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Proto Indo-European

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Topic: Proto Indo-European
Posted By: hugoestr
Subject: Proto Indo-European
Date Posted: 06-Jul-2005 at 10:17
This is a forked discussion spawning from the Roman and Greek Civilization forum.

The topic is Proto Indo-European. What it is, how was it developed, and what common features exists among its languages.

Here are parts from the wikipedia entry on indo-european. For more information, please click on the link below.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-european - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-european

Comparative Linguistics

See main article Indo-European studies.

The existence of the Proto-Indo-Europeans has been inferred by comparative linguistics. The discovery of the genetic relationship of the various Indo-European languages goes back to William Jones, a British judge in India, who in 1782 observed the strong affinity of Sanskrit, Greek and Latin.

The language group was briefly referred to as "Indo-Germanic", until it became apparent that the group included most of the other languages of Europe, as well. "Indo-European", the term now current in English, was coined in 1813 by the British scholar Sir Thomas Young. Franz Bopp performed extensive comparative work.

At first, the related languages were simply compared, with no attempt at reconstruction. August Schleicher was the first scholar to compose a tentative text in the extinct "common source" Jones had predicted. The reconstructed Proto-Indo-European language (PIE) represents, by definition, the common language of the Proto-Indo-Europeans.

In the 20th century, great progress was made due to the discovery of more language material belonging to the Indo-European family, and by advances in comparative linguistics, by scholars such as Ferdinand de Saussure.



Replies:
Posted By: hugoestr
Date Posted: 06-Jul-2005 at 10:25
If you are interested in learning about the reconstructed proto indo-european phonology, look at this article from wikipedia. They also talk about the cases of the noun in proto indo-european.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_language - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_language

The Proto-Indo-European language (PIE) is the hypothetical common ancestor of the Indo-European languages.

As PIE is not directly attested, as writing was not yet in use or accessible to the hypothesized speakers of the language, all PIE sounds and words are reconstructed using the comparative method. The standard convention for marking unattested forms, the asterisk, is used for PIE: *wódr̥ "water", *ḱwṓn "dog", *tréyes "three (masculine)", etc. Many of the words in the modern Indo-European languages are seem to have derived from such "protowords" via regular sound change (e.g., Grimm's law).

All Indo-European languages are inflected languages (although many modern Indo-European languages, including Modern English, have lost much of their inflection). By comparative reconstruction, it is highly assured that at least the latest stage of the common PIE mother languages (i.e. Late PIE) was an inflectional (and more suffixing than prefixing) language. However, by means of internal reconstruction and morphological (re-)analysis of the reconstructed, seemingly most archaic PIE word forms, it has recently been shown to be very probable that at a more distant stage (then: Early) PIE may have been a root-inflectional language like e.g. Proto-Semitic. As a consequence, it seems to be highly probable that PIE once was of the root-and-pattern morphological type (literature: Pooth (2004): "Ablaut und autosegmentale Morphologie: Theorie der uridg. Wurzelflexion", in: Arbeitstagung "Indogermanistik, Germanistik, Linguistik" in Jena, Sept. 2002).

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Posted By: hugoestr
Date Posted: 06-Jul-2005 at 10:46


This is the Heritage Dictionary Indo-European roots list. Unfortunately it just deals with English, but by clicking on the roots you will get the etymology of the root. The etymology is not comprehensive, but must work from the Heritage Dictionary isn't either.
http://www.bartleby.com/61/IEroots.html - http://www.bartleby.com/61/IEroots.html

This is the jackpot. This link from the University of Texas has an online Proto Indo-European (PIE) lexicon. You can search by PIE root, PIE phoneme, or English meaning.
http://www.utexas.edu/cola/depts/lrc/iedocctr/ie-ling/lexicon.html - http://www.utexas.edu/cola/depts/lrc/iedocctr/ie-ling/lexico n.html


To wet your appetite, look at the entry for the English word "eat."
PIE */h1ed-/ 'eat'
Glottalic *et'-

*et'-   English 'eat' = Food and Drink

NORTH EUROPEAN
Lithuanian edu 'I eat'

GERMANIC
Gothic itan 'to eat'         &n bsp;         
Old High German ezzan
English eat

ANATOLIAN
Hittite ed-mi 'I eat'

WEST EUROPEAN
Latin edo: 'I eat'
Welsh esu 'to eat'
Tocharian        &nb sp;         

SOUTH EUROPEAN
Greek édo:
Armenian        &nbs p;        
Sanskrit ád-mi 'I eat'
Avestan aða:iti '3sg subj.'

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Posted By: Cyrus Shahmiri
Date Posted: 08-Jul-2005 at 14:28

*et'-   English 'eat' = Food and Drink

The Persian words for "eat" is "Khvar" and "Food" is "Khvarak" but "Ash" = "Liquid Food/Soup" and "Asham" = "Drink"!



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Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 08-Jul-2005 at 15:22
[QUOTE]Greek édo/QUOTE]

That's wrong.

idw (iota, omega) = to see (Ionic form eidw)

hdw/hdwmai (hetta, omega) =  to enjoy

the correct 'form' is:

edw edwmai (epsilon, omega)= to eat .... in modern Hellinic we find the ancient edesma = dish/meal


pinw (iota, omega) = to drink

So where do the other words like the Hellinic word for drink and Cyrus' examples come from?? they are obviously not from that root

Sorry bout that forgot about the possible prob with the fonts.


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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 11-Jul-2005 at 09:02
Let's play a bit with this alleged IE root,

As mentioned we do find  "åäù = to eat" but this obviously derives from the root word  "äá/ da" = land/earth, so we find a slightly different form of "åäù/åäç" spelled in it's latinized form as "hedw/hedh" = "land, seat, abode" (Hesiod Theogony), which are obviously connected to each other.

From "äá" = earth -> åäù/åäç = land -> åäù = eat (obviously refering to cultivation) as seen in åäùäç= food we also have "åäïíôåò",  later 'transformed' into "ïäïíôåò=teeth",  "åäáöïò = äá=earth= + áöç= feel, touch"......................






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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 11-Jul-2005 at 11:07
Can you write Greek phonetically in Latin alphabet please?

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Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 11-Jul-2005 at 11:32
Zagros Purya
 
As mentioned we do find   "edw" = to eat " but this obviously derives from the root word  "da" = land/earth, so we find a slightly different form of  "hedw/hedh" = "land, seat, abode" (Hesiod Theogony), which are obviously connected to each other.

"da" = earth -> hedw/hedh = land -> edw = eat (obviously refering to cultivation) as seen in edwdh= food we also have "edontes",  later 'transformed' into "odontes"=teeth",  "edafos = da=earth + afh= feel, touch"........

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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 11-Jul-2005 at 11:50

Thanks, that's what I wanted.

Interesting. Arda/Arta means Earth in Persian and was a common prefix on names like Ardashir, Artaxerxes.



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Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 11-Jul-2005 at 12:05
That is part of my point, while there are some similarities among some languages, the origin of words is quite different.
In the example of Hellinic 'eat' we find a direct connection to the word 'earth', while the Persian as you and Cyrus have pointed out, has an obviously different origin and no connection to the alleged PIE root, so it must derive from a different root, I'm not familiar with (maybe you could assist).

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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Cyrus Shahmiri
Date Posted: 11-Jul-2005 at 13:12

So where do the other words like the Hellinic word for drink and Cyrus' examples come from??

I don't know about Hellinic word for drink but Persian word for eat (Khvar) comes from "Vara" which means "Swallow/Devour".

"odontes"=teeth"

In Persian "dantan".



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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 11-Jul-2005 at 15:36

Perhaps the PIE diffusion was much longer ago than is accepted today and that different derivatives were drawn from these root words over time and that is how we have similar but completely different languages today.

 



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Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 12-Jul-2005 at 18:48
Would there be any need to invent the PIE language if there never was an invention of the 'Aryan' invasions?
I'd say definitely not.

If we accept the myth of an IE language we must accept that it had to come from somewhere and somehow spread into the areas it is used, but where and when?
Unfortunately for the supporters and promoters of this theory, no matter how much they strive to prove the unprovable, neither archeology nor genetics have given us finds nor any kind of admixture of this invisible 'race' of people, where they came from and when exactly they came into contact with the people that speak a language of this 'family'.

So this is nothing more than a hypothetical theory, based on speculations which are obviously unconvincing.



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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 13-Jul-2005 at 16:30

I am starting to believe that the IE spread is more ancient than the civilizations the supposed PIE's usurped.



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Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 14-Jul-2005 at 17:56
An interesting question would be, how were the words 'invented'?

Nature has obviously played a major role in forming language, humans must have adopted nature's sounds and turned them into words, but if so, we obviously have another problem.
If this is how it might have happened, why do we find totally different sounds to describe the same thing? Is it possible that other language family speakers, comprehended the exact same sound so differently?

Let's take the dog's bark. I do believe they make the same sound all over the world

I can understand the Hellinic word "bablizw" to describe a dog's bark, the VAV sound does make some sence, but what about the english word "bark" ?

An online etymologic dictionary gave me this:

bark = "dog sound,"
O.E. beorcan, from P.Gmc. *berkanan (cf. O.N. berkja "to bark"), of echoic origin.

I can't see why they'd give to this sound (dog's bark) any of the above names, they make no sence.

What's the word for bark in other languages?



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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 14-Jul-2005 at 21:41
In Spanish: ladrar
In Basque: zaunka egin

But isolated words won't give you any serious clues. You need a throughout study of the lenguages being compared.

Btw, Phalanx, how can you be so sure that edw comes from da? They are not only very different looking words but also the relation between earth and eat is not inmediate by any means. I've read philological nonsenses quite more plausible than that.


Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 14-Jul-2005 at 23:06
Btw, Phalanx, how can you be so sure that edw comes from da? They are not only very different looking words but also the relation between earth and eat is not inmediate by any means. I've read philological nonsenses quite more plausible than that.


OK, since you probably didn't get it.

da = earth
we also find spelled in it's latinized form as "hedw/hedh" = edw = "land, seat, abode" (Hesiod Theogony)

Where does food come from? Land so we once again find edw = eat
(obviously refering to cultivation)

 what do we eat ? edwdh= food

with what do we eat our food??  "edontes",  later 'transformed' into "odontes"= teeth"

What are we talking about?
"edafos = da=earth + afh= feel, touch" = soil, ground

It's simple logic, that is exactly how the Hellinic language 'works'. Why don't you point out exactly why you claim this to be nonsenses?

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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Anonym
Date Posted: 30-Jul-2005 at 23:26

Originally posted by Phallanx

Btw, Phalanx, how can you be so sure that edw comes from da? They are not only very different looking words but also the relation between earth and eat is not inmediate by any means. I've read philological nonsenses quite more plausible than that.


OK, since you probably didn't get it.

da = earth
we also find spelled in it's latinized form as "hedw/hedh" = edw = "land, seat, abode" (Hesiod Theogony)

Where does food come from? Land so we once again find edw = eat
(obviously refering to cultivation)

 what do we eat ? edwdh= food

with what do we eat our food??  "edontes",  later 'transformed' into "odontes"= teeth"

What are we talking about?
"edafos = da=earth + afh= feel, touch" = soil, ground

It's simple logic, that is exactly how the Hellinic language 'works'. Why don't you point out exactly why you claim this to be nonsenses?

okay, I think that I am getting your point.  this is kind of new to  be because, frankly, your counter to IE is the first real thought I have given to this subject for some time.  So, you are saying that ie theory is taking words out of context and just cherrypicking the words that fit the mold.  but this ignores the fact that the words themselves are compound words that make sense in the native language itself, i.e. it is a self contained system that does not need an external source.

but what of the sheer number of like sounding words like pater, mater etc.?  is all dismissable by coincidence?

also what of the grave evidence?  the similarity of ie burial customs?  genetics, although I don't know how mature that is?  I mean there is more to this then just language.



Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 31-Jul-2005 at 17:16
They've introduced a theory of an allegedly homogenous language, literally inventing every single root since there is absolutely no way to know exactly what it sounded like or how it would have been written since a writing system did not exist.

