Print Page | Close Window

The Hellenicity of the “barbarian” Macedonians

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: Regional History or Period History
Forum Name: Ancient Mediterranean and Europe
Forum Discription: Greece, Macedon, Rome and other cultures such as Celtic and Germanic tribes
URL: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=26344
Printed Date: 28-Apr-2024 at 10:16
Software Version: Web Wiz Forums 9.56a - http://www.webwizforums.com


Topic: The Hellenicity of the “barbarian” Macedonians
Posted By: akritas
Subject: The Hellenicity of the “barbarian” Macedonians
Date Posted: 11-Jan-2009 at 11:59

http://ancient-medieval-macedonian-history.blogspot.com/2009/01/hellenicity-of-barbarian-macedonians.html - The Hellenicity of the “barbarian” Macedonians

http://4.bp.blogspot.com/_Il3C_PAhgz0/SWe2zENuf3I/AAAAAAAAAlI/zduKKixxwDA/s1600-h/Philip+Ivory+Shield.jpg">

Parts of the Phillip ivory shield that found in Vergina Tomb. You can see clearly the two Pan-Hellenic symbols in ancient Greece: The 16th Sun/Star(Vergina Sun) and the Meander(Greek key). The shield itself can be found in the museum of Vergina in Central Macedonia of Greece

DEFINITION OF THE “HELLENICITY” AND “BARBARIAN”

The invention of a barbarian antitype provided a completely new mechanism for defining the Hellenic identity. During the Archaic period, Hellenic self-definition was ”aggregative”. That is to say, it was constructed by evok­ing similarities with peer groups which were then cast in terms of ficticious kin relationships within the 'Hellenic Genealogy'. Hellenicity was defined contrary through differential comparison with a barbarian out-group. At this point, however, some qualification is necessary. By oppositional self-definition, Jonathan Hall means simply that perceived differences served as a basis for the construction of a specifically Hellenic identity. [1]

Hall argues at greater length in his books and articles in the 5th century, mainly as a consequence of the Persian Wars, the definition of Greek identity evolved from an “aggregative” no inclusive conception based on fictitious descent from the eponymous Hellen and expressed in forged genealogies (which may leave outside not only Macedonians and Magnetes, but also other goups such as Arcadians or Aitolians) into an “oppositional” one, turned against out-groups, relegating thus (fictitious) community of blood to the same level –if not to an inferior one (vide infra)– as linguistic, religious and cultural criteria. In this perspective there is not much sense in opposing a putative compact, homo­geneous and immutable “Greekness” to the contested identities of groups such as the Aitolians, Locrians, Acarnanians, Thesprotians, Molossians, Chaones, Atintanias, Parauaians Orestians, Macedonians.

The Greek tribes quickly noticed that they did not speak the same tongue as their neighbours, and used the term "βάρβαρος" ("barbarian") for them, with the meanings "uncultured", "uncivilized" or "speaker of a foreign language". The term βάρβαρος is thought to be onomatopoeic in origin: "bar-bar"—i.e. stammering—may have been how the speech of foreign peoples sounded to Greek speakers. [2]


BARBARIAN IDENTIFICATION FROM THE ANCIENT GREEKS

According to several ancient writers named as barbarians all those who spoke a different tongue [Polybius, "History", 9-38-5; Strabo, "Geographica", 7-7-4; Herodotus, "Histories", book I, 56 and II, 158]

Discrimination between Hellenes and barbarians lasted until the 4th century BC. Euripides thought it plausible that Hellenes should rule over barbarians, because the first were destined for freedom and the other for slavery.[ Iphigeneia at Aulis, 1400 ]

Aristotle came to the conclusion that "the nature of a barbarian and a slave is one and the same".[Republic,I,5]

Aristophanes calls the illiterate supervisor a "barbarian" who nevertheless taught the birds how to talk.[The Birds, 199] The term eventually picked up a derogatory use and was extended to indicate the entire lifestyle of foreigners, and finally coming to mean "illiterate" or "uncivilized" in general. Thus "an illiterate man is also a barbarian".[The Clouds, 492 ]

According to Dionysius of Halicarnassus (1st cent BC), a Hellene differed from a barbarian in four ways: refined language, education, religion, and the rule of law. In more detailing defined Hellenicity yas speaking the Greek language, having a Greek way of life, acknowledging the same gods and having fitting, reasonable laws. [Roman Antiquities, 1, 89, 4]

Isocrates declared in his speech Panegyricus: "So far has Athens left the rest of mankind behind in thought and expression that her pupils have become the teachers of the world, and she has made the name of Hellas distinctive no longer of race but of intellect, and the title of Hellene a badge of education rather than of common descent."[Panegyricus, 50]

Racial differentiation faded away through the teachings of Stoics, who distinguished between nature and convention and taught that all men have equal claim before God and thus by nature cannot be unequal to each other. In time, Hellene, to use the words of Isocrates, became a trait of intellect, not race.

