with.
Ligurians and Greeks made a large part of the population, specially in
what is now Provence.
- All the territory had belonged for centuries to the Visigoths (or
to the Burgundians also), who had their first capital at Tolouse.
- The French domain in the area was quite weak before the
Albigensian Crusade. The Earl of Tolouse was the actual power in most
of the area for centuries, while other parts belonged to the remnants
of the Kingdom or Arles and were only lately annexed to France.
- Parts of the region's population, including Gascons, clearly
favored England in the Hundred Years' War, as means to mantain their
identity and independence from Paris.
- This was also the area where protestantism was stronger,
indicating that the culturally opressed Occitanians sought ways to
rebel against the central power rather unsuccesfully.
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NO GOD, NO MASTER!
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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 08-Sep-2005 at 19:18
The origins of Normans are in Danish Vikings. Norwegians never pillaged
mainland Europe, they limited themselves to Scotland, Ireland and
discovery sailings through the northern seas. With this I don't mean to
doubt that they were very-very mixed and assimilated in French culture
for the time of Hastings and other epic campaigns. In fact, they had
become definitively Frenchmen with some Viking blood, a slightly
peculiar dialect and a large class of knights (warriors) without lands willing to join any campaign, what explains their expansionism.
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NO GOD, NO MASTER!
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Posted By: pikeshot1600
Date Posted: 08-Sep-2005 at 20:45
Norsemen raided as far inland as Paris and other towns long before the Normans settled in Normandy and took on Christianity, Frankish language and feudal social organization.
Trying to superimpose twentieth/twenty-first century attitudes and expectations of behavior on them is a futile exercise.
One must think in terms of "to the victor go the spoils." Land was wealth; control of the resources of the land was power. There was no capitalist bogey and no "ethnic cleansing" in the eleventh century. Someone ruled and others obeyed. It was a much less complicated time.
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Posted By: Exarchus
Date Posted: 10-Sep-2005 at 11:48
Originally posted by mord
Umm...you're really only half correct.
What became the Duchy of Normandy was founded in the early 10th
century (I believe in 910AD) when Charles the Fat, King of the
Franks (or Charles the Bald--I can never keep those two straight)
granted a Norwegian named Rollo (who led a band of Danes) land in
the North of France. The Franks called Rollo and his Danes
"North-Men" or, eventually, Normans. As time passed the Normans
came from a land called Normandy, in the North of what became (with the
establishment of Hugh Capet--founder of the Capetian Dynasty--later in
the 10th Century.) "France."
The Normans find thier ancestory in Scandinavia.
Scandinavians became Normans mostly due to economic and religious
reason. They learned French and adopted Christianity through the
reformed Clunaic Liturgy. By the time Rollo died (in the
920s, I think), his heir, William Longsword, was leading his people
into thoroughly non-Danish, non-Viking culture.
Also, if I remember correctly The Anglo-Saxon pretty much refered to
the Scandinavian Vikings as "Danes." The Irish, btw,
differentiated the vikings by the hair color--there were "light haired
foriengers" and "dark haired foriengers."
Finally, the Ile-de-France was never a duchy; it was the was the property, or the demese (domain) of the King of France.
Mord. |
The King was Charles the Simple. Charles the Fat held a big
responsibility in the rampages the vikings did to the countryside as he
did nothing (he didn't fortify cities and didn't fortify bridges).
Rolf became Rollo as Duke of Normandy at the condition he defended
it against the vikings. A viking fighting other vikings. He and his men
were useful back then, because the Vikings were still raiders and you
didn't need a lot of fighters to fight them, with the time the vikings
in Scandinavia christianised and stopped raiding and the small amount
of vikings in Normandy finally became smaller and smaller.
His son, William Longsword was already far more French than viking,
he had to crush a revolt from his guards who though he wa too French
with the help of the King of France. This sealed the fate of Normandy
as being French and not Viking.
The Normans find some of their ancestors in Scandinavia, but to
claim they descend from them is only a small part of the truth (the
visible part of the iceberg). They were far more French even by blood
than viking.
And yes, Ile de France was a Duchy and Paris was even a County. Yet
they were the central power of the Kingdom of France than included
Normandy, Brittany and others... even though the king had a very
simbolic power there they were still as French as Paris was.
------------- Vae victis!
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Posted By: Exarchus
Date Posted: 10-Sep-2005 at 12:11
On the French and Occitan issue, being myself a Gascon first (and
Breton/Norman/Burgundian next). I'll bring some light on the issue.
Langue d'Oil and Langue d'Oc are two neologism created to mark an artificial borderline between northern and southern French.
"Oil" (pronounced ouais) and "Oc" were two words for yes. Like the the English for "yes" and "aye".
The langue d'Oil was the closest of French and could be called old
French. The Langue d'Oc was the Occitan. Occitan refers to the whole
group and not to a sub dialect.
Dialects of "Oil" were Norman, Burgundian, Francilian, Picard among
many others, Tourrain became the modern French like Castillan became
modern Spanish and Tuscan modern Italian.
Dialects of "Oc" include Gascon, Languedocian (probably what Quetzalcouatl mistook for Occitan), Provençal, Limousin etc....
This borderline is very artificial, like the borderlines between latin
countries, it was probably much easier for someone from Toulouse to
understand someone from Barcelona than Paris and the same way around,
someone from Barcelona could communicate more easily with someone from
Toulouse than with someone from Madrid. But because it is often
considered Occitan and Catalan were the same, you must not forget
neither was unified of organised. Someone from Clermont - Ferrand
(Auvergnat Occitan) had probably less troubles with Burgundian French
than with Valencian Catalan.
One more issue is, if you include Gascon in Occitan, the Catalan is an
Occitan dialect too, because Gascon has an heavy Basque influence and
is really apart in the Occitan family.
Same for Provencal, it goes down up to Nice, but the people from Nice
had it easier with people from Genoa when it came to communication than
with someone from Toulouse for sure. And someone from Genoa could
communicate more easily with someone from Nice than someone from Naples.
So in the end, Occitan isn't exactly a dialect of French, as much as
French isn't a dialect of Latin, which itself isn't a dialect of the
Indo-European family.
But, there was no borderline, the limit the linguist fixed is very
arbitrar and even Savoy is hard to define (lying between the two).Just
like the borderlines between latin countries are very virtuals.
------------- Vae victis!
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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 10-Sep-2005 at 13:39
Gascon is not Occitanian but a different language. It's been included
in the Occitanian group because it's a Romance of southern France but
philologically it's a different language. Instead Catalonian is
Occitanian or at least much closer to it than Gascon.
There is no generative relation between French and Occitanian, they
were born as different Romances in different contexts. Modern
Grand-French ideology tries to get everything in the same bag,
minimizing the differences and exalting the simmilitudes. If France
owned Italy, the differences between Italian dialects and French would
also be minimalized for nationalistic reasons.
And also French IS indeed a dialect of vulgar Latin, as much as
Occitanian, Gascon, Italian, Castilian (Spanish), Galician-Portugese,
Corsican or Romanian. All them have other influences (Germanic, Arabic,
Basque, Slavic, different substrati...) but all derive essentially and
directly from the Latin spoken by the people in the Early Middle ages.
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NO GOD, NO MASTER!
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Posted By: Exarchus
Date Posted: 10-Sep-2005 at 13:49
I
agree Gascon is really apart in the Occitan family, but how can you
deny the French and Occitan have no relations? Both were born in the
same country and both are Gallo-Romance language.
If France had conquered Italy or Spain, their languages would be
considered as dialects and if the opposite happened (Spain or Italy
conquering France) our language would be considered dialect too. That's
because the Romance languages are all related to each others.
------------- Vae victis!
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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 10-Sep-2005 at 16:44
I've been checking and all what I've found says that Gascon is
Occitanian (but see below!) and that Occitanian is Ibero-Romance (with
Iberian tongues) and not Gallo-Romance (with Oil and Nord-Italian
tongues). See: http://www.ethnologue.com/show_lang_family.asp?code=gsc - http://www.ethnologue.com/show_lang_family.asp?code=gsc .
On Gascon being Occitanian or not, I've found the following:
A practical excecise:
Comparison between Provenzal, Auvergnois and Gascon (the parabole of the prodigal son) ( http://www.lexilogos.com/francais_enfant_prodigue.htm - http://www.lexilogos.com/francais_enfant_prodigue.htm ):
Provençal (Occitanian):
Et soun fieou li diguet : Moun païré
ai peccat contro lou ciel et contro de vous,
noun siou pas digné d'estre appelat vouestre fieou.
Alors, lou péro diguet à seis domestiquos :
Adduses sa premiero raoubo,
et vestisses lou ;
mettes-li une bague oou det
et de souliers eis peds.
Adusés lou vedeou gras et tuas lou,
mangens e faguem boumbanço.
Auvergnat (Occitanian):
Et soun fieou li diguet : Moun païré
ai peccat contro lou ciel et contro de vous,
noun siou pas digné d'estre appelat vouestre fieou.
Alors, lou péro diguet à seis domestiquos :
Adduses sa premiero raoubo,
et vestisses lou ;
mettes-li une bague oou det
et de souliers eis peds.
Adusés lou vedeou gras et tuas lou,
mangens e faguem boumbanço.
Gascon (Occitanian???):
E soun hil qu'eou digouc : Moun pay,
qu'ey peccat cost'oou ceo é daouant bous :
nou souy pas mes digne deou noum de boste hil.
Lou pay que digouc a sous baylets :
Biste, biste, pourtat sa pruméro raoubo
é boutats l'oc ;
boutats lou la bago aou dit,
é caoussats lou.
Amiats lou bedet gras, é tuats lou :
minjen é hascan uo gran' hesto.
While Provençal and Auvergnat are identical (and very simmilar to what I know of Catalonian), Gascon is very different.
One explanation, that of strong Basque influence specially in pronunciation, can be found here: http://membres.lycos.fr/simorre/oc/gascon.html - http://membres.lycos.fr/simorre/oc/gascon.html .
This is a very important trait that Gascon, Ancient Aragonese and
Castilian (Spanish) share. Yet, unlike Castilian, that is more hybrid,
Gascon is almost exclussively a Romance spoken solely by (former)
Basques.
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NO GOD, NO MASTER!
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Posted By: Exarchus
Date Posted: 11-Sep-2005 at 06:54
It's Occitan not Occitanian please. Normally I'm not pedantic but seeing the land of my people with it's name butchered is rather unpleasant.
Gascon IS in the Occitan family, but it's apart inside it and if you consider it as Occitan then it makes sense to put Catalan in because Gascon with its Basque influence is apart.
As Occitan being Gallo-Romance, I'm sorry for the Catalan who wish to see their country disunited of Spain and join a great Catalan/Occitan union (like I've seen on some websites) but Occitan is a Gallo Romance language far more than it is Ibero-Romance, don't forget the Gauls settled in Northern Italy (Gallia Cistalpina) and in Spain (Celtiberians). So if you dig in linguistic roots it's more the neightbouring languages (Catalan and Piedmontese) that could be associated to the Gallo-Romance group than the opposite (Occitan as Ibero or Italo - Romance).
http://www.orbilat.com/Languages/Gallo-Romance_examples.html - http://www.orbilat.com/Languages/Gallo-Romance_examples.html
http://www.absoluteastronomy.com/encyclopedia/g/ga/gallo-romance_languages1.htm - http://www.absoluteastronomy.com/encyclopedia/g/ga/gallo-rom ance_languages1.htm
http://www.nationmaster.com/encyclopedia/Gallo_Romance-languages - http://www.nationmaster.com/encyclopedia/Gallo_Romance-langu ages
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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 11-Sep-2005 at 12:07
Well, the link I provided was very authoitative but yours (or rather
others I've found following it) seem to be authoritative as well.
Personally I think that those clasifications may be a little arbitrary,
after all the evolutionary path is just: Latin -> Vulgar Latin
-> Medieval Romances -> Modern Romanic tongues, there was
never an intermediate Gallo-Roman or Ibero-Roman intermediate dialect
from which these languages sprung, at least not one that covered all
the area that modern classifications do, so no wonder there are
discrepancies regarding wether Catalano-Occitan is one or the other.
I think that they should classify them in the following groups (I will
ignore Romances east of the Alps, specially because I don't know much
about them):
- Western Iberian: Galaico-Portugese, Asturian, Ancient Leonese, Mozarabic and...
- Castilian (Spanish), separated due to Basque influx
- Ibero-Provenzal: Occitan, Catalan and...
- Gascon, separated due to Basque influx
- Aragonese (I doubt seriously that Upper Aragonese can be
classified with Western Iberian languages), also with Basque influx
(but unrelated to Gascon as far as I know). Maybe it should be apart?
- Franco-Romanic: Oil languages
Many (if not most) Catalans want their country separated and have good
reasons for it: basically lack of federalism, excessive centralism of
Spain and France (there are also Catalans in France), lack of union of
their country and, finally, that they have waged at least a war for
independence (that they lost) and today is the conmemoration: the
no-independence day of Catalonia: the Diada.
Yet, while Basques were clearly forced into both Spain and France,
Catalans weren't forced in Spain so clearly. In fact, initially they
supported the union of Aragon and Castile. But soon after they found
themselves trapped under the foreign (Castilian) majority, so they
started a war for independence against the heirs of Philip II, occasion
that the Portugese used to get rid of the Spanish opression. Emtre Espanha e o Oceano, o Oceano!
Nowadays nations (peoples) need their own states to be able to
survive so the sense of urgency is even greater, specially after
centralist policies that have plagued Europe in the last centuries.
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NO GOD, NO MASTER!
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Posted By: Exarchus
Date Posted: 11-Sep-2005 at 14:12
Yeah the borderlines between latin linguistic countries are very
arbitrary, which is my point since the begining. Between France and
Spain but also between France and Italy.
The
French Catalans are not really that independantists, neither the French
Basques are. I'm a little far away from French Catalonia, but I've seen
Catalan website who want an independant Catalonia + Occitania + Savoy
arguing it's the same cultural block. I basicly reject the idea, and I
would prefer a large pan-latin state than this communautarism that
stand on nothing to me.
For the French Basque country (Euskadi), I'm pretty close of it and I
always go there several times a month. The only Basque I've heard there
was spoken by Spanish Basques. Mostly, the independantists here are
really a minority, overall France impress me by it's solidity compared
to Spain or Italy. Or course there is regionalism and independantism,
especially in Corsica, but not in the scale of Spain and Italy.
The French Catalans were indeed forced in France, that is quite clear.
But the French basques are not really that clear. They were divided in
2, Gascony (a Duchy in France) and Navarre (a Kingdom split in France
and Spain). The Duchy of Gascony was first ruled by the Normans (when
they were Kings of England) and the Angevins (same stuff) and those
often were complete bastards (the worst was Richard Lionheart), the
Kings of France taking over the place in the 100 years' war was seen as
a good thing apart by the aristocrats in Bordeaux who backed the King
of England.
The Navarese part became French when the King of Navarre (Henry III)
became King of France (Henry IV). Being understood than back then the
Spanish Navarre was already absorbed in Castille while the French part
was still free until the Bourbon kings became Kings of France
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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 11-Sep-2005 at 14:33
Well, I can tell you that when I go to the North, I make myself
understand in Basque - my French is very limited and everybody speaks
Basque, at least in the rural areas. An overwhelming majority of
Basques, including all local members of pan-French parties, support the
Basque Department (to start with).
I know the history of Navarre, I wrote an article for the site on the
Basque People in the Middle Ages. But you must know that Navarre wasn't
absorbed by Castile (only conquered) until the 19th century. Until
1833, the economic frontier was in the Ebro river and the port of
Navarre was Baionne. Navarre suffered a lot economically from the
forced change of economic borders.
Equally in the North, the Revolution with its centralist Jacobine
policies destroyed the socioeconomical structure of the Basque
provinces. That's, why in both sides of the muga,
Basques, who needed no revolution, as they had always had democratic
states and mostly non-feudal society, joined the reactionary parties in
search of retaining their freedoms.
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NO GOD, NO MASTER!
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Posted By: Exarchus
Date Posted: 11-Sep-2005 at 15:05
That surprises me, in Biarritz and Bayonne the language you have to use is French without doubt.
But in the rural area, indeed Basque might still be present but that everybody speaks it really amaze me.
The southwestern France has always been rather rich. The Basque country
being the exeption I wonder why. Pau, Bordeaux, Auch, Lourdes.....
those always have done well and both Lourdes and Pau were in the
Kingdom of Navarre (I could also mention Toulouse which is the frontier between Gascony and Languedoc).
Yeah, the Basque department makes it's idea it's true. But that's
definitely not independantism or regionalism. It's more a question of
structure, some people here want to unify us with the
Languedoc-Roussillon region and reform the County of Toulouse (we
already are France largest region and a powerful one) but I don't think
regionalism is strong here either. Some people in Normandy want to
unify Haute and Basse Normandie (and it's going to happen I think) but
I don't think it's a regionalist issue either.
I saw that article on the Basque people, one thing bugged me. It's true
Caesar said the Aquitanians had a distinct culture of the Gauls. But at
the same time he said the people of Aquitaine could teach the Romans
themselves to speak Latin more correctly.
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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 11-Sep-2005 at 17:13
Originally posted by Exarchus
That surprises me, in Biarritz and Bayonne the language you have to use is French without doubt. |
It's the same in all big cities, in Bilbao you have to use Spanish most
of the time, that doesn't mean a lot of people doesn't speak Basque.
Anyhow I know better rural Lapurdi (Labourd) and Benabarre (Navarre)
than the coast.
But in the rural area, indeed Basque might still be present but that everybody speaks it really amaze me. |
Everybody or almost. It's not compulsory of course.
You can travel through large parts of the Basque Country using only
Basque as communication language, that includes most of the North
(except possibly the BAB).
The southwestern France has always been rather rich. The Basque country
being the exeption I wonder why. Pau, Bordeaux, Auch, Lourdes.....
those always have done well and both Lourdes and Pau were in the
Kingdom of Navarre (I could also mention Toulouse which is the frontier between Gascony and Languedoc). |
The original name of Tolouse, Tolosa, is totally Basque. It means something bended or twisted (from tolestu:
to bend). There is another Tolosa in Gipuzkoa. I guess the name comes
because the river makes a twist there or something like that.
Yeah, the Basque department makes it's idea it's true. But that's
definitely not independantism or regionalism. It's more a question of
structure (...) |
It's a must. While Bearnois are historical relatives they don't feel
Basque anymore nor they speak the language, so a Basque territory of
some kind, with co-oficiality for Euskara (or Eskuera, as they say oin
the North) is absolutely necessary. Anyhow, Basque nationalist
candidates are all the time getting more and more votes, probably
because state-wide parties are showing their unwillingness to
compromise. Yet the majoritarian electoral system and the artificial
drawing of circunscriptions plays against them, along with the well
stabilished French nationalism.
I saw that article on the Basque people, one thing bugged me. It's true
Caesar said the Aquitanians had a distinct culture of the Gauls. But at
the same time he said the people of Aquitaine could teach the Romans
themselves to speak Latin more correctly.
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I doubt he said that, seriously. Maybe the Aquitanians of later
times... but when Caesar conqueed Gaul I don't think that Latin had
still spread outside the borders of the Roman Province.
Still, if some Basques (Aquitanians) of the time could speak Latin they
would surely make good use of declinations, because Basque is also a
declinative language. Maybe also the 5-vowel system helped to make
Basque-spoken Latin sound cleaner, without Celtisms nor prepositions. Just speculating, anyhow.
I hope you won't be suggesting that Caesar's times Aquitanians were the
lost tribe of Rome or something like that... that would make no sense.
To start with because Caesar used the term Iberi, to define them, not Romani.
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NO GOD, NO MASTER!
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Posted By: Exarchus
Date Posted: 11-Sep-2005 at 17:45
I'm not suggesting that at all. It's just I had this quote in mind.
I'm very dubious of the power of the nationalist basques in France.
Maybe as you say in the rural area. But in the cities, I doubt they are
nationalists.
I live in rural Gascony and no one speaks Gascon at all anymore. French
is the language we all use now. Even when I was a kid, French was
already the language.
------------- Vae victis!
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Posted By: Nick1986
Date Posted: 26-Jul-2012 at 19:12
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl
Apparently the normans reign in England was tyrranny. According to that article the normans never tried to make any efforts to assimilate with the English. And there were a system of apartheid between the English and Normans. Could that be the origin of English hatred for the french. And also could that be the origin of the Upper class accent. You have to admitt that in England not so long ago they existed a caste system there. The article itself is controversial but nevertheless a good read. Somehow, I no longer feel proud of having a norman ancestry anymore.
http://www.bbc.co.uk/history/lj/conquestlj/conquered_01.shtml?site=history_conquestlj_conquest - http://www.bbc.co.uk/history/lj/conquestlj/conquered_01.shtm l?site=history_conquestlj_conquest
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The Normans were barbarians who killed the rightful king, stole the land of the nobility, enslaved the Saxon peasantry, and abolished democracy. Under Edward the Confessor it was normal to elect a king. William the Bastard replaced this ancient system with primogeniture
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Posted By: Nick1986
Date Posted: 31-Jul-2012 at 19:55
Anglo-Saxon Chronicle http://omacl.org/Anglo/part5.html%20 - http://omacl.org/Anglo/part5.html
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