Here are a couple of sites I've came upon that support the 'theory' of this homogenous language.

http://www.friesian.com/cognates.htm

How does 'wid' which has an obvious 'v' sound as seen in all other language examples turn into 'idea' or what about inventing the 'gno' root in order to fit the Hellinic 'gignwskw' and the Latin loan 'gnocere' into the theory?

http://www.exploratorium.edu/exploring/language/related_la nguages.html

This one attempts to find a connection between numbers. I still fail to see how the Hellinic 'eis' / 'en' is connected to 'ekas' or what about that 'tettares' that in reality is 'tessera' connected to 'catvaras'. These people are inventing a connection where there is no such thing.

We could continue with alleged roots like, '
su'= 'to be born' that they connected to 'uios'= son
'n' = 'not (from one letter!!!) connected to 'agnwstos' = unknown

They have taken words from all 'forms' of Hellinic Linear B', Homeric  and late classical Hellinic where and when it suits them.
The way I see it, this is nothing more than a hypothetical theory based on no real facts, just  conveniently manipulated linguistic connections.

While there are some similarities the differences are far more striking. From originally giving the date of 1200 BC for these alleged invasions, the date has slowly but steadily risen to 2600, 3400, 4200, 5000 and now literally is left blank.
The latest theory suggests that these 'migration/invasion' took place approx the same time agriculture spread, which would be approx. 8000BC, totally ignoring that genetics prove this to be totally wrong.see:
“Semino et al. (2000) The genetic legacy of Paleolithic Homo sapiens in Extant Europeans”"
clearly states that :
 “Eu9 and Eu10, the origin of these lineages has been estimated to be about 15,000 to 20,000 years ago”

She later states :
"Various types of evidence suggest that the
present European population arose from the
merging of local Paleolithic groups and Neolithic
farmers arriving from the Near East after
the invention of agriculture in the Fertile Crescent"

http://hpgl.stanford.edu/publications/Science_2000_v290_p1155.pdf - http://hpgl.stanford.edu/publication...v290_p1155.pdf

But once again the problem that appears is that agricultural terms are quite different. So they obviously were not adopted from these alleged IE invading farmers but obviously pre-existed in the 'native' languages. So my 2cents is that the common words were probably adopted, quite similar to what has happened today with english and french. There is probably absolutely no language that hasn't adopted a word from these two languages.

If a handfull of words were enough to prove an 'invasion' then the ancient Hellines obviously 'invaded' S.America and Polynnesia, simply based on such similarities.
The Polynnesians say 'Mate kite rani' that means 'eyes looking at the sky'
this becomes interesting when you look at the Hellinic phrase 'Matia koitoun ton ourano' or the many similar place names all over S.America that are obviously Hellinic, like Ephyra, Fedra, Ipolitos etc. or the liguistic connections between Hellinic to Chuetsua and Hellinic to Hawaian as noted by Enrico Mattievich and N.Josephson.

Based on the same logic the IE has used, these are enough to prove the invasion/colonization of the entire world by Hellinic sailors.
This is just an example, you obviously  see exactly how far we can take it, by simply looking at linguistic similarities and discrediting, archeology and anthropology.







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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Anonym
Date Posted: 12-Aug-2005 at 11:19

Originally posted by Phallanx

They've introduced a theory of an allegedly homogenous
We could continue with alleged roots like, '
su'= 'to be born' that they connected to 'uios'= son
'n' = 'not (from one letter!!!) connected to 'agnwstos' = unknown


Okay, that "n" thing just made me laugh.Clap

 



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 12-Aug-2005 at 16:01
Originally posted by Anonym

Originally posted by Phallanx

They've introduced a theory of an allegedly homogenous
We could continue with alleged roots like, '
su'= 'to be born' that they connected to 'uios'= son
'n' = 'not (from one letter!!!) connected to 'agnwstos' = unknown


Okay, that "n" thing just made me laugh.Clap


But actually all IE languages I know of (but Greek) have a monosyllabe no/not/non/ne/njet for NO, and simmilar words for NOR. It's obvious there's a connection and it's better represented by *n, being the vowel and the final -t more variable. We can't know wether the original word was no, ne, na or ni or nu... but there was one and it's common denominator is *n.

That's why it's just a reconstructed hypothetical proto-languange and not a true known historical root-language, which is lost.

http://www.zompist.com/euro.htm#ie - Here you can find a list of numerals in the different IE tongues, all very clearly connected this way.



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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Anonym
Date Posted: 15-Aug-2005 at 11:28
Originally posted by Maju

[QUOTE=Anonym]

[QUOTE=Phallanx]

But actually all IE languages I know of (but Greek) have a monosyllabe no/not/non/ne/njet for NO, and simmilar words for NOR. It's obvious there's a connection and it's better represented by *n, being the vowel and the final -t more variable. We can't know wether the original word was no, ne, na or ni or nu... but there was one and it's common denominator is *n.

That's why it's just a reconstructed hypothetical proto-languange and not a true known historical root-language, which is lost.

http://www.zompist.com/euro.htm#ie - Here you can find a list of numerals in the different IE tongues, all very clearly connected this way.

 

I think that you are missing the point.  what has been pointed out here is that there are clearly some compelling IE word groups that appear to support the theory BUT, if you dismissed the IE theory you can find, at least within Greek, a self-contained system that supports an autonomous, non-IE, history.  The same puzzle-pieces lead to a different picture. 

It reminds me of this fellow, whose name escapes me now, who had this theory that that animal colorations were environmental and meant to provide camoflouge.  It was a popularly embraced theory and this acceptance encouraged him so much that he began to force fit this narrow theory into a global solution and proposed that flamingos were pink in order to hide in the setting/rising sun!  He even produced paintings to demonstrate how it was so.  That is an example of a succesful theory taken too far.

Taking it back to our discussion the point being brought up is the lack of IE consistancy one is confronted with once you pass a couple of easy examples like "one".  Also, how one needs to dismiss archeological evidence of human habitation that predates any supposed IE invasion.

Look, I am no subject matter expert on IE, but it appears to me that the IE theory is accepted a little too glibly and people discount any facts that do no fit the mold.  Any theory that requires cutting out facts or declarig them exceptions and where the exceptions begin to outnumber the "rule", well, then, I become suspect.

Some critisism I may find acceptable is that the non-IE theory is an effort at nationalist history, to declare a non-invasion history to suit a chauvanism.  But the same can be said of IE itself, a theory to suit a national narrative that became very popular in Germany and India and may not have been adequately challanged because it suits northern European, N. American and Asian sensibilities. 

The other critisism I may have of IE challenges posted here is that they are too hellino-centric and like exceptions should be demonstrated in other "IE" languages.  But that too is a weak critisism.  Perhaps it is too narrow a survey but if IE is truly the global theory it declares itself to be than it should be able to comfortably address the questions put forward here, even if it centers only on the Greek language. 

In a nutshell, I would like those of you that know more about IE than me form a coherent defense, which would include explaining why the alternate solution would not work not just repeating the dogma and glossing over the points made.

Back to the "n" thing, it does seem to be a bit of a force-fit to go from "n" to agnosto.  Not even Grimm's laws would cover that.



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 15-Aug-2005 at 12:24
As my personal contribution to this debate, this is my main working hypotheis, expressed graphically:

1) Gloto-chronological tree of Cavalli-Sforza et al. (with my own suggested datations):



2) This is my own reconstruction of the expansion of IE languages, blending this tree and archaeological evidence of the expansion and evolution of the so called Kurgan cultures (over a map of modern distribution of IE tongues):



I've obviated the Albanian and Armenian branches for which I don't have any good explanation so far.




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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 15-Aug-2005 at 12:35
An alternative for the Cavalli-Sforza tree is the following (whose authorship I can't recall). Yet, even if this one would be right, the dates ((BP=before present) are too early for what I can understand, what makes me think that they should be reviewed forward by at least 1500 years.



The most significative differences between this and the previous tree are:
  • Greek is separated from the Western IE subfamily and placed apart with Armenian
  • Celtic is placed much more closer to the Italo-Germanic group, actually creating a Celto-Italo-Germanic group
  • Albanian is placed inside the Eastern IE subfamily


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 16-Aug-2005 at 19:16
If I remeber the paper correctly the tree you posted actually supports the Anatolian farmer theory and not the Kurgan expansion you present in your map above.

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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 16-Aug-2005 at 21:11
Originally posted by Phallanx

If I remeber the paper correctly the tree you posted actually supports the Anatolian farmer theory and not the Kurgan expansion you present in your map above.


I don't now what paper did you read. The first tree, that of Cavalli-Sforza and others, that is the one that I believe you are talking about is copied from the book Genes, peoples and tongues (1996, L.L. Cavalli-Sforza). He says:

The first quantitative and complete modern analysis of the simmilitudes between Indo-European tonges was made in 1992 by the estadistician Kruskal and the linguists Dyen and Black. They measured the frequence of common origin words among all possible couples in about six dozens of Indo-European tongues, using the standard glotochronologic list of 200 words. Aplying two modern methods of tree reconstruction, we have obtained trees (...) that are very simmilar to that of Schleicher (...). In this analysis extint tongues (as Hititte or Tocharian) are not included. We have obtained the same tree with the two reconstruction methods (UPGMA and NJ) (...)

This coincidence in result using the two methods of tree reconstruction is significative: it means that mixing has not influenced significatively the evolution of IE tongues, else the two trees would be different, as happens in population genetics.

He then speculates on the possible historical solutions to this tree and he does seem to have some kind of weakness for the Anatolian origin theory but nowhere is that supported with any kind of evidence or even significative indication.

He continues:

One possibility is that the isolated tongues, like Albanian and (with less evidence) Greek could have originated in the first wave, starting from Turkey and that their position in the tree is due to their antiquity in relation with the other branches. They are also the languages closer geographically to Turkey.

And then he concedes Kurgan origin for the rest of the branches - though he makes a disgression regading Indo-Iranian tongues and seems to believe that Kurgans originated in the Don basin (as Gimbutas suggested), what is actually contradictory with the most modern archaeological knowledge that I have read about, which places their origins in Central Asia, east of the Volga. What can be originated in the Don basin is the western branch of IE tongues, after a confuse and complex proccess of Indoeuropization of Eastern European natives, reflected in the culture of Serednij-Stog II (c. 3500-3000 BCE).

I have thought myself that maybe some of the Blacanic IE tongues, most notably Albanian, could have come in an earlier wave, with the invasion of the black and beige pottery peoples (Dimini-Vinca culture), c. 5000. But you have argumented pretty solidly in another topic against thist hypothetical invasion, so I have more doubts now. For this and other reasons, I have cautionarily avoided to locate the isolated Albanian and Armenian branches in my reconstructive map, which focuses only in the main part of the tree, since the division of Eastern and Western subfamlies.



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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Sharrukin
Date Posted: 17-Aug-2005 at 02:51
Hmmm.   Its refreshing to know someone else champions the Pontic-Caspian origin of IE just as I had in the past in these forums.   The Sredny Stog Culture itself dates from about 4500-3500 BC and it, along with the Novodanilovka, Lower Mikhaylovka, and Khvalynsk Cultures, gave rise to the Yamnaya Complex (c. 3600-2200 BC). 


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 17-Aug-2005 at 14:49
Originally posted by Sharrukin

Hmmm.   Its refreshing to know someone else champions the Pontic-Caspian origin of IE just as I had in the past in these forums.   The Sredny Stog Culture itself dates from about 4500-3500 BC and it, along with the Novodanilovka, Lower Mikhaylovka, and Khvalynsk Cultures, gave rise to the Yamnaya Complex (c. 3600-2200 BC). 


Hmmm...

Not the data I have, nope.

According to my own notes, the nord-Pontic region belonged basically to the Dniepr-Don culture between c. 5500-3500 BCE, while the Jamanaja Kultura, started east of Volga in the first half of the 4th milennium (originated in Kel'teminar), being the first to use tumuli (kurgans) to bury their people. It's thought that the Dniepr-Don people first domesticated the horse (if we ignore some Paleolithic indications of SW Europe).

For what I've read the Serednij-Stog complex (c. 3500-3000) is a difficult mixture of sites some more related to Dniepr-Don and some more to Jamnaja (kurgans). At the end of its rather brief existence, two kurgan groups sprang from it:
  • Baalberge culture in Eastern Germany (later extended to other areas)
  • Cernavoda I culture in the lower Danube, with isolated kurgans in other areas of the Eastern Balcans. Probably these later found refuge in the mountains forming the Cotofeni culture (since c. 3000 BCE).
Other Dniepr-Don related group migrates to the Baltic and Scandinavia (but I believe these didn't speak IE but native Eastern IE tongues - Caucasic?). Finally the Thracian (geographically speaking) culture of Ezero (since c. 3000 BCE) seems also to include many Dniepr-Don traits.