Alexander the Great's conquests consolidated Greek influence in the East by exporting Greek culture into Asia and permanently transformed education and society in the region.

Greek education became identified with noble upbringing. Paul of Tarsus (a non Greek) considered it his obligation to preach the Gospel to all men, "Hellenes and barbarians, both wise and foolish".[Epistle to the Romans, 1, 14 ]



THE MACEDONIANS

The beginnings of Macedonian history are shrouded in complete darkness. There is keen controversy on the ethno­logical problem, whether the Macedonians were Greeks [3] or not [4]. Linguistic science has at its disposal a very limited quantity of Macedonian words, and the archaeological ex­ploration of Macedonia has hardly begun. And yet when we take into account the political conditions, religion and morals of the Macedonians, our conviction is strengthened that they were a Greek race and akin to the Dorians. Having stayed behind in the extreme north, they were unable to participate in the progressive civilization of the tribes which went further south, and so, when in the time of the Persian Wars they emerged on the horizon of the other Greeks, they appeared to them as non-Greeks, as barbarians.

When Alexander I of Macedon, who, though a vassal of Xerxes, had in the Persian War given many proofs of his sympathy with the Greek cause, desired to take part in the Olympic Games, to which only Hellenes had access, he was at first refused as a barbarian, and it was only when by a bold fiction he traced back the pedigree of his house, the Argeadae, to the Heraclid Temenus of Argos, that he was admitted as a competitor. Since then the kings of Mace­donia passed with the Greeks as Hellenes, and as descend­ants of Heracles; but, as before, so afterwards, the people were regarded as barbarianseven by Isocrates in his 'Philip'though in the meantime many kings had done much for the introduction of Greek culture into their country. Even in Philip's day the Greeks saw in the Macedonians a non-Greek foreign people, and we must remem­ber this if we are to understand the history of Philip and Alexander, and especially the resistance and obstacles which met them from the Greeks. The point is much more important than our modern conviction that Greeks and Macedonians were brethren; this was equally unknown to both, and therefore could have no political effect. [5]

Quite apart from the local separation of the two peoples, the barbaric impression which the Macedonians made on the Greeks is explained by the close relationship in which the Macedonians lived for centuries with their barbarian neighbours, the Illyrians in the West, and the Thracians in the East. A strong Illyrian and Thracian influence can thus be recognized in Macedonian speech and manners. These however are only trifles compared with the Greek character of the Macedonian nationality; for example, the names of the true full-blooded Macedonians, especially of the princes and nobles, are purely Greek in their formation and sounds. [6]

Above all, the fundamental features of Macedonian poli­tical institutions are not only Greek but primitive Greek, a Homeric Greek. The old patriarchal monarchy over people and army lasted here down to the days of Philip and Alexander, a monarchy such as had once existed in all Greek tribes, until it had to give way to aristocratic forms of government under the dissolving influence of the Polis. One of the factors which explain the tenacious retention of the old monarchy is that the progressive idea of the Polis had not entered Macedonia. Another point is that the power of the king, who was supreme general, judge and priest, was tem­pered by the fact that the old Greek community in arms, in whose eyes the king was primus inter pareswhich had once existed in primitive times among the Greeksmain­tained itself down to Alexander's day, and beyond, in the assembly of the army, which was possessed of definite privi­leges. But the Argeads were not at first lords of the whole Mace­donian nation. Originally the tribes of Upper Macedonia, the Lyncestae, Orestae and Elimiotae had their own princes or kings. Tedious struggles were necessary to incor­porate them into the Macedonian state, and it is likely that the mediatisation of these princely houses was only com­pleted under Philip, by whose hand the unified Mace­donian state was thus constituted. [7]


THE HELLENICITY OF THE MACEDONIANS

Jonathan Hall proceeds to a penetrating analysis of the shifting definitions of Hellenicity in Herodotus, Thucydides and Isocrates, our main sources for the evolution of the concept in the Classical period. About Thucydides in particular he writes that, contrary to Herodotus, he did not view Greeks and barbarians “as mutually exclusive categories” but as “opposite poles of a single, linear continuum”. Thus, the inhabitants of north-western Greece “are ‘barbarian’ not in the sense that their cultures, customs, or behavior are in direct, diametrical opposition to Greek norms but rather in the sense that their seemingly more primitive way of life makes them “Hellènes manqués”. [8] [9]

Hall challenges the view that Macedonia was marginal or peripheral in respect to a Greek centre or core, for the simple reason that such a Greek hard core never existed, since “‘Greekness’ is constituted by the totality of multifocal, situationally bound, and self-conscious negotiations of identity not only between poleis and ethne but also within them”, and because a view such as this “assumes a transhistorically static definition of Greekness” [10]

Jonathan Hall in his conclusions affirm the doubts about the possibility of answering the question concerning the “nationality” of the ancient Mace­donians. “To ask whether the Macedonians ‘really were’ Greek or not in anti­quity“, he writes, “is ultimately a redundant question given the shifting semantics of Greekness between the sixth and fourth centuries B.C. What cannot be denied, however, is that the cultural commodification of Hellenic identity that emerged in the fourth century might have remained a provincial artifact, confined to the Balkan peninsula, had it not been for the Mace­donians” [11]

There is also one more element which confirms the Hellenicity of the Macedonians. The epigraphic evidence of recent decades has also yielded a vast number of personal names. These are not only purely Greek from the very start, but also have a distinct local character which precludes the possibility of their being borrowed from the colonies on the coast. Epigraphic data of capital linguistic interest which have become available only after the Center of Hellenic Studies Colloquium of 1997 from Professor Miltiadis Hatzopoulos and important recent monographs and articles which seem not to have been accessible in the United States, if known, would have provided additional arguments and prevented some minor inaccuracies. [12]

Other epigraphic unique evidence are the “theorodokoi” catalogues which precisely list the Greek states (among them and Macedonia) visited by the theoroi, the sacred envoys, of the Pan-Hellenic sanctuaries and invited to participate through official delegations in sacrifices and contests celebrated in those sanctuaries. [13]


CONCLUSION

The question “Had the Macedonians an Hellenic consciousness ?” or "Were the Macedonians Greeks ?" perhaps needs to be chopped up further. The Macedonian kings emerge as Greeks by namely shared blood, and personal names indicate that Macedonians generally moved north from Greece. The kings, the elite, and the generality of the Macedonians were Greeks by criteria of religion and language. Macedonian customs were in certain respects unlike those of a normal polis, but they were compatible with Greekness, apart, perhaps, from the institutions which I have characterized as feudal. The crude one-word answer to the question has to be "yes."


NOTES
[1]- Jonathan Hall, Hellenicity, 2002, page 179
[2]- Oxford English Dictionary, 2nd Edition, 1989, "barbarous"
[3]- Ulrich Wilcken in “ Ancient Greek History” and in “Alexander The Great” - N.G.L. Hammond, Wallbank and Errington in three volumes “History of Macedonia”- Ian Worthington in his last book “Philip of Macedonia” e.t.c.
[4]- E. Badian, “Greeks and Macedonians”, in Beryl Bar-Sharrar – E. N. Borza (eds.), Macedonia and Greece in Late Classical and Early Hellenistic Times and in “Herodotus on Alexander I of Macedon: A Study in some Subtle Silences”, in S. Hornblower (ed.), Greek Historiography,-E. N. Borza, in “the Shadow of Olympus” and in “The Emergence of Macedon”.
[5]- Volume “Macedonia: 4000 years of Greek History”, article from Sakellariou
[6]- Jean Kalleris, Les Anciens Macedoniens. Etude linguistique et historique
[7]- Ulrich Wilcken in “Ancient Greek History”, Greek edition, page 213
[8]- Irad Malkin (editor), Ancient Perceptions of Greek Ethnicity, Harvard Univeristy 2001, Contested Ethnicities: Perceptions of Macedonia within Evolving Definitions of Greek Ethnicity, page 169-172
[9]- Miltiadis Hatzopoulos, Macedonian Identities, Patakis publishing, 2008, Contested Ethnicities: Perception of the self and the other: the case of Macedon, page 51
[10]- Irad Malkin (editor), Ancient Perceptions of Greek Ethnicity, Cambridge, Mass. and London 2001, Contested Ethnicities: Perceptions of Macedonia within Evolving Definitions of Greek Ethnicity, page 166
[11]- Irad Malkin (editor), Ancient Perceptions of Greek Ethnicity, Cambridge, Mass. and London 2001, Contested Ethnicities: Perceptions of Macedonia within Evolving Definitions of Greek Ethnicity, page 172
[12]- Miltiadis Hatzopoulos in “Macedonian institutions under the kings,1996” and Giannis Xydopoulos “ Social and cultural relations of Macedonians and the other Greeks, 2006”
[13]- Miltiadis Hatzopoulos, Macedonian Identities, Patakis publishing, 2008, Contested Ethnicities: Perception of the self and the other: the case of Macedon, page 55

http://ancient-medieval-macedonian-history.blogspot.com/2009/01/hellenicity-of-barbarian-macedonians.html - http://ancient-medieval-macedonian-history.blogspot.com/2009/01/hellenicity-of-barbarian-macedonians.html



-------------



Replies:
Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 11-Jan-2009 at 15:44
I don't doubt that there were some links, but this article is rather poorly done as it tries "too hard" to prove its point. Sentences such are they were barbarians to all, but really they are a Dorian like Greek race tribe that stayed are a bit too circumstantial and not sound enough for a serious argument.




-------------


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 11-Jan-2009 at 17:39
What Jonathan Hall said is basically undeniable. After the 6th century, the inhabitants clearly belong to the Greek sphere. Besides, Olympic participants and barbarians is an impossible equation. The scholar debate actually focuses on earlier times where the problem arises. It is a question of definition however. Who do we consider as early Macedonians before the 6th century? The upper mountainous Kindoms or shall the fuzzy northern and eastern parts be included as well?

By my opinion the areas from Pindus, Boion until the coasts of Pieria and Emathia are not problematic at all anymore. It is the area of Aigae and the area above Thermae that may cause confusion.


-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: akritas
Date Posted: 11-Jan-2009 at 18:46

It should be emphasized at this point that ancient histo­rians and geographers did not follow the scientific methods of modern linguists, who make detailed descriptions of the speech of the groups that they are studying. The information contained in the ancient writers is based very occasionally on personal experience, and mainly on impressions gathered from their various informants, who were normally not trained philologists, of course, and had no particular inter­est in language. Consequently the description of ethnic groups as barbarians or as Greek by ancient writers can never be regarded as sufficient proof of their ethnic identi­ty. 

As I wrote the most convincing proof, however, that the Macedonians belonged firm­ly within the religious body of Greece, is provided by the catalogues of thearodokoi listing the Greek cities and tribes to which the major pan-Hellenic sanctuaries sent theoroi to announce an impending sacred truce and the performance of sacrifices and contests. The tribes and cities of Epirus and Macedonia(mentioned as barbarians from some writers)  are recorded in the most completely preserved lists (those of Epidauros, Argos, and Delphi) from as early as the 1st half of the 4th century B.C. The weight of this evidence is decisive because, as is well known, only Greeks were al­lowed to, participate in the pan-Hellenic games and festivals.


-------------


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 11-Jan-2009 at 23:08
This is a topic which was discussed and over-discussed. However, I note one thing. An unfair use of scholars. For instance, Johnatan Hall which is quoted several times has different opinions about the things which he's not quoted for. E.g. about "Hellenism" before 5th century from  History of the Archaic Greek World 1200-479 BCE (2007), p. 259-260:
"In fact there are two reasons why is it unlikely that the linguistic criterion was ever paramount in issues of Hellenic self-identification in the Archaic period. Firstly, there never exited a "Greek language" in the sense of a single linguistic idiom spoken by all those who professed Hellenic descent. [...] If the Aetolians spoke what they wrote, they conversed in a West Greek dialect, but it was one that Thucydides (3.94.5) found incomprehensible; the same is probably true of the Macedonian dialect. [...]
Secondly, is highly likely that a mixed-marriage environment would have had linguistic consequences. The most obvious is bilingualism [...] Furthermore, the facility with which the Greek alphabet was transmitted to the Phrygians, Etruscans, Lydians, Carians, Lycians, Sicels and Elymians suggests a multi-lingual environment that was hardly conductive to the construction of clearly demarcated, linguistically based identities.
Nor do the Greeks seem to have conceived of a characteristically Hellenic shared culture prior to the fifth century - the period in which the verb hellenizein ("to act - and eventually speak - like a Greek") makes its first appearance (e.g. Thucydides 2.68.5)"
or in Ethnic Identity in Greek Antiquity‎ (2000), p. 177:
"Language and dialect [...] cannot be regarded as criteria of ethnicity."
or at p. 178:
"Throughtout the world and throughout the history the multilingualism is rather the norm than the exception"
 
Maybe a fair representation of Johnathan Hall's view is that there were no Greeks (as Hellenes) before 5th century BC, however there were distinct tribes like those of Macedonians. In other words, Macedonians became Greeks in that period. Somehow, this blog entry manages to draw a slightly different conclusion.


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 11-Jan-2009 at 23:20
I don't know about the 5th century, but i would rather agree with R.J Hopper who said that the history of the Greeks as an ethnic entity, starts with the first Olympics. Before that i can agree there's a chaos of tribes.


-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: akritas
Date Posted: 12-Jan-2009 at 01:10

Where is my unfair Chilbudios ?

I have use the most known article that written from Hall and has as subject the Macedonian ethnogenesis.

As regards your abstracts in the second one(Ethnic Identity in Greek Antiquity) we have the negation of this as I have showed , and in the first one I don’t see something that negated these that Hall written in Contested Ethnicities: Perceptions of Macedonia within Evolving Definitions of Greek Ethnicity

Hall agree with R.J Hopper that Pan-Hellenic games such as Olympic- that based in the transformed genealogies- were the core of the Greek ethnogenesis. As regards the language, Hall in the same book (Ethnic Identity in Greek Antiquity) said that linguistic groups can be equated with ethnic group. Actually consider the “language” as an ethnic indicium rather than an ethnic criterion (pages 180-181). And I was clear on this in my first post

Finally I would like to see your opinion as about the epigraphical evidence  not only for the Macedonians but also for the tribes that consider from the ancient writers as barbarians such as Aitolians, Locrians, Acarnanians, Thesprotians, Molossians, Chaones, Atintanias, Parauaians and Orestians.



-------------


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 12-Jan-2009 at 02:36

Because Johnathan Hall does not believe "the kings, the elite, and the generality of the Macedonians were Greeks by criteria of religion and language." as you concluded after reviewing some of his works but "If the Aetolians spoke what they wrote, they conversed in a West Greek dialect, but it was one that Thucydides (3.94.5) found incomprehensible; the same is probably true of the Macedonian dialect" and moreover "Language and dialect [...] cannot be regarded as criteria of ethnicity".

Let's see more of what Johnathan Hall thinks of the ancient Macedonians in Ethnic Identity in Greek Antiquity‎, p. 63-64:
"While other sources associated Mount Pindos with Hestiaiotis, Herodotos mentions it in connection with Makedonia, perhaps indicating the northern rather than southern Pindos range. Elsewhere Herodotos notes that the Spartans, the Korinthians, the Sikyonians, the Epidaurians and the Troizenians are of the 'Dorian and Makedonian ethnos'. Although the mention of Makedonia in the Herodotean account of the Dorians' wanderings has often been invoked as support for the idea of an historical invasion from the northern Balkans, it has every appearance of being a more recent invention. In the Catalogue of women, the eponymous founder of Makedonia, Makedon, was the son of Zeus and Deukalion's daughter Thuia. This line of descent excludes him from the Hellenic genealogy - and hence, by implication, the Makedonians from the ranks of Hellenism. While Makedon derives descent from the Thessalian 'first man', Deukalion, this is traced through uterine succession (the female line) and bypasses Hellen himself. Nor does the fact that Zeus is his father necessarily testify to his credentials as a bona fide Hellene: after all, Sarpedon is the son of Zeus, but he is a Lykian not a Hellene. By the second half of the fifth century, the Makedonians did manage to enrol their eponymous ancestor within the Hellenic genealogy, but Makedon's descent was derived not from Doros but from Aiolos - an association that may have been suggested by the fact that both Makedon and Aiolos were given the epithet 'he who fights from a chariot' in the Catalogue of women.
The Dorian pedigree of the Makedonians is not attested before the middle of the fifth century and it is tempting to attribute this development to the reign of Alexander I during the first half of the century. Alexander involved himself with the panhellenic world of the Greek poleis to a greater degree than any of his predecessors. His qualification to do so was based on his claimed descent not only from a Heraklid ancestor, but from the Temenids of Argos. These credentials were evidently sufficient to persuade the officials whose task it was to prevent barbaroi from competing in the Olympic games, though Herodotos suggests that the integrity of Alexander's genealogy was not sufficient to convince all the Greeks, and this doubt was to be ruthlessly exploited in the fourth century in order to dissuade the Greeks from allying themselves to Philip II. With the promotion of Alexander's Argive Heraklid descent came perhaps the idea that the Makedonians were Dorians after all."
(the last sentence has an interesting footnote: "Though Badian (1994, 119 n. 13) argues that while the Macedonian kings may have been Greek, the populations over which they ruled were not.").
 
As such, according to Hall, the Macedonian "Hellenic ancestry" (i.e. Doric) was a fabrication of the 5th century. Sentences like "And yet when we take into account the political conditions, religion and morals of the Macedonians, our conviction is strengthened that they were a Greek race and akin to the Dorians" or "Above all, the fundamental features of Macedonian poli­tical institutions are not only Greek but primitive Greek, a Homeric Greek" are what Hall debunks throughout his work. The "crude" answer based on scholars like Hall is "not before the 5th century BC". Therefore your essay misrepresents its sources.
 
Hall agrees that Olympic games played a great part in the Greek ethnogenesis but also doubts their historicity. He notes the 'circuit of stephanitic games' is first attested in the 6th century BC (Hellenicity, p. 154), he notes the ethnic distribution of the Olympic victors for the first 300 years of games (219 victors, 29 Aiolians, 109 Dorians, 34 Ionians, 28 Akhaians, 19 others, p. 163) and then he proceeds to discuss about the excluded Greek tribes from the Hellenism. For instance, Aitolians (p. 170-71), lacking Olympic victors, no patrilinear lineage to Hellen, then moving to classical sources: Euripides describes an Aitolian as meixobarbaros, Thucydides describes the Aitolian Eurytanes as 'incomprehensible in speech and eaters of raw meat', Polybios even goes as far to claim that Aitolians are not Hellenes.
In the same book, Appendix B deals with the historicity of the early Olympic games and victors (p. 241-46), pointing out several important doubts (lack of archaeological evidence, contradicting literary evidence, a late - 6h century BC instead of 8th - tradition, etc.) 


Posted By: akritas
Date Posted: 12-Jan-2009 at 07:51

Chilbudios the «Ethnic Identity in Greek Antiquity» written in 1997, when the other two books are more recently. The finely balanced verdict of him [Irad Malkin (editor), Ancient Perceptions of Greek Ethnicity, Cambridge, Mass. and London 2001, Contested Ethnicities: Perceptions of Macedonia within Evolving Definitions of Greek Ethnicity, page 172] is all the more praiseworthy in that it does not hesitate explicitly or implicitly to contradict authoritative views current in the American academic establishment or even to modify opinions pre­viously expressed by the author himself.

Hall is one from the few scholars that finally understand that the “ancient Greek nationality” is matter of the shifting definitions  of “Hellenicity”  and fully shares Malkin’s view on the overriding importance of religion and in particular of common shrines , sacrifices e.t.c..

 

«Thus, the inhabitants of north-western Greece “are ‘barbarian’ not in the sense that their cultures, customs, or behavior are in direct, diametrical opposition to Greek norms but rather in the sense that their seemingly more primitive way of life makes them Hellènes manqués» (Contested Ethnicities: Perceptions of Macedonia within Evolving Definitions of Greek Ethnicity, page 172)

 
When Thoukidides called the Macedonias, Molossians and Chaonians as "barbarians" the cause was not the linguistic factor but theirs "primitive way of life" as view it from the South Greeks.



-------------


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 12-Jan-2009 at 08:44
Akritas, I've quoted from these books published in these years:
Ethnic Identity in Greek Antiquity (2000)
Hellenicity: Between Ethnicity and Culture (2002)
A History of the Archaic Greek World, 1200-479 BCE (2007)
 
He may have corrected some of his former views, but in what was published in 2007 he wrote that Macedonian dialect  was probably incomprehensible to Thucydides (he actually claims there was no "Greek" language to be understood by all) and that the Hellenic culture does not seem to be shared by Greeks before 5th century BC. Your quote from "Ancient Perceptions of Greek Ethnicity" does not address the language, nor the Greekness/Hellenicity of the Macedonians in the Homeric age.
 
 


Posted By: akritas
Date Posted: 12-Jan-2009 at 09:34
The 2000 edition of "Ethnic Identity in Greek Antiquity" is just a reprint of 1997. Hall focus in cultural critirion and not in the linguistic one from his  first book.  As about the language because was probably incomprehensible to Thucydides that is not made a not Greek dialect. Hall writes for the Macedonian language in Hellenicity (page 155)...
 
For what it is worth, the evidence - sparse as it is - suggests that a form of Northwest Greek was spoken in Makedonia, but structural linguistic affiliation does not guarantee intelligibility and it is entirely possible that the Makedonian dialect was as difficult for other dialect speakers to comprehend as the speech of the Aitolian Eurytanes was unintelligible to Thoukydides.

 

These statements by the ancient authors are rather sur­prising. In fact, although it is beyond dispute that the Kari­ans were speakers of a barbarian language until they were gradually Hellenized during the Hellenistic period, it is equally beyond doubt that the Eleans and the Aitolians had always been Greek-speaking; this is clear from by inscrip­tions discovered in these two areas, the earliest of which go back almost to the 7th century B.C.

Hall and many others American writers avoid to mention the  epigraphic data of capital linguistic interest that flourish in Greek soil and would have provided additional arguments and prevented some minor inaccuracies such as Thucydides literacy accounts.



-------------


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 12-Jan-2009 at 11:08
 
Let me redo the emphases in your quote:
For what it is worth, the evidence - sparse as it is - suggests that a form of Northwest Greek was spoken in Makedonia, but structural linguistic affiliation does not guarantee intelligibility and it is entirely possible that the Makedonian dialect was as difficult for other dialect speakers to comprehend as the speech of the Aitolian Eurytanes was unintelligible to Thoukydides.
 
He also continues at the same page: Certainly, later writers appear to regard the Makedonian dialect as a distinct linguistic idiom (Ploutarkh even ranks Kleopatra's Makedonian dialect alongside the speech of the Egyptians, Ethiopians, Troglodytes, Hebrews, Arabs, Syrians, Medes and Parthians)
In the following pages Hall proceeds to show that not this unintelligible language made Macedonians Hellenes, and gives other ways to construct Hellenic identity: through mythic genalogies, participating at Olympics, becoming part of a certain elite etc.
 
The epigraphic evidence gives little to nothing about the Archaic times. For instance, the epigraphic evidence for Macedonian included in Christidis' A History of Ancient Greek is from 4th-3rd century BC. However Hall also considers epigraphic evidence (see page 155 from Hellenicity, footnote 127 about the 4th century curse tablet from Pella and a late 5th century epitaph). As such, I stand by my initial criticism - Hall's position is misrepresented.


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 12-Jan-2009 at 18:32
I feel sometimes we get into details that do not help the reader at all. Not that it is wrong in a critical debate, but it helps only those who are really deep into a subject.

I would rather put Greek ethnicity and this matter into a more simple form, using questions and answers, like the old days.

When did Greek ethnicity arrise in a panhelladic scale?


In the first Olympics (opinions may vary, but not dramatically)

Did the Greek speaking people of the Trojan era have a "Greek consciousness"?


Not at a large scale. The Trojan war might have later been a symbol of Greek unity for many (including the Macedonians) but the tribes participating might not have had a Hellenic consciouness like most of them had in the classical era.

The proto-Greek speakers and their ancestors had no idea of what ethnicity is. Even though language in the second millenium BC seems homogenous, this doesn't mean they could identify fully with each other, moreover most tribes probably met rarely or were unaware of each other. The Ionian, Dorian, Macedonian, Aeolian, Aetolian, Epirotan, Cretan, Arcadian, Cypriot etc people were once something far from a Greek ethnos. During the LNIII and early bronze age, they were even unrelated to each other (eg. Cypriots and Arcadians).

The common factor, except from the usual cultural, religious and lingual development, was that all of them went through the same process in different periods of time.


What about Greek geneology?


All tribal leaders that were offsprings of Hellen were not the only Greeks. Greeks could be offspings of Graecus, Zeus, Pelasgus etc. Graecus was brother of Macedon in some stories, but he can also be in Hellens geneology in other stories. Athenians, were not in Hellens geneology but were still Greeks in and in a conservative level. The people descending from Graecus, were according to the tradition the first to rename themselves to Hellenes, even though they belonged to the Grecian geneology. At this point, Pandora is the mother of the Greeks, rather than the hero Hellen.


Spoken language and written forms?

Since Chilbudios gave an example of the Aetolians, it gave me a great chance to analyse the transition of regional greek writting to koine.

The Aetolians correctly wrote in what we today consider as Doric. What we consider Doric in writting form, does not necessaraly render the spoken dialect like for example Corinthian. Look what i discovered some months ago:

Theocritus, Idylls, 15, 92

Κορίνθιαι εἰμὲς ἄνωθεν,
ὡς καὶ ὁ Βελλεροφῶν· Πελοποννασιστὶ λαλεῦμες·
δωρίσδεν δ᾽ ἐξεστι, δοκῶ, τοῖς Δωριέεσσι.

Which i translate as
"We are Corinthian women by extraction. What we talk is Peloponnesian. I suppose Dorians may speak Doric, mayn't they?"

So, Corinthian into our eyes is Dorian, but the Corinthians consider their dialect as Peloponnesian, not Dorian.

Further, the term Orthographia (spelling) appears as a problem in the second century BC. That's because, Koine is a standard and people do not write as they speak.

Look at the text above. A Koine writter or an Attic speaker would not write Πελοποννασιστὶ nor Δωριέεσσι. The Corinthian Dorieessi, which is correct in a matter of dialect, would be Doristi in standard Greek. Later, Corinthians write Doristi, but probably read or spoke it Dorieessi. Writting Doriessi in Koine or Dorissi etc would be a spelling mistake.

That is pretty much what happens with the Macedonians. They apparently wrote mostly in Koine text, but they did not read it loud like an Attic speaker, but as in Macedonian speech. Taking into consireration some short Macedonian texts (that do not help much into the language part), before Koine, they use archaic letters such as coppa, hapax etc which means that their litteracy (at whatever extend) started as early as the rest of Greece.

The modern example of this would be Helladic Greek and Cypriot Greek. Completely different dialect, different phonology, different voice stops but same writting. Cypriot can be intelligeble for Greeks of Greece, unless Cypriots choose to speak it in a "lighter form".

So far, other forms of native Macedonian writting except from short fragments, the Pella curse tablet, the arethousa tablet and the mixed language of the Derveni papyri has not been attested. Contrary, all the people that got through Hellenization with the help of Greeks, have produced billingual documents.

Who do we consider as Macedonians?

Depending on the time speaking, Macedonians can eather be the starting tribe or generally the citizens of the Macedonian Kindom. In the same way, Athenians during the classical age have been found to be even Epirotes that were given Athenian citizenship.

When speaking about the Macedonian homeland, we speak about upper Macedonia, which is strictly the south mountainous part of the whole region. When speaking of the Kindom of the 5th and 4th century, the area incorporates the original Phrygian homeland and some parts of the Thracian borders. Within such a Kindom, we undoubtly discover a Thracian minority (always based on personal names and reports) and there are probably Phrygian leftovers along with some Carians who inhabited the Athos penisula (coinage, wares and carian epigraphical evidence supports this).  So, you have the native Macedonians as a core and alien Macedonian citizens (Metikoi as they're reffered to), who are after generations Macedonians as well.

Amongst these citizens, there are other Greeks as well. The Bottians, one of the largest known minorities are early minoan invaders that could have predated the Macedonians. The Chalkideans, who became dominant in Chalkidiki and took over the Bottian supremacy in the late archaic years. The Corinthians, with their coastal colonies which were later annexed and who were few, but enough to rule the Lynchestian Kindom though the Bacchiadae. Last but not least, the Argeadae, who seems to be the core of the Macedonian aristocracy and religion (reffering to Olympias letter to Alexander about the Bacchic and Argeadic rites).

So, the Macedonians of the bronze age are not exactly the same like those of the classical age.


When did the bronze age Macedonians appear?


If we bypass Herodotus story of the migrating Thessalians of Phthia, in the 15th-14th century BC, Mycenaean settlements are spreaded thoughout upper Macedonia (geographically southern mountainous Macedonia).

However, going back to the cultures of the late 3rd and early 2nd millenium BC, that gave birth to the first Greek and Phrygian speakers (probably others as well) we might logically assume that not all of them spreaded southwards. The first Greek speaking people moved from the north to the south, spreading their language that was later divided to the four main dialectical groups as we treat them. Some of those primitive speakers, might have stuck in the north, which might explain the primitive lifestyle of the archaic and classical age Macedonians and why for example they used words like the Linear B attested "Kynagidas" instead of the Attic/Doric/Aeolic form of Kynigos/Kynagos. Add the idea that those early inhabitants might have been swinging between proto-Greek and palaeo-Phrygian, resulting a colourfull Macedonian speech.


Conclusion

Macedonians, went through what everybody else did, eather in a different timeframe, eather in a silent and unnoticed manner, eather in an unusual for the rest of the greeks way. When speaking of Panhellenion and the rest of the unions/events etc, we cannot put that stammering group outside a Greek sphere.




I hope my input was helpful, balanced and straight forward.








-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: akritas
Date Posted: 12-Jan-2009 at 22:59

Chilbudios dont misrepresented my writings. I didnt mention "archaic period".  I wrote ....

 

Jonathan Hall proceeds to a penetrating analysis of the shifting definitions of Hellenicity in Herodotus, Thucydides and Isocrates, our main sources for the evolution of the concept in the Classical period.

 

Do you want to repeat it?

 

As about the epigraphical discoveries -mentioned in the notes at the first post - have greatly reduced the importance of glosses and have rendered redundant much of the relevant discussion.

 
In parti­cular, dreptos is a ghost (Anna Panayotou, “linguistic observations in Macedonian epigraphs”, Ancient Macedonia IV, Thessalonike 1986, 417).
Strabo 7.7.8  does not say that Macedonians, Epirotes and Illyrians shared some dialectal commonalities.

 

In fact he says two different things:

1) that some extend the term Macedonia to the whole country (west of Upper Macedonia) as far as Corcyra, because the inhabitants of this area (to wit the Epirotes opposite Corcyra and not the Illyrians, who lived farther north, beyond the Ceraunian mountains), use similar hairstyles, dress and dialect (R. Baladