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Noun Genders

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: Scholarly Pursuits
Forum Name: Linguistics
Forum Discription: Discuss linguistics: the study of languages
URL: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=35360
Printed Date: 24-Nov-2017 at 13:18
Software Version: Web Wiz Forums 9.56a - http://www.webwizforums.com


Topic: Noun Genders
Posted By: Sidney
Subject: Noun Genders
Date Posted: 06-Apr-2015 at 12:42
Most languages classify nouns into masculine, feminine or neuter. Is this part of early languages (Egyptian, Sumerian, Hittite, etc), or did it develop later?

What is the point of this? How does it help the construction of language?



Replies:
Posted By: medenaywe
Date Posted: 06-Apr-2015 at 14:54
Ancient language had not gender.All was "it".Smile"It"still consists all genders:male,female&it.


Posted By: Sidney
Date Posted: 06-Apr-2015 at 15:20
So when, and why, did certain words become 'masculine', 'feminine' or 'neuter'?

(eg in French, 'carrot' is feminine, 'lemon' is masculine; but in German both words are feminine).


Posted By: Aeoli
Date Posted: 07-Apr-2015 at 06:07
I am also wondering it

"This system is used in approximately one quarter of the world's  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language - languages ."  


"Grammatical gender is found in many  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_languages - Indo-European languages  (including  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spanish_language - Spanish https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German_language - German https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hindi_language - Hindi  and  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russian_language - Russian , but not  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Persian_language - Persian , for example),  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Afro-Asiatic_languages - Afro-Asiatic languages  (which includes the  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semitic_languages - Semitic  and  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Berber_languages - Berber languages , etc.), and in other  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_families - language families  such as  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dravidian_languages - Dravidian  and  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Northeast_Caucasian_languages - Northeast Caucasian , as well as several  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Australian_Aboriginal_languages - Australian Aboriginal languages  like  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dyirbal_language - Dyirbal , and  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kala_Lagaw_Ya_language - Kalaw Lagaw Ya . Also, most  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Niger%E2%80%93Congo_languages - Niger–Congo languages  have extensive systems of noun classes, which can be grouped into several grammatical genders. On the other hand, grammatical gender is usually absent from the  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Altaic_languages - Altaic https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Austronesian_languages - Austronesian https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sino-Tibetan_languages - Sino-Tibetan https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uralic_languages - Uralic  and most  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Native_American_languages - Native American  language families."  

and why persian language doesn't have it

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_gender - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_gender




Posted By: medenaywe
Date Posted: 07-Apr-2015 at 12:39
If you mean time-period-age i will start with first update of human language="Greek".Second update="Latin".Than all that we see today Sidney.European languages came after 9-10th century.
Most of them between 10-14 century,literature forms.It was connected with fall of Byzantine Empire
,somehow?


Posted By: Sidney
Date Posted: 07-Apr-2015 at 19:12
Medenaywe, grammatical-gender nouns are not the preserve of European languages. They appear in Arabic and in Hindi, and predate the 10-14th Centuries and the fall of Byzantine Empire.


Posted By: medenaywe
Date Posted: 08-Apr-2015 at 10:11
now we knew where did they come!SmileIn Europe&Africa of course.


Posted By: Sidney
Date Posted: 08-Apr-2015 at 15:13
So did the ancient Egyptian language have gendered nouns?

And why do gendered nouns exist at all!?


Posted By: medenaywe
Date Posted: 08-Apr-2015 at 23:20
Demotico has no gender.Gender&Plural&Pronouns could have distroyed numeral structure of sentence if it had existed.(They are still realized with prefixes&suffxes that we have to count). 


Posted By: Sidney
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2015 at 12:45
We can surmise that from the existing writing, but I wonder if spoken Egyptian was different?


Posted By: red clay
Date Posted: 13-Apr-2015 at 17:10
Does anyone know if any of the South and Mesoamerican languages used gendered nouns. Ex. Nuhatl.

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"Arguing with someone who hates you or your ideas, is like playing chess with a pigeon. No matter what move you make, your opponent will walk all over the board and scramble the pieces".
Unknown.


Posted By: Centrix Vigilis
Date Posted: 14-Apr-2015 at 04:44
they exsist because language developed in part from a referent basis.

Hence gender nouns were based on gender referents.

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"Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence"

S. T. Friedman


Pilger's law: 'If it's been officially denied, then it's probably true'



Posted By: Centrix Vigilis
Date Posted: 14-Apr-2015 at 04:54
ref.Red. dunno really but the answer if anywhere will be found here:

'Corbett, Greville G. (1991). Gender. Cambridge University Press.
Corbett, Greville (1994) "Gender and gender systems". In R. Asher (ed.) The Encyclopedia of Language and Linguistics, Oxford: Pergamon Press, pp. 1347–1353.'

Apache-Comanche and others, are more animate-inanimate based; with gender absorbed-adopted viz any in use by Euro's. during the colonialization periods of the Western hemisphere; iirc from my His 101.


-------------
"Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence"

S. T. Friedman


Pilger's law: 'If it's been officially denied, then it's probably true'



Posted By: Sidney
Date Posted: 14-Apr-2015 at 13:32
Originally posted by Centrix Vigilis

they exsist because language developed in part from a referent basis.

Hence gender nouns were based on gender referents.


That sounds tautological to me. Could you give me some examples to help me understand what you mean?


Posted By: Centrix Vigilis
Date Posted: 14-Apr-2015 at 16:20
http://languagelore.net/?p=2984

the political bull shit aside..as I remain neither concerned with sensitivity or pcness in general.. read this:

http://writingcenter.unc.edu/handouts/gender-sensitive-language/

and..lastly but not least... is...imagine the 'gender' noun or pronoun used to refer ie.referent to the male sexual organ. it would not be used as a feminine. but a masculine because of the masculine referent.

iow....'his' not 'her'. because 'her' don't traditionally have one.

And I thank GOD for that.

Amen.

-------------
"Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence"

S. T. Friedman


Pilger's law: 'If it's been officially denied, then it's probably true'




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