The Serednij-Stog complex was overriden by Jamnajans (surely proto-Scythians, the true original IEs in my understanding) c. 3000 as well. Though around 2500 BCE, they were again displaced to their homeland east of Volga by a new group (Eastern culture of Catacombs) that formed the (proto-)Cymmerian nation, as it's rather well attested archaeologically.

Detailed maps of the earlier IE Expansion in Europe (always in my understanding):


Between 3250-3000 BCE. First wave of IE peoples to Nord-Central Europe and SE Europe. (Eastern IEs are pure blue and western IEs are purple,  magenta and pink).

Note: it's not TRBK-A but TRBK-C! My error.



Just after 3000 BCE. Boleraz-Baden starts restoring the Danubian status quo, while the expansion of Eastern IEs, into the Nord-Pontic area dries up the source of Western IEs. Eastern IEs represented in pure blue, Western IEs in magenta and pink.

Note: Deeply Printed Pottery culture could be IE as well. I'm not sure about that. If so, it could be at the origin of the Celtic branch.

Hope this helps to understand my viewpoint.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Sharrukin
Date Posted: 18-Aug-2005 at 02:13

Hmmm, I think you have old data.  The latest archaeological data I've gathered goes like this:

c. 6500-5000 BC - Dniester-Bug Culture begun by local hunter and fisher groups already inhabiting the region since Mesolithic times.  Beginning of experimental agriculture and cattle and pigs were domesticated, but principle mode of economy was still hunting and fishing.  Later gained contacts with Starcevo (Cris) and LBK agriculturalists.  To the east of the Dniester-Bug culture was the Sursko-Dnieper of similiar hunter-fisher origin.

c. 5500-4500 BC -  The full Neolithic Dnieper-Donets Culture superceded the Sursko-Dnieper Culture.  To the east of the Dnieper-Donets was the Neolithic Seroglasovo Culture of the region of the Volga, based on hunting-fishing and stockbreeding.  Seroglasovo was eventually succeeded by both Samara (displaying Dnieper-Donets characteristics)and Pre-Caspian Cultures

c. 4800-3500 BC - The Neolithic Cucuteni  (Tripolye) Culture formed from Moldavian Boian and LBK agrcultural elements reached the region of the former Dniester-Bug Culture by about 4500 BC.

c. 4500-3500 BC - The Eneolithic Sredny Stog Culture superceded the Dnieper-Donets Culture and becomes the eastern neighbor of Cucuteni-Tripolye.  It was based on stock-breeding, agriculture, hunting and fishing.  Eastern cultures with similar cultural traits included the Novodanilovka,and the Lower Mikhaylovka Culture.  Still further east the Khvalynsk Culture succeeded the Samara and Pre-Caspian Cultures and which displayed characteristics of stock-breeding, agriculture, hunting and fishing like the Ukrainian cultures.  Earliest evidence of domesticated horse, c. 4500 BC (horse-riding).  Compared to the west, the transition from Dnieper-Donets influenced cultures to the Khvalynsk Culture was a more gradual one, which may indicate cultural priority compared to the very similar Sredny Stog Culture in the west whose economy was almost radically different from that of preceding Balkan-origin economies. 

c. 4400-4300 BC Kurgan Wave I originated from Sredny Stog Culture.  The region of the northern Balkan Cucuteni Culture experienced dislocations but survived the onslought but now Kurgan peoples remained present with the cultural region of Cucuteni without amalgamation.  The Karanovo-Gumelita culture was destroyed.  Its population moved further west.  The Salcuta Culture was nearly destroyed.  Pockets of its population survived on in caves and islands for another four or five hundred years.  The region of the Vinca Culture witnessed dislocations of populations which moved further west.  End of Vinca Culture, c. 4300 BC.  Same situation with the Lengyel Culture.  Within the LBK Culture, a hybrid culture emerged known as Rossen.

c. 4000 BC  The Varna Culture of the Black Sea coast was replaced by the Kurganish Cernavoda Culture. 

c. 3900 BC  The Kurganish Baalberge Group emerged in the region of the Elbe and Saale.

c. 3600-2200 BC The Eneolithic Yamnaya Complex superceded the Sredny Stog-Khvalynsk Horizon, extending from the Danube Delta to beyond east of the middle Ural River, divided up into some nine cultural variants.  Both stock-breeding and agriculture were practiced.  First evidence of wheeled cart. 

c. 3500-3400 BC Kurgan Wave II.  Cucuteni which survived the First Wave was hybridized.  The result was the Usatovo Complex.  Further north elements of the Cucuteni, TRB, and Pontic cultures became the Globular Amphora Culture.  New hybrid cultures emerged in the Balkans such as the Baden-Vucedol and Ezero groups.  Ezero penetrated into western Anatolia.  Cotofeni, in the northcentral Balkans retained much of the Old European cultural tradition.

c. 3200-2300 BC Corded Ware Culture developed in northern Europe.  Its immediate antecedent was the Globular Amphora Culture of which it shared many characteristics but also showed characteristics similar to Yamnaya, including stock-breeding.  Like Yamnaya, it was expansive.  Its eastern variants are known as Battle-Axe cultures. 

c. 3000-2900 BC Kurgan Wave III.  The whole of the eastern Danube region disrupted and taken over by Yamnaya.  Vucedol migrated to the northwest and south into Dalmatia, western Bosnia, and Albania.  Vucedol succeeded by Vinkovci--Samogyvar Culture.  Evidence of Yamnaya penetration into Greece in Early Helladic II and III (c. 2900-2250 BC). 



Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 18-Aug-2005 at 02:55
Interesting theories guys, how about posting some archeologic finds that could connect all these cultures together and prove that they were the IE that influenced culture and language.
And while you're at it explain the lack of existance of common agricultural, domesticated animal and marinal terms. (I did notice a reference to all these above)
And why is there no reference to the finds in the Balkan area or to be exact in Hellas that predate every single date mentioned above???


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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 18-Aug-2005 at 03:20
Wow! You have a lot of data as well. I think my source (I would need to go back to the library to check) is of the 90s, so it's not truly old but in Archaeology new goes at times so fast. Another possibility is that we are following simply diferent opinions, something that also happens. My source is an strictly archaeological book and fitting all the pieces into those maps was my own job. The author basically held no opinions on how cultures related unless it was quite evident.

You mention Seredny-Stog culture but actually this is confusing because Seredny-Stog I belongs to Dnieper-Don and it is only Seredny-Stog II which belongs to a new complex and gives name to it. An unadverted author could have merged the two strata in the same culture, when they belong to diferent ones. This would explain your early datation for Seredny-Stog, calling eneolithic (chalcolithic) a culture that was obviously still purely neolithic.

But still, this would not explain why almost all your datations are about 1000 earlier than mine. This puzzles me a lot.

You talk of Karanovo-Gumelnita being destroyed 1000 before I think it happened, 500 years before it even formed and then you talk of a Varna culture (that is obviously the monarchic facet of Karanovo-Gumelnita itself) as something separated. You also talk indiscrimintely about a Cernavoda culture that actually is three cultures: Cernavoda I (Kurgan), II (minor Danubian style) and III (simmilar to Vinca - !!!)

You speak of Rössen as if it was an hybrid culture (of IEs + locals, I guess) when Rössen (c. 4000-3500, later considered epi-Rössen) is the earliest independent Danubian culture of Germany, the Low Countries, Switzerland and northern France!

But curiously enough, the locality of Rössen that gives name to that western Danubian culture is precisely in the very heart of that Elbe-Saale region that you say it's almost inemdiately occupied by the IEs of Baalberge. How can this be? Also you say that Rössen is posterior to Lengyel, when they are contemporary: Lengyel is the Danubian branch in the original Danubian core homeland and Rössen is that in the western regions.

If you are right, I need to learn a lot of new data that I haven't got access to but I have the presentment that you are not right, at least not fully right. Basically you are saying that Danubian Neolithic never consolidated and that it was all the time under pessure from more advanced "eneolithic" peoples from the east. Though it's clear that the overall scheme is the same, your datations bring kurgan invasions ahead in time about 1000 years, and, in any case, saying that Rössen is anything different from a regionalization of Danubian is just too much.

Anyhow, chronologies differ sometimes. It should not happen, as for these periods C-14 is very very accurate but misteriously it happens. I think there's not enough contrast nor publicity in archaeological work. The overall kurganish scheme is the same for both, that's the most important thing. The misterious discrepancies will disappear with time.

If you can give me good links, I'll tank you.



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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 18-Aug-2005 at 03:34
Originally posted by Phallanx

Interesting theories guys, how about posting some archeologic finds that could connect all these cultures together and prove that they were the IE that influenced culture and language.


I haven't found many Internet sites with good stuff about all this. Much less with primary archaeological data.

And while you're at it explain the lack of existance of common agricultural, domesticated animal and marinal terms. (I did notice a reference to all these above)


That was my post: I think that European IEs were strongly aculturized - by Danubians mostly. All their agropecuarian terminology could come from Danubian, Eastern native (Caucasic?) or even Western native cultures. Anyhow, it just seems that those words  (unlike small numbers and pronouns) change a lot. Sea could come, maybe, from Itsaso (or some simmilar word), while Mar could come from Mediterranean substrate (just thinking fast). The most interesting word to trace could be horse. How is horse in Greek?

And why is there no reference to the finds in the Balkan area or to be exact in Hellas that predate every single date mentioned above???


I simplified the maps in order to focus in IE expansion and only named the most extended cultural groups. Also I have doubts about how to group/name Greek cultures that do not belong (or maybe do belong after all) to the Dimini-Vinca cultural family.



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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Sharrukin
Date Posted: 19-Aug-2005 at 04:37

Interesting theories guys, how about posting some archeologic finds that could connect all these cultures together and prove that they were the IE that influenced culture and language.

Well, if and when we find pictures we'll present them.  The descriptions of the cultures by the various authors indicate a pattern which they saw was not ignorable.  They go on to list as many patterns as they were able to see.  For them, there are no inconsistency.  The cultural traits of the newer cultures cannot have come from the local cultures but from somewhere else, and that somewhere else ends on the Pontic-Caspian steppe.

while you're at it explain the lack of existance of common agricultural, domesticated animal and marinal terms. (I did notice a reference to all these above)

But of course there was common agricultural, and domesticated animal terms.  As the archaeology of the Pontic-Caspian region has revealed, there was in fact, agriculturalism.  Perhaps not in the same degree as that of the Balkans, but nevertheless it was there, along with stockbreeding.  The reality was that true pastoralism was of later date. 

And why is there no reference to the finds in the Balkan area or to be exact in Hellas that predate every single date mentioned above???

What do you mean?  The way I'm understanding your question, is that the reason why there is no reference to the finds in the Balkan area and specifically Hellas before the above mentioned dates is because they weren't there yet.  They were, before, only in the Pontic-Caspian region.

Wow! You have a lot of data as well. I think my source (I would need to go back to the library to check) is of the 90s, so it's not truly old but in Archaeology new goes at times so fast.

My sources are nineties as well, including Gimbutas.

Another possibility is that we are following simply diferent opinions, something that also happens. My source is an strictly archaeological book and fitting all the pieces into those maps was my own job. The author basically held no opinions on how cultures related unless it was quite evident.

Yes, even Pontic-Caspian theorists have variant theories.  In the 70's it was the fashion to describe the Kurgan expansion as one wave occuring between 2300 and 2200 BC, and to describe subsequent Kurgan cultures, especially those of the Balkans and central Europe as subsequent.  My sources are primarily archaeological with the latest in archaeological carbon-14 calibrated dating for all sights involved.

You mention Seredny-Stog culture but actually this is confusing because Seredny-Stog I belongs to Dnieper-Don and it is only Seredny-Stog II which belongs to a new complex and gives name to it. An unadverted author could have merged the two strata in the same culture, when they belong to diferent ones. This would explain your early datation for Seredny-Stog, calling eneolithic (chalcolithic) a culture that was obviously still purely neolithic.

You may be referring to the stratification of the Sredny Stog site.  As you say, Sredny Stog I may be Dnieper-Don, but the Sredny Stog Culture itself is Sredny Stog II, and dates from about 4500 to 3500 BC.  In Russian literature the Sredny Stog and Maikop stages are referred to as Early Yamna, while the Yamnaya Horizon itself (c. 3600-2200 BC) is called Late Yamna.  It may simply be a matter of terminology.

But still, this would not explain why almost all your datations are about 1000 earlier than mine. This puzzles me a lot.

My datings are based on the latest in calibrated carbon-14 dates. 

You talk of Karanovo-Gumelnita being destroyed 1000 before I think it happened, 500 years before it even formed...

The floruit of Karanovo-Gumelnita was from c. 5500-4200 BC with survivals at Sitagroi to about 3800 BC.

.....and then you talk of a Varna culture (that is obviously the monarchic facet of Karanovo-Gumelnita itself) as something separated.

Varna was part of the Hamangia Culture (c. 5500-4700 BC), whose pottery was similar to Starcevo-Cris.  Hamangia was succeeded by the short-lived Varna Culture (c. 4700-4000 BC) which was genetically related to the latter and thus was still distinct from Karanovo-Gumelnita.

You also talk indiscrimintely about a Cernavoda culture that actually is three cultures: Cernavoda I (Kurgan), II (minor Danubian style) and III (simmilar to Vinca - !!!)

Oops.  Yes, "Cernavoda" should have been "Cernavoda I".  I stand corrected at least on that. 

You speak of Rössen as if it was an hybrid culture (of IEs + locals, I guess) when Rössen (c. 4000-3500, later considered epi-Rössen) is the earliest independent Danubian culture of Germany, the Low Countries, Switzerland and northern France!

Rossen was originally within the LBK Culture, c. 5600-4300 BC (originally known as Danubian I), and mainly derived from Starcevo-Koros.  It was succeeded by Rossen (c. 4300-3900 BC) and then by Epi-Rossen in that particular region.  The literature was actually vague in describing Rossen, but you are correct in that it was a Danubian culture ("an LBK culture 'with oriental elements'"), but is also called a "mixed culture".   The accompaning carbon-dating tables describe Rossen "with Kurgan I elements".  What these "oriental elements" were, are not otherwise explained.

But curiously enough, the locality of Rössen that gives name to that western Danubian culture is precisely in the very heart of that Elbe-Saale region that you say it's almost inemdiately occupied by the IEs of Baalberge. How can this be?
.

Rossen is older than Baalberge.  Baalberge emerges in about 3900 BC.

Also you say that Rössen is posterior to Lengyel, when they are contemporary: Lengyel is the Danubian branch in the original Danubian core homeland and Rössen is that in the western regions.

Actually Rossen is contemporary to the latest phase of Lengyel.  While it is true that Lengyel developed in an LBK (Danubian) region, its cultural tradition was not LBK, but rather from Starcevo.  It flourished from c. 5000 to about 3700 BC divided into five phases. 

If you are right, I need to learn a lot of new data that I haven't got access to but I have the presentment that you are not right, at least not fully right.

I recommend to you from your library Civlization of the Goddess, by Marija Gimbutas.  It will provide a wealth of cultural information and a huge resource on chronology.

Basically you are saying that Danubian Neolithic never consolidated and that it was all the time under pessure from more advanced "eneolithic" peoples from the east.

No.  The issue of the Danubian Neolithic was never even addressed.  What I've only related was how the Danubian Neolithic was affected by the Kurgans.  As I've mentioned before, the expansive LBK culture was the earliest Danubian Neolithic culture.  It was much later when it differentiated into various cultures including Rossen and Stroked Pottery.

Though it's clear that the overall scheme is the same, your datations bring kurgan invasions ahead in time about 1000 years, and, in any case, saying that Rössen is anything different from a regionalization of Danubian is just too much.

I hope I clarified Rossen for you.

Anyhow, chronologies differ sometimes. It should not happen, as for these periods C-14 is very very accurate but misteriously it happens. I think there's not enough contrast nor publicity in archaeological work. The overall kurganish scheme is the same for both, that's the most important thing. The misterious discrepancies will disappear with time.

Please refer to Gimbutas's book.  In the back of the book she exhaustively lists the results of carbon-14 dating on various sites grouped by culture.  This is a resource you don't want to overlook.

If you can give me good links, I'll tank you.

Sadly I have none.  Try the book.



Posted By: Kuu-ukko
Date Posted: 19-Aug-2005 at 05:35
Hiya guys! I would like to ask answers to a couple of things I need clarification about:

According to you, when was the proto-Indo-European language dispersed? How does the Tocharian fit in this all?

What about proto-Uralic? Isn't it suspected, that proto-Uralic dispersed much earlier than proto-Indo-European, seeing that there are proto-IE loanwords all across Uralic languages, but they were borrowed separately.

Thank you and goodbye.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 19-Aug-2005 at 06:07
Gimbutas is a little old... though she is no doubt the mother of the Kurgan theory of IE expansion, most of her work is older than my sources. The book you mention is her last work (1991) and while I'll be delighted having a look at it when I can, I suspect that my sources, more strictly archaeological are more precise and modern. I will try to visit the library as soon as I can, get that book and quote my source, so you can have a look (it's from a German archaeologist and, as I mentioned, it is purely archaeological, no theories - all reconstruction is mine).

In my knowledge, Starcevo-Koros-Cris (or just Starcevo), that belongs to the Balcanic stage of European Neolithic (since c. 6000 BCE), gives birth to the Eastern and Western Linear Pottery cultures (via proto-Linear Pottery in Upper Tisza). Only Western Linear Pottery is considered Danubian, while Eastern Linear Pottery falls almost fully in the Balcanic group. This transition happens c. 5000. During the 5th milennium, the Western Linear Pottery culture (Danubian I) expands to all Central Europe and parts of Eastern Europe (giving birth to Boian in Vallachia), reaching the Seine basin by the west also. As it expands it starts diversifying in subcultures that eventually give birth to several cultures already in the 4th milennium:
  • Rössen in most of Germany and other western regions
  • Lengyel in the mid-Danube
  • Stroked Pottery in Bohemia, Poland and parts of Eastern Germany too
  • Pre-Cucuteni in Moldavia and Western Ukraine
  • Boian-Maritza in Vallachia and Bulgaria
Since c. 3500 this structure witnesses some changes, some of them linked maybe to direct and indirect effects of IE (and Eastern native) migrations. Most relevant are the formation of Karanovo-Gumelnita (from Boian-Maritza, overriding Hamangia) that is possibly the oldest European monarchy/state, the formation of Michelsberg in northern Germany (Danubian but kind of dissident).

During the second half of this 3rd milennium BCE we see the first IE settlements in Eastern Germany first (Baalberge, which expands to other areas) and in the lower Danub later (Cernavoda I), these would spring, quite clearly from Seredny-Stog II (yes, it refers to local stratigraphy but it's the name I have for that culture anyhow).

My source says that Jamnaja Kultura (or what he calls with that name) is a culture form beyond the Volga that is the first one to develope kurgans (tumuli) and other typical features of the so-called kurgan cultures. They are earlier than 3500 BCE, conventional date for the start of Serednij-Stog II. Seredny-Stog II is described as a complex culture that in some settlements seems kurganish in others seems Dniepr-Don and others finally seems mixed. This would imply an infiltration/invasion from Jamnayans (IEs) and a dynamic mixture/conflict with locals. The fact that cultures with clear Dniepr-Don elements (but not kurganish yet) are located in the Baltic (Pitted Ware) and Scandinavia (TRBK-A) at this time could reflect the migration of exiled tribes from the nord-Pontic region.

Anyhow, the Jamnaya Kultura expands over Dniepr-Don c. 3000 and then recedes before a new arrival (Catacombs) c. 2500 BCE. My own research in other sources seems to link quite clearly Jamnaya with Scythians (and other eastern IEs probably) and Catacombs with Cymmerians.

The expansion of the culture of Catacombs reaches areas of Poland, influencing Globular Amphores and helping somehow in the creation of Corded Ware (Battle Axe people) c. 2400 BCE.

So you see, the problem seems to be that we are founding our schemes in different datations, specially for kurganish cultures. This is a problem and I hope to see it solved satisfactorily at some time.

Still, the overall scheme is the same. The main difference would be wether IEs come from Ukraine and southern Russia (your version) or from Kazakhstan and western Siberia (my version). And also in the dates of their actual invasion of Central Europe.

One question: in your version of the theory, how does Serednij-Stog II evolves from Dniepr-Don. Dniepr-Don is not kurganish, so, in my system, the foreign intervention of eastern peoples already using such paraphernalia would explain it very well.




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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Sharrukin
Date Posted: 20-Aug-2005 at 02:17

Yes the general outlines of what you describe match what I know regarding the pre-Kurgan Balkans and central Europe, with some obvious exceptions.  Its with the chronology with the Kurgan expansion that seems to be different.

In my knowledge, Starcevo-Koros-Cris (or just Starcevo), that belongs to the Balcanic stage of European Neolithic (since c. 6000 BCE),...

This is the Starcevo Complex (c. 6300-5000 BC) derived from more southerly Sesklo (c. 6500-5500 BC)

....[Starcevo] gives birth to the Eastern and Western Linear Pottery cultures (via proto-Linear Pottery in Upper Tisza).

This is the Linearbandkeramik (LBK) Culture (c. 5500-3500 BC).

Only Western Linear Pottery is considered Danubian, while Eastern Linear Pottery falls almost fully in the Balcanic group.

Perhaps a later development of terminology?  When the term Danubian was first coined, it applied to all of LBK.   The literature I have does not distinguish a Western and Eastern variant.  In the east, LBK merges with Dniester-Bug and contributed to the formation of Cucuteni. 

This transition happens c. 5000. During the 5th milennium, the Western Linear Pottery culture (Danubian I) expands to all Central Europe and parts of Eastern Europe (giving birth to Boian in Vallachia), reaching the Seine basin by the west also.

The Boian Culture, beginning about 5000 BC was the result of the migration of LBK farmers into Moldova, Muntenia, and Transylvania which merged with the local Early Vinca people of those regions for form this hybrid culture.   Boian absorbed Hamangia Culture in c. 4700 BC

As it expands it starts diversifying in subcultures that eventually give birth to several cultures already in the 4th milennium:

  • Rössen in most of Germany and other western regions
  • Lengyel in the mid-Danube

Lengyel (c. 5000-3600 BC) was derived from a Starcevo core in Slavonia, Syrmia, and Pannonia and it was related to Butmir and Danilo Cultures, both also derived from Starcevo.   It was displaced by Kurgan Wave I, c. 4200 BC but had survivals until about 3600 BC. 

  • Stroked Pottery in Bohemia, Poland and parts of Eastern Germany too

The carbon-14 data on this group range from 4787 to 4469 BC (calibrated dates)

  • Pre-Cucuteni in Moldavia and Western Ukraine

The term Pre-Cucuteni is now defunct.  It is now Early Cucuteni.  The Cucuteni Culture (c. 4800-3500 BC) developed from a merger of  eastern LBK settlers with Boian colonists.  It was a hybrid culture.

  • Boian-Maritza in Vallachia and Bulgaria

See above.

Since c. 3500 this structure witnesses some changes, some of them linked maybe to direct and indirect effects of IE (and Eastern native) migrations. Most relevant are the formation of Karanovo-Gumelnita (from Boian-Maritza, overriding Hamangia) that is possibly the oldest European monarchy/state, the formation of Michelsberg in northern Germany (Danubian but kind of dissident).

Karanovo-Gumelnita dates from between about 5500 and about 4200 BC.  It did not survive Kurgan Wave I.   I don't have specific dates for Michelsburg, except for a very general dating in the 4th millennium.  A beginning date of about 4000 BC would not be out of the question.

During the second half of this 3rd milennium BCE we see the first IE settlements in Eastern Germany first (Baalberge, which expands to other areas) and in the lower Danub later (Cernavoda I), these would spring, quite clearly from Seredny-Stog II (yes, it refers to local stratigraphy but it's the name I have for that culture anyhow).

Baalberge Culture dates from between 4000 and 3400 BC and was the result of circumstances beginning with Kurgan Wave I (Sredny Stog).  Cernavoda I began about the same time as Baalberge, and also was created after the effects of Kurgan Wave I.

My source says that Jamnaja Kultura (or what he calls with that name) is a culture form beyond the Volga that is the first one to develope kurgans (tumuli) and other typical features of the so-called kurgan cultures. They are earlier than 3500 BCE, conventional date for the start of Serednij-Stog II.

My source says that the earliest kurgans were from the Khvalynsk Culture of the the Middle Volga, which were earlier than 4500 BC, the conventional date for the start of Sredny-Stog Culture.

Seredny-Stog II is described as a complex culture that in some settlements seems kurganish in others seems Dniepr-Don and others finally seems mixed. This would imply an infiltration/invasion from Jamnayans (IEs) and a dynamic mixture/conflict with locals. The fact that cultures with clear Dniepr-Don elements (but not kurganish yet) are located in the Baltic (Pitted Ware) and Scandinavia (TRBK-A) at this time could reflect the migration of exiled tribes from the nord-Pontic region.

I would at least agree that the Sredny Stog Culture displays a variety of economic forms depending on specific regions within the boundaries of the culture.

Anyhow, the Jamnaya Kultura expands over Dniepr-Don c. 3000 and then recedes before a new arrival (Catacombs) c. 2500 BCE.

Sredny Stog supercedes Dnieper-Donets, c. 4500 BC and then becomes Yamnaya, c. 3500 BC which then becomes Catacomb-Grave, c. 2200 BC on the Ukrainian steppe. 

My own research in other sources seems to link quite clearly Jamnaya with Scythians (and other eastern IEs probably) and Catacombs with Cymmerians.

My research makes a western variant of Yamnaya into Catacomb-Grave (proto-Cimmerians?) a central variant into Timber-Grave (proto-Scythians?) and an eastern variant into Andronovo (other proto-Iranians)

The expansion of the culture of Catacombs reaches areas of Poland, influencing Globular Amphores and helping somehow in the creation of Corded Ware (Battle Axe people) c. 2400 BCE.

The Globular Amphora Culture dates from c. 3500 to c. 2800 BC, inspired by Kurgan Wave II.  The Corded Ware Complex dates from c. 3200 to c. 2300 BC.  Catacomb-Grave Culture was an offshoot of Yamnaya and dates from c. 2200 BC - too late for the inspiration of Globular Amphora.

Still, the overall scheme is the same. The main difference would be wether IEs come from Ukraine and southern Russia (your version) or from Kazakhstan and western Siberia (my version). And also in the dates of their actual invasion of Central Europe.

That "main difference" may not even be that different.  True, my sources say that the impetus of kurganization of the west was from the Sredny Stog Culture, but even Sredny Stog must have come from somewhere else, and the most likely candidate for that would be Khvalynsk Culture of the middle Volga region, which seems to be of slightly more ancient date than Sredny Stog. 

One question: in your version of the theory, how does Serednij-Stog II evolves from Dniepr-Don. Dniepr-Don is not kurganish, so, in my system, the foreign intervention of eastern peoples already using such paraphernalia would explain it very well.

I've touched on this in my previous post, but to reiterate, Sredny Stog Culture does not evolve from Dnieper-Donets.  It seemed to have evolved from Khvalynsk Culture which itself evolved from cultures derived from Dnieper-Donets. 

 

 

 

 



Posted By: Sharrukin
Date Posted: 20-Aug-2005 at 02:52

According to you, when was the proto-Indo-European language dispersed?

According to J.P. Mallory in In Search of the Indo-Europeans, the range of the formation of IE (or PIE) was between 4500 and 2500 BC.  The earliest evidence of dispersal at least archaeologically was about 4300 BC, followed by subsequent dispersals.

How does the Tocharian fit in this all?

There was a culture which originated in the Pontic-Caspian named the Afanasievo Culture (c. 3200-2000 BC) which made its home in the region of the Minusinsk Basin and the Altai.  Not only are the cultural origins well known but also the physical type of the Europids can be traced to the Pontic-Caspian region.  When the Okunevo people (of eastern origin) superceded Afanasievo, the evidence shows migration southwards into the Tarim Basin, where the earliest mummies of the region (and where Tocharian was spoken), appear by 2000 BC. 

What about proto-Uralic? Isn't it suspected, that proto-Uralic dispersed much earlier than proto-Indo-European, seeing that there are proto-IE loanwords all across Uralic languages, but they were borrowed separately.

I haven't heard about that.  The only thing I can relate is that PIE displays loan-words from Uralic, testifying to further evidence of the original home of PIE on the Pontic-Caspian, obviously near speakers of Uralic languages.



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 20-Aug-2005 at 03:37
Sharrukin: excellent comments. I will try to find out which datations are more accurate: yours or mine. It's just about when did IEs irrupted in Europe, 1000 years up or down, as the rest of the chronology is pretty simmilar.

My own notes say also that Timber Graves are proto-Scytians and Andronovo proto-Aryans. But this comes from a different and older source, as my main source is focused in Europe only.

What I meant that Catacombs culture did was affecting Globular Amphoras more or less at the time when it becomse Corded Ware (of course that only works with my data, as would happen c. 2500 - I have 2600 for earliest Catacombs and Globular Amphoras, 2400 for Corded Ware)

I would say that Danilo and Butmir are Mediterranean, derived from Cardium (also Cardium-Printed) pottery and not from Starcevo. I would also say that neither Lengyel nor the Eastern LBK (of the Tisza basin and Transylvania, Boian and Cucuteni are "western" LBK, as this division is made at the origins) are any more Starcevo than what their common origins as LBK mean. True that Vinca (different from Starcevo according to my source) influences the areas of those cultures, sepcially Eastern LBK but this is not very relevant in the overall picture, anyhow.

Btw, do you think that the Dimini-Vinca complex (since c. 5000) was caused by an earlier invasion or it was just a local evolution?



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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Hrodger
Date Posted: 20-Aug-2005 at 09:04
Originally posted by hugoestr

... from the wikipedia entry on indo-european.
...
The language group was briefly referred to as "Indo-Germanic", until it became apparent that the group included most of the other languages of Europe, as well. "Indo-European", the term now current in English, was coined in 1813 by the British scholar Sir Thomas Young. Franz Bopp performed extensive comparative work.
...

Just a note:

William Jones (1746-94) was probably the first one who named it the (mosaic) name "Hamitic language" in 1786.

AFAIK, Thomas Young was the first one to use the term Indo-European (Fr. indo-européenne) in 1813. Julius von Klapstock introduced later (in 1823s) the term Indo-Germanic (Ge. Indogermanische). This naming became quite popular, especially in (nationalistic) Germany.

Other titles include Indo-Celtic, Teutonic, Thracian, Schytic, Caucasic, Wiros, Aryan, Celto-Slavo-Teutonic. These name attracted few scholars besides those ones who coined them.


Posted By: Sharrukin
Date Posted: 20-Aug-2005 at 16:17

Commenting on Danilo Culture, my source says it didn't derive from the local Impresso pottery culture (your Cardium pottery) describing the Danilo pottery as of a different tradition.  My source theorized that it must have come from further south on the coast, perhaps from Albania, where the archaeology of the region is virtually a blank for this time period.

Btw, do you think that the Dimini-Vinca complex (since c. 5000) was caused by an earlier invasion or it was just a local evolution?

I have never read about the Dimini (c. 5300-4000 BC) and Vinca (c. 5400-4300 BC) Cultures described as a complex.  Very interesting.  I've examined the descriptions of the two cultures and one of the common denominators was the use of black-burnished wares in both cultures, although these seemed to have originated in Karanovo regions.  None of the literature I've come across describes "invasion" (or any similiar language), but rather "adoption"  or diffusion of this style of pottery. 



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 20-Aug-2005 at 17:35
The pottery and general culture of Dimini, Vinca and other related cultures of Macedonia, Inner Albania and Bulgaria (Karanovo III-Veselinovo) are clearly related. The latter seems more mixed with the earlier cultural background of "Sesklian" type (Karanovo I/II). The question is that according to my source some Dimini culture settlements have an ash layer what some have interpretated as invasion (but others show continuity). The change of other iconography ("godesses") is also significative... but others, like Pahllanx, sustain that the black ware is just a local evloution and that no invasion took place at all.

Well, it's been great to contrast our archeological knowledge: it's not common to find people who knows so much about this interesting period of (pre) history, and much less that expalin their knowledge with such openness and wish to contrast. It's been really intersting. I hope I can eventually come across the most accurate and definitive C-14 dates, so I can make up my mind.



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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Sharrukin
Date Posted: 21-Aug-2005 at 06:18

There are some interesting articles in Wikipedia which seem to be derived from the Encyclopedia of Indo-European Culture, by J. P. Mallory (Editor), and D. Q. Adams (editors) (1997).  They seem to support the higher chronology.   Have you read In Search of the Indo-Europeans, by JP Mallory.  He uses the highter chronology.

 



Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 21-Aug-2005 at 21:34

check this out about indo-eurios

though high speculative

 

http://indoeuro.bizland.com/index8.html - http://indoeuro.bizland.com/index8.html



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 22-Aug-2005 at 02:56
Take note of all. 

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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 22-Aug-2005 at 09:29
I still need someone to explain the lack of common agricultural, domesticated animal and marinal terms.

Now, from the link given above, among other 'papers' I noticed the one titled 'Pelasgian Problem' by Cyril Babaev. He too among a long list of others, selectively uses texts to jump to conclusions.

While Herodotus does mention what is quoted in 1.56, he conveniently neglects to mention that in 1.58 he clarly speaks of separation. How do you separate from a people you are not part of????

(Note that he uses the word "aposchisthen' that means spilt/detach/part)

My point is that once again these 'theories' are proved to be 'built' on an unsound basis. Selectively using info, in order to support their view of some unknown/invisible common origin.





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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: hugoestr
Date Posted: 22-Aug-2005 at 11:49
Originally posted by Phallanx


I still need someone to explain the lack of common
agricultural, domesticated animal and marinal terms.

Now, from the link given above, among other 'papers' I noticed the one
titled 'Pelasgian Problem' by Cyril Babaev. He too among a long list of
others, selectively uses texts to jump to conclusions.

While Herodotus does mention what is quoted in 1.56, he conveniently neglects to mention that in 1.58 he clarly speaks of <span style="font-weight: bold;">separation</span>.
How do you <span style="font-weight: bold;">separate</span> from a people you are not part of????

(Note that he uses the word "aposchisthen' that means spilt/detach/part)

My point is that once again these 'theories' are proved to be 'built'
on an unsound basis. Selectively using info, in order to support their
view of some unknown/invisible common origin.


<span ="smText"/span>


Phallanx,

Proto Indo-European explains the similarities between these languages, which not only share common word roots, but they also share grammatical, phonetical, and syntactical features.

Obviously the languages have changed through thousands of years. Since the regions where speakers of indo-European are quite diverse, it is not too much of a stretch of the imagination to see how the names of certain animals could have been forgotten--since they no longer had contact with them-- or that the migration of speakers would have adopted the native words for animal and agricultural names when they arrived to a new land. If this can happen within the same language, it is even more likely that it will happen with different, but related languages.

To show you how common this is, I will use examples in modern Spanish. Maju can add more.

Mexico uses the word "Guajolote" for turkey, the bird, but everyone else uses "Pavo." From the region where my father is from, the bird is also known as "cocono."

Grass exists practically in all the world, but many non-Mexicans don't understand me when I talk about "zacate." Most of them think of it as "pasto."

Do non-Mexican spanish speakers know what I am talking about when I say "ejote" or "elote"?

Also, remember that a lot of work on PIE is more speculative as we moved towards the past. PIE is a good "guess" using what we know about linguistics, modern, and dead languages.

Their techniques are not too different than from yours when you tried to tie "to eat" to "land," but with a wider number of languages and a more sophisticated knowledge of linguistics.

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Posted By: hugoestr
Date Posted: 22-Aug-2005 at 11:52
Originally posted by Phallanx



My point is that once again these 'theories' are proved to be 'built'
on an unsound basis. Selectively using info, in order to support their
view of some unknown/invisible common origin.


<span ="smText"/span>


Your criticism seems to apply also to those who stated that Latin came from Greek.

I think that it is more of trying to find what is common within these languages; acknowledging that they are different is self-evident.


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Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 22-Aug-2005 at 15:08
Nice to see you back in the 'saddle'.

I find it hard to believe that they would forget the 'imported terms' for domesticated animals and argriculture. Isn't this the very basis of the theory, that the IE after invading presented previously unknown 'technologies'??
Why 'forget' the terms that were allegedly taught to them by the invisible IE yet, 'remember' words for father, mother, numbers etc.??
Isn't it logical to adopt and 'remember' words you never had before and 'forget' terms you already have existing words of your own???

To be honest I really didn't understand your exaple, which are Spanish adopted words and which are 'native'?

Again the Latin Hellinic. I clearly remember saying strongly influenced, not 'came from', derives or anything similar.


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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: hugoestr
Date Posted: 22-Aug-2005 at 16:01
Phallanx,

The point of my examples is to show how likeley it is for IE languages to have "forgoten" words for related to farming and agriculture. Since this "forgetfulness" happens in modern languages, it expected that it will happen in ancient languages too. Most of the words that I gave are examples of staple foods used in Mexico that in my experience only Mexicans know what they are. Following your argument, Spanish has forgotten the names for these kinds of food in Spanish. This is a silly claim. The correct explanation is that Spanish adopted the native language words for these kinds of food.

In one sentence, IE people adopted the native words for agricultural artifacts as they migrated.

Let me comment on languages retaining certain words at the expense of others. The basic theory is that language will tend to retain the most primitive vocabulary, while at the same time adopt words from many other languages. They will also retain grammatical features for much longer than vocabulary.

So the names for mother, father, numbers, certain food, and basic verbs will stay in the language, while other words will change.

You can argue that IE already had perfectly good words to describe certain things. And you would be right. But sometimes people will prefer to use a new word over older ones to the point that the older words is forgotten. Why? I don't know. Maybe someone else here knows. I know that this happens, and it happens at a high speed in English.

Also, PIE is mainly a linguistic theory, and it makes the most sense as such. It is assumed that people who spoke the same language belonged to the same group. Once we move from linguistics to history and anthropology, the theory becomes more difficult to support, and many of your non-linguistic criticism weighs in stronger

The IE culture, as a people, is one of the most fascinating puzzles in history. The conclusions of different disciplines contradict one another.

In brief, linguistically PIE is more or less sound. Historically, the Indo-Europeans as people are on more shaky ground, with a lot of evidence against it, meaning that many of your criticisms for the people are valid.







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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 23-Aug-2005 at 00:59
Do non-Mexican spanish speakers know what I am talking about when I say "ejote" or "elote"?


No.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 23-Aug-2005 at 01:09
On Phallanx, questions, it's quite evident that IEs, at least in Europe, got mixed with locals, who gave most of their blood to the new IE nations or proto-nations and also probably gave them much of their culture. I would disagree that IEs brought any tehcnological advance other then those related with horse riding/primitive chariot or war organization. They actually seem to me more primitive or (the most) equally advanced as Chalcolithic Europeans that they invaded. Trees, agricultural terms, foods, the sea and many other loans may have incorporated to their languages in their succesive migrations... this is just too common, as Hugoestr has pointed very well using those Mexican regionalisms as examples. It's obvious that Spanish has several words for grass (hierba) or pasture (pasto) that weren't incorporated to the Mexican dialect, which has influences from several native languages. The same happens in other Spanish speaking countries (for instance Argentina and Uruguay have plenty of Portugese and Italian loans, a diferent kind of evolutionary trend based not in a native influence but in a migrational/neighborhood one).



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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 23-Aug-2005 at 06:43
It all depends on when you believe the invasion took place if it ever did.
I am refering to the theory of a Neolithic dated invasion as supported by C.Renfrew among others lately. In this theory, the 'invasions' took place with the spread of agriculture. (since previous dates have obvious archeologic and genetic inconsistancies.
(No further comment)

So my question on agricultural terms has this simple logic, how can you have 'terms' for something you didn't know of prior to the 'invasions'?
So since you obviously had no knowledge of these 'items' you'd logically adopt the terms used by those that introduced the'items' to you'. Something we mysteriously do not see.

Similar to the Spanish-Mexican example. As Hugo stated grass is known all over the world. So why should all the 60 or so languages in Mexico adopt a 'term' for something they already know of. The way I see it, it would be quite easier to adopt a term for something you've never seen or heard of before.


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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Kuu-ukko
Date Posted: 23-Aug-2005 at 08:13
I think Wikipedia says something about this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European

May I ask, what is this argument proto-IE didn't have words for agriculture? Aren't there reconstructed roots for horse and cow(/bull), as I've understood?


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 23-Aug-2005 at 08:51
Originally posted by Kuu-ukko


May I ask, what is this argument proto-IE didn't have words for agriculture? Aren't there reconstructed roots for horse and cow(/bull), as I've understood?


In another topic where somebody claimed, defending Renfrew's theory of IE springing from Anatolia and spreading with Neolithic, that some plant names  had a common root or something, I made the excercise of translating a series of typical Neolithic crops and cattle words in 2 Romanic languages, 2 Germanic ones, Russian and Greek with http://babelfish.altavista.com/tr - Babel Fish Translator ... and truly most of them wasn't coincident at all. Only the words for "lentils" and "beans" could show some relationship  but at least the first seemed an obvious Latin loan. The other words I tried with (wheat, barley, rye, sheep, goat, cow and pig) showed no pan-IE connection though some loans from Latin or Greek were evident in isolated cases.

Anyhow, a linguist will say better.



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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: hugoestr
Date Posted: 23-Aug-2005 at 09:48
Originally posted by Maju

Do non-Mexican spanish speakers know what I am talking about when I say "ejote" or "elote"?


No.



Ejote= tender unriped beans with their casing
Elote = tender corn--maize

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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 23-Aug-2005 at 10:54
Originally posted by hugoestr


Ejote= tender unriped beans with their casing


Vainas or judías verdes.

Elote = tender corn--maize


Maíz tierno. Uncommon, we grow it but we don't eat much maize: it was very typical in the Basque country in form of talo (a kind of bread or tortilla) but nowadays nobody makes it anymore.

Tortilla is another word that I recall as very different in European Spanish and Mexican Spanish: for us it is an omelette made up of eggs with or without something else, for your it is kind of a maize pancake.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Kuu-ukko
Date Posted: 23-Aug-2005 at 14:18
@ Maju

I looked up the words you did from Chambers Dictionary of Etymology, and found these:

Barley: Old English bærlic (the word meant "of barley", but became a noun in Middle English), (bar- root form of bere barley + līc -ly, adjective suffix), OE bere comes from proto-IE *bhares-/bhars-, cognates in Germanic are Old Icelandic barr and Gothic barizeins. Outside Germanic is Latin far.

Cow: Old English , cognate with Old Frisian , Old Saxon , Middle Dutch coe (Modern Dutch koe), Old High German kuo (modern German Kuh) and Old Icelandic kÿr (Morwegian ku, Danish and Swedish ko), from proto-Germanic *kwon, earlier *kwom. Cognates outside Germanic are Old Irish , Middle Welsh buw, Latin bōs (ox/bull/cow), Greek boûs, Latvian gùovs cow, Armenian kov, Sanskrit gāú-s ox/bull/cow, Avestan gāuš and Tocharian A ko cow (plural kowi), Tocharian B kau, all from proto-IE *gwōu-s, accusative *gwōm.

Goat: Old English gāt she-goat, cognate with Old Saxon gēt she-goat, Middle Dutch gheet (modern Dutch geit), Old High German geiz (modern German Geiss), Old Icelandic geit (Norwegian geit, Swedish get, Danish ged) and Gothic gaits goat/she-goat from proto-Germanic *зaitaz, cognate with Latin haedus, kid, from proto-IE *ghaidos.

Rye: Old English ryge, cognate with Old Icelandic rugr rye (Swedish råg, Danish and Norwegian rug), Old Frisian rogga, Old Saxon roggo, Middle Dutch and modern Dutch rogge, and Old High German rocko (modern German Roggen). Outside Germanic cognates are Lithuanian rugÿs rye grain, Old Slavic rŭžĭ rye grass and Russian rozh', from proto-IE *wrughyo-.

These are the words with proto-IE etymologies. The others are definitely not: Old English bēan (bean) has cognates in Old High German bōna (modern German Bohne) and Old Icelandic baun. Wheat is thought to be a derivative from the word "white", so there isn't an etymology for it in itself. "Sheep" has no cognates in Gothic or Scandinavian, or for that matter anywhere outside West Germanic (proto-WG *skæpan). Pig has no cognates outside Old English *picga or *pigga, the reconstructed words themselves being questionable.

I'll just mention that there is  proto-IE word for horse (*ekwo-), but its Old English form eoh didn't survive to modern times. So basically we can presume pretty safely, that proto-IE people were practicing husbandry, mainly cow and horse, and some farming. Eh ?


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 23-Aug-2005 at 19:38
I take the cow and horse thing (in fact I did expect a horse cognate). But Latin-German coincidence is not evidence for any pan-IE common root, specially considering that Latin/Italic and Germanic are closest among IE subfamilies. This applies to goat and barley.

Most of the same reasoning can be applied to rye, as it is coincident only among groups of the Baltic basin: Germans, Slavs and Baltics proper. Slav and Baltic groups are also most closely related and the loan could have gone in either direction Germanic<->Balto-Slavic.

For evidence in those proposed IE roots you would need Iranian or Indo-Aryan (or Hittite or Tocharian or Greek or Albanian) cognate words. Something in languages more distant either geographically or in the linguistic tree. To find cognates between Latin-Germanic or Baltic-Slav is no evidence of anything upper in the tree.

It is actually very significative that neither sheep nor pig, two of the most common catlle in early Neolithic, nor (for what matters) any of the other animals or plants (with the exception of cow and horse - or so it seems) are found among IEs. Horse wasn't herded by Neolithic tribes and, while cow was, it was also probably very important for steppary seminomadic IEs, as much as horses. So, 99% sure that IEs weren't the Neolithic farmers that sprang from the Eastern Mediterranean regions.




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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Sharrukin
Date Posted: 24-Aug-2005 at 01:53

The pig is actually traceable to two PIE terms:

from the root *su- we get English, swine, Latin, sus, Indic, su-.  The term may have been used in the generic sense.  In Indo-Iranian languages the term is used for the wild pig, but is used for the domesticated variety in Europe. 

from the root *porko- we get European terms for the domesticated pig but this root still exists as a reflex in Indo-Iranian, but not as a whole word. 

Going back to the question of a lack of IE terms for agriculture, the archaeology of the late Neolithic Balkans does show a pattern of agricultural societies being succeeded by pastoral cultures.  In a pastoral economy, expecially one on the move, words for agriculture were not important.  They may retain a memory of such terms:  We do find PIE terms for cattle-raising including among other things, cow, ox, steer, butter, cheese, meat, marrow, herd, yoke, sheep, wool, weaving, goat (in some degree), horse (of course), and dog.  Terms relating specifically to agriculture included a term for an unspecified grain, terms for "to sow", a term for a grinding instrument, plough, and sickle.  Other agricultural terms from an PIE root are restricted to European languages, such as ploughshare, seed, grain, mill, furrow, barley and millet. 

Therefore agriculture was not entirely alien to the early Indo-Europeans, it just was not culturally emphasised.  In the archaeological sense, this makes sense for a people on the border of true agricultural society which indeed reached the Pontic Steppe.  The very region where we can trace the first waves of invasion into the Balkans was a region of some limited agriculture.   The societies which appeared after those invasions, were decidedly pastoral.   



Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 26-Aug-2005 at 11:27
Maju

If you recall my comment on the language tree you have posted in a previous post here is the article I was refering to.

"

The theory of Indo-European origins in Southeast Europe from an earlier Anatolian source has received additional confirmation recently. Using a methodology similar to that used in evolutionary biology, Gray and Atkinson [�Language-tree divergence times support the Anatolian theory of Indo-European origin,� Nature 426, 435-439] compared 95 present and past languages of the Indo-European family based on a list of 200 basic terms for each.

The main idea of this innovative work is that languages that diverge from a common source initially tend to have similar vocabularies, but as time progresses, new terms replace older ones, and thus the intersection between the vocabularies of the languages is reduced. This principle can be used to determine the �branching pattern� of the language family, as well as to time the various splits in the tree. The authors were able to vary many parameters of the input automatically, thus taking into account the many uncertainties of this difficult problem in a systematic manner.

The results of all analyses, irrespective of the initial assumptions were very robust:

We test two theories of Indo-European origin: the 'Kurgan expansion' and the 'Anatolian farming' hypotheses. The Kurgan theory centres on possible archaeological evidence for an expansion into Europe and the Near East by Kurgan horsemen beginning in the sixth millennium BP7, 8. In contrast, the Anatolian theory claims that Indo-European languages expanded with the spread of agriculture from Anatolia around 8,000�9,500 years BP9. In striking agreement with the Anatolian hypothesis, our analysis of a matrix of 87 languages with 2,449 lexical items produced an estimated age range for the initial Indo-European divergence of between 7,800 and 9,800 years BP. These results were robust to changes in coding procedures, calibration points, rooting of the trees and priors in the bayesian analysis.

The branching pattern is also in agreement with an independent linguistic analysis of Indo-European languages [Rexova, K., Frynta, D. & Zrzavy, J. �Cladistic analysis of languages: Indo-European classification based on lexicostatistical data.� Cladistics 19, 120�127 (2003)].

The estimated times strikingly confirm the Neolithic dispersal theory, showing a divergence of Indo-European languages from Anatolian ones, with an independent branching of the mysterious Tocharian language which spread eastwards, and the descent of all other languages from what is almost certain to be a Balkan homeland:

Consensus tree and divergence-time estimates. a, Majority-rule consensus tree based on the MCMC sample of 1,000 trees; b, initial assumption set using all cognate information and most stringent constraints; c, conservative cognate coding with doubtful cognates excluded; d, all cognate sets with minimum topological constraints; e, missing data coding with minimum topological constraints and all cognate sets. Shaded bars represent the implied age ranges under the two competing theories of Indo-European origin: blue, Kurgan hypothesis; green, Anatolian farming hypothesis. The relationship between the main language groups in the consensus tree for each analysis is also shown, along with posterior probability values. [Click on the Picture for a larger version.]



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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 26-Aug-2005 at 12:16
Interesting. But I can see no pics... you may have to be suscribed to Nature to see them, so I suggest that you download the images and upload them (great feature of this forum, btw!).

I can imagine the tree is simmilar to the one I posted above in this thread (that one I didn't have the source, with Greek in a very separated branch). Still I wonder why, if the earlier dates of agriculture this side of the Aegean are of the 7th milennium, the tree starts branching out in the 10th or 9th milennium, two or three thousand years before any farmer ever sowed anything in European lands.

Another question is on how, with all supposed IE-speaking Neolithic cultures erased from most of Europe by the spread of the (now non-IE) kurgans, IE did survive to those invasions.

I suspect the method isn't that good and needs checking.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Sharrukin
Date Posted: 28-Aug-2005 at 04:50
There are enough holes in Renfrews' theory alone to warrant taking that data not too seriously.


Posted By: GoldenBlood
Date Posted: 06-Sep-2005 at 11:23
Originally posted by hansel

check this out about indo-eurios

though high speculative

http://indoeuro.bizland.com/index8.html - http://indoeuro.bizland.com/index8.html

(1873) The Albanian language is the oldest Indo-European idiom according to WEBSTERS NEW TWENTIETH CENTURY DICTIONARY, Unabridged Second Edition, De Luxe Color, William Collins and World ,Publishing Co.,Inc., ISBN: 0-539-048523-3

http://home.online.no/~bmatos/artimages/ACFPCAr4ayDW.jpg">



Posted By: GoldenBlood
Date Posted: 06-Sep-2005 at 11:25


Posted By: GoldenBlood
Date Posted: 06-Sep-2005 at 11:28
Celtic Branch
Welsh : Irish Gaelic : Scottish Gaelic : Breton
Cornish : Gaulish : Cumbrian : Manx : Galatian
Germanic Branch
English : Dutch : Flemish : Frisian : Afrikaans
German : Yiddish : Danish : Swedish : Norwegian
Faroes : Icelandic

Anglo Saxon : Old Norse : Frankish : Gothic
Lombardo : Visigoth : Vandal
Romance (Latin) Branch
Italian : Sardinian : French : Provencal : Catalonian
Spanish : Ladino : Galician : Portuguese : Romansh
Romanian : Moldavian

Latin : Oscan : Umbrian : Faliscan : Sabine : Dalmatian
Slavic Branch
Russian : Belorussian : Ukrainian : Polish : Sorbian
Czech : Slovak : Slovene : Croatian : Serbian
Kashubian : Bulgarian : Macedonian : Bosnian

Old Church Slavic
Baltic Branch
Lithuanian : Latvian
Prussian
Hellenic Branch
Modern Greek
Mycenaean : Koine : Byzantine Greek
Classical Greek (Attic : Doric, Ionic, Aeolic)
Illyric Branch
Albanian
Dacian : Illyric
Anatolian Branch
Hittite : Lydian : Lycian: Luwian : Palaic
Thracian Branch
Armenian
Thracian : Phrygian
Iranian Branch
Farsi : Kurdish : Pashto : Baluchi : Ossetian : Tadzhik
Persian : Avestan : Scythian
Indic Branch
Hindi : Urdu : Nepali : Bengali : Assamese : Oriya
Kashmiri : Punjabi : Sindhi : Marathi : Gujarati
Bhili : Lahnda : Maithili : Magahi
Konkani : Sinhalese : Maldivian : Romany

Sanskrit : Pali : Ardhamagadhi
Tokharian Branch
Turfanian : Kuchean

 

The link: http://www.krysstal.com/langfams_indoeuro.html - http://www.krysstal.com/langfams_indoeuro.html



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 06-Sep-2005 at 14:27
Cool. But the first tree is more than one century old, and the second (which is at least more logical in having Indo-Iranian more separated from Western languages, still seems pretty old. The Celto-Italic connection is obsolete and we should rather talk of Italo-Germanic (very much the same of Balto-Slavic) and Celtic could or could not be close to this Italo-Germanic branch.  The tree seems disproportionate in size for the dialects of Germanic and Latin and too close for the Indian and Iranian branches... it's distorted from European viewpoint. 

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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Odin
Date Posted: 05-Apr-2006 at 01:43

Great Thread. What is everyone's opinion about the Indo-Uralic hypothesis for the origin of PIE?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-Uralic_languages - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-Uralic_languages

"Indo-Uralic is a hypothetical language family consisting of Indo-European and Uralic (and maybe further related languages). The most common argument in favour of such a relationship is based on seemingly common elements of morphology, such as the pronominal roots *m- (first person) and *t- (second person), or the accusative case ending in *-m. There are other, less obvious correspondences being suggested, such as the Indo-European plural marker *-s and its Uralic counterpart *-t. Most linguists, however, consider the evidence insufficient. Nevertheless, Indo-European and Uralic languages look remarkably similar for neighbouring languages traditionally considered unrelated. One problem in the research is that often it is assumed that similar words in Uralic and Indo-European languages are loans from IE to Uralic, even if this is not chronologically possible.

Frederik Kortlandt supports a model of Indo-Uralic in which the original Indo-Uralic speakers lived north of the Caspian Sea, and the Proto-Indo-European speakers began as a group that branched off westward from there to come into geographic proximity with the Northwest Caucasian languages, absorbing a Northwest Caucasian lexical blending before moving farther westward to a region north of the Black Sea where their language settled into canonical Proto-Indo-European."



Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 05-Apr-2006 at 03:48
I think it just goes beyond our understanding. I tend to sympathize with the theories that melt IE with other "Siberian" languages but it's out of geographical approxiamtion - and the linguistic map 5000 years ago could actually be something more complex already than we can imagine.

What s quite clear is that IE and Uralic speakers expanded in parallel over NE Europe and probably come from neighbouring regions in the Ural area.


-------------

NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Etherman
Date Posted: 28-Dec-2006 at 23:55

How does 'wid' which has an obvious 'v' sound as seen in all other language examples turn into 'idea


The *w sound was probably pronounced as in English, but that's not important. The important thing is that in Greek (where we get the word idea from) *w disappears. This disappearing of *w is seen in many words. IIRC, in very early Greek the sound hadn't disappeared yet. So the disappearance is actually recorded in the written Greek language.


what about inventing the 'gno' root in order to fit the Hellinic 'gignwskw' and the Latin loan 'gnocere' into the theory?


This root also occurs in Old Persian xšnasatiy "he shall know;" Old Church Slavonic znati "to know;" and Sanskrit jna "to know." Oh, and of course English "know." More properly the root is *g'no.


I still fail to see how the Hellinic 'eis' / 'en' is connected to 'ekas'


The root is *oi but can be extended with *k as in Sanskrit, or *n as in many other languages. There's also a final *-os suffix which gives Greek -os and Sanskrit -as.


what about that 'tettares' that in reality is 'tessera' connected to 'catvaras'


This comes from *kWetwores (kW represents a labiovelar like the qu in quick). In Greek *kW regularly becomes t before front vowel (i and e). Also *tw becomes s. In Sanskrit the situation is somewhat more complicated but still regular. First *kW become *k. Then before front vowels the *k is palatalized and becomes c. Finally e becomes a. Early in the history of PIE studies PIE was assumed to have a sound system similar to Sanskrit. The recognition that PIE had an *e vowel (which Sanskrit lacks) was due to words like *kWetwores. It was difficult to explain why Sanskrit ca corresponded to ke in other languages if the e came from a, and why there were no Sanskrit ca corresponding to ka in other languages. Assuming PIE had *e and that Pre-Sanskrit palatalized K before e went a long way towards explaining the PIE vowel system.


We could continue with alleged roots like, '
su'= 'to be born' that they connected to 'uios'= son


I assume that uios is a Greek word. This would be explained because in Greek initial s became h. I think you'll find that uios in the written form will actually begin with the rough breathing mark (which indicates an initial h). The -ios is a common suffix in IE languages ( which comes from *yos).


'n' = 'not (from one letter!!!) connected to 'agnwstos' = unknown


Actually the PE not word had a couple forms, connect with PIE ablaut. As a particle it could be *ne. In compounds it would be *n. In the syllabic form in Greek *n became a (in English the n in button is syllabic) in most cases. Thus PIE *ngno becomes agno. Incidentally, the places where syllabic *n doesn't become a are perfectly regular too.


They have taken words from all 'forms' of Hellinic Linear B', Homeric and late classical Hellinic where and when it suits them.


Researchers are very careful about which dialect a word comes from, though in some cases it won't matter. Important differences arise in the different dialects. For example the rule that *kW becomes t before i and e doesn't hold in the Aeolian dialect of Greek. This change is only effective before i in that dialect.


But once again the problem that appears is that agricultural terms are quite different.


There certainly are some differences between languages. That's only natural because all languages lose words and borrow others. Often words change their meanings. The English word "gay" meant something completely different 100 years ago than what it's commonly taken to mean nowadays (though the old use is still occassionally used). Here are some PIE agricultural terms:

to sow *seh1 (h1 is a sound of uncertain pronunciation, but generally thought to be a glottal stop)
to plow *h2erh3 (h2 and h3 are two more uncertain sounds)
plow *h2erh3trom
land *h2eg'ros
to drive (e.g. cattle) *h2eg'
barley *gHersdH
quern *gWreh2uo:n (o: is a long o)
cow *gWeh3us
bull *teh2uros
sheep *h3euis
small livestock *pek'u
milking *h2melg'
butter *h3engWn
cheese *tuHris (here H represents h1, h2, or h3, the exact consonant is unknown)
horse *h1ek'wos
foal *po:lH
adult pig *suHs
young pig *pork'os
hare *k'h1s
dog *k'uo:n

I hope this helps clear up the question about whether PIE existed.



Posted By: Etherman
Date Posted: 29-Dec-2006 at 00:03

There are other, less obvious correspondences being suggested, such as the Indo-European plural marker *-s and its Uralic counterpart *-t.


My own pet theory is that the plural marker (assuming these two language families actually are related) was **-ti (I got the idea from Kartlandt). Uralic would have lost the **-i (or maybe not, some forms of the plural end in *i). In PIE the **ti first became *si then the final *i was lost. I also assume that PIE *ei came from and earlier stressed *i. This two hypotheses predict that there will be no PIE roots in *tei-. In fact, there are none (they would have all becomes *sei- roots if Indo-Uralic had any roots in *ti-). There are some suffixes that end in *ti but these are generally acknowledged to be late formations.


Posted By: JuMong
Date Posted: 18-Feb-2007 at 01:07

Championed by Nazi-Germany in search of the mythic Uber-Aryan race, which the Nazis never found by the way, this enduring Euro-centric, Indo-European myth is perhaps one of the greatest legacy of Heinrich Himmler.

It's truly sad how many people still buy into it.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aryan_race - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aryan_race
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heinrich_Himmler - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heinrich_Himmler
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazi_archaeology - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazi_archaeology



Posted By: pekau
Date Posted: 18-Feb-2007 at 02:29

It is a possibility that Indo-Europeans created the first known civilization in the Western Mediteranean Sea and around the Black Sea known by some as Atlantis. The melting of the Ice Age started the mass migration and exodus, and making the root languages around the world to be similar.



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http://swagbucks.com/refer/Malachi">      
   
Join us.


Posted By: JuMong
Date Posted: 18-Feb-2007 at 02:57
Originally posted by pekau

It is a possibility that Indo-Europeans created the first known civilization in the Western Mediteranean Sea and around the Black Sea known by some as AtlantisLOL. The melting of the Ice Age started the mass migration and exodus, and making the root languages around the world to be similar.




Of course we all know that  Indo-European race isn't even human. They came from outer space with superior knowledge and taught human beings high culture.LOL

If you buy that, I also have a bridge in Chappaquiddick to sell you.Wink


Posted By: Odin
Date Posted: 19-Jun-2008 at 22:08
*BUMP*


I've become very interested in IE Studies recently so I wanted to revive this thread. And where the frigging heck is Maju? Cry I like all his posts on prehistoric Europe.

From various things I have read on PIE (most recently in the section on PIE in The Major Languages of the World) here is my hypothesis on the evolution and history of PIE:

Pre-PIE: Spoken among the first pastorialists around the Volga River. Uralic-like vowel harmony develops into the IE Ablaut as a result of vowel shifts and evolution in the grammatical system. Agglutination is lost as inflection becomes more dominant. There is no grammatical gender. The syntax is Ergative-Absolutive.

Early PIE: Spoken by the pre-Kurgan Samara culture of the middle Volga. The vowels are I, U, laryngeal-influenced E, and maybe A. Grammatical gender based on an animate-inanimate distinction develops. The syntax starts to become a Nominative-Accusative system.

Middle PIE: Spoken by the Sredny Stog and Early Yamna cultures north of the Black Sea and the Maykop culture of the western Caucasus. Continues trends in Early PIE. the Proto-Anatolian dialects of the Maykop culture become seperated from the other dialects. The laryngeals start to disappear in non-Maykop dialects.

Late PIE: Spoken in the late Yamna culture, the Corded Ware culture, and the proto-Greek Cotofeni culture. A masculine-feminine-neuter gender system develops. Laryngeals are gone, resulting in the Latin-type long/short A-E-I-O-U vowel system. The Satem sound shift begins in the eastern dialects.

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"Of the twenty-two civilizations that have appeared in history, nineteen of them collapsed when they reached the moral state the United States is in now."

-Arnold J. Toynbee


Posted By: Odin
Date Posted: 20-Jun-2008 at 01:44
Here is an interesting paper I ran into. it gives a very compelling argument that (Hittite excluded) the post-PIE proto-languages, Proto-Greek in particular, didn't change very much from PIE in phonology (pronunciation, stress, intonation, etc.) and grammar until the late 2nd Millennium BC (the start of the European Iron Age), most of the differences are in vocabulary (such as terms picked up from the non-IE peoples they absorbed). It also notes that this argues strongly against the Anatolian Farmer hypothesis

http://ling.lsa.umich.edu/grp/cldg/garrett.pdf - http://ling.lsa.umich.edu/grp/cldg/garrett.pdf

-------------
"Of the twenty-two civilizations that have appeared in history, nineteen of them collapsed when they reached the moral state the United States is in now."

-Arnold J. Toynbee


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 21-Oct-2008 at 11:07
I would recommend the book The horse, the wheel and language by D.W. Anthony, a fresh book (2008) that deals alot with the new view of the kurgan hypothesis (revised version by J.P. Mallory) and uses the latest archaeological and anthropological data that we have.
 
Alldo I consider myself quite "neutral" when it comes to PIE and it´s origin, I must say that this book is unbelivable good, especially when it gives more room for the archaeological and anthropological aspects without sacrificing the linguistic.
 
Cheers!


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 24-Oct-2008 at 13:05
Originally posted by Azvarohi

I would recommend the book The horse, the wheel and language by D.W. Anthony, a fresh book (2008) that deals alot with the new view of the kurgan hypothesis (revised version by J.P. Mallory) and uses the latest archaeological and anthropological data that we have.
I've read about half of it via Google Books (contiguous chapters, nevertheless) and though I'm left with a general good impression on the book and almost persuaded by some of its arguments and conclusions, there're some things I noticed:
- The strength of the demonstration is uneven. The author tries to bring some archaeological arguments at the same level with the linguistic ones. However, historical linguistic phenomena like sound-shifts are attested and confirmed sometimes by hundreds of instances, in many different contexts, whereas most analogies for material culture included few parallels (occasionally only one). No matter how tempting would be to follow the author in his conclusions, a phenomenon like the satem shift looks to me much more probable to really have happened than most of the conclusions drawn from archaeological (or multi-disciplinary) premises.
- I'm not so sure about the methodologies behind this work. The author was fair enough to admit some of the archaeological literature on Eastern Europe and the Steppes is still plagued by "pots are people" paradigm, but he provided no key for extracting some relatively non-biased information from it (p. 18). Even so, getting a "selective and unavoidably imperfect synthesis" did not stop some conclusions to be put forward with relative certainty. I also did not understand how the concept "robust frontier" (p. 105) gets defined in a unequivocal way. How many customs make a "bundle of customs"? I guess that on a slightly different interpretation (or selection!) of the archaeological data and a degree of uncertainty in defining the robustness of frontiers, we'll be able to assign or not a dialect continuum to a Neolithic Eurasian culture.
- Though it's only my first read, I've spotted a geographical inaccuracy: "the southern Siret and Prut valleys in southeastern Romania (between Iasi and Bîrlad)". But Iasi is a town in northeastern Romania, while Bîrlad is in east, so the location would be northeastern (or eastern) Romania. Even the course of the rivers would be more accurately described as middle, not southern. Of course, it may be a small error, but it may affect the interpretation and also warns about other possible such errors.
- In Archaeology and Language, a collection of studies in several volumes edited by Roger Blench and Matthew Spriggs, I read some interesting articles (by James P. Mallory, Johanna Nichols and other scholars) on the homeland and the expansion of IE. The first impression is that this book avoids some of the criticism and considerations from these studies, but after reading more of it I'll be able to compare better this work with other recent studies.


Posted By: svimpie
Date Posted: 05-Apr-2009 at 09:48
Interesting, Chilbudios. Are there any problems with Anthony´s work concerning the archaeological? I know that there have been issues regarding his linguistical parts. If you would have the time a critical review of the book would be awesome!


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 22-Sep-2009 at 06:29
Originally posted by Sharrukin

Hmmm, I think you have old data.  The latest archaeological data I've gathered goes like this:

c. 6500-5000 BC - Dniester-Bug Culture begun by local hunter and fisher groups already inhabiting the region since Mesolithic times.  Beginning of experimental agriculture and cattle and pigs were domesticated, but principle mode of economy was still hunting and fishing.  Later gained contacts with Starcevo (Cris) and LBK agriculturalists.  To the east of the Dniester-Bug culture was the Sursko-Dnieper of similiar hunter-fisher origin.

c. 5500-4500 BC -  The full Neolithic Dnieper-Donets Culture superceded the Sursko-Dnieper Culture.  To the east of the Dnieper-Donets was the Neolithic Seroglasovo Culture of the region of the Volga, based on hunting-fishing and stockbreeding.  Seroglasovo was eventually succeeded by both Samara (displaying Dnieper-Donets characteristics)and Pre-Caspian Cultures

c. 4800-3500 BC - The Neolithic Cucuteni  (Tripolye) Culture formed from Moldavian Boian and LBK agrcultural elements reached the region of the former Dniester-Bug Culture by about 4500 BC.

c. 4500-3500 BC - The Eneolithic Sredny Stog Culture superceded the Dnieper-Donets Culture and becomes the eastern neighbor of Cucuteni-Tripolye.  It was based on stock-breeding, agriculture, hunting and fishing.  Eastern cultures with similar cultural traits included the Novodanilovka,and the Lower Mikhaylovka Culture.  Still further east the Khvalynsk Culture succeeded the Samara and Pre-Caspian Cultures and which displayed characteristics of stock-breeding, agriculture, hunting and fishing like the Ukrainian cultures.  Earliest evidence of domesticated horse, c. 4500 BC (horse-riding).  Compared to the west, the transition from Dnieper-Donets influenced cultures to the Khvalynsk Culture was a more gradual one, which may indicate cultural priority compared to the very similar Sredny Stog Culture in the west whose economy was almost radically different from that of preceding Balkan-origin economies. 

c. 4400-4300 BC Kurgan Wave I originated from Sredny Stog Culture.  The region of the northern Balkan Cucuteni Culture experienced dislocations but survived the onslought but now Kurgan peoples remained present with the cultural region of Cucuteni without amalgamation.  The Karanovo-Gumelita culture was destroyed.  Its population moved further west.  The Salcuta Culture was nearly destroyed.  Pockets of its population survived on in caves and islands for another four or five hundred years.  The region of the Vinca Culture witnessed dislocations of populations which moved further west.  End of Vinca Culture, c. 4300 BC.  Same situation with the Lengyel Culture.  Within the LBK Culture, a hybrid culture emerged known as Rossen.

c. 4000 BC  The Varna Culture of the Black Sea coast was replaced by the Kurganish Cernavoda Culture. 

c. 3900 BC  The Kurganish Baalberge Group emerged in the region of the Elbe and Saale.

c. 3600-2200 BC The Eneolithic Yamnaya Complex superceded the Sredny Stog-Khvalynsk Horizon, extending from the Danube Delta to beyond east of the middle Ural River, divided up into some nine cultural variants.  Both stock-breeding and agriculture were practiced.  First evidence of wheeled cart. 

c. 3500-3400 BC Kurgan Wave II.  Cucuteni which survived the First Wave was hybridized.  The result was the Usatovo Complex.  Further north elements of the Cucuteni, TRB, and Pontic cultures became the Globular Amphora Culture.  New hybrid cultures emerged in the Balkans such as the Baden-Vucedol and Ezero groups.  Ezero penetrated into western Anatolia.  Cotofeni, in the northcentral Balkans retained much of the Old European cultural tradition.

c. 3200-2300 BC Corded Ware Culture developed in northern Europe.  Its immediate antecedent was the Globular Amphora Culture of which it shared many characteristics but also showed characteristics similar to Yamnaya, including stock-breeding.  Like Yamnaya, it was expansive.  Its eastern variants are known as Battle-Axe cultures. 

c. 3000-2900 BC Kurgan Wave III.  The whole of the eastern Danube region disrupted and taken over by Yamnaya.  Vucedol migrated to the northwest and south into Dalmatia, western Bosnia, and Albania.  Vucedol succeeded by Vinkovci--Samogyvar Culture.  Evidence of Yamnaya penetration into Greece in Early Helladic II and III (c. 2900-2250 BC). 



a good stroy. but ıts only story. Can you show me which sources support this story.


Championed by Nazi-Germany in search of the mythic Uber-Aryan race, which the Nazis never found by the way, this enduring Euro-centric, Indo-European myth is perhaps one of the greatest legacy of Heinrich Himmler.

It's truly sad how many people still buy into it.


Clapthis is totally true. Reason is racism is never finished in  europa. Ä°t still have a strong influce on Europan people.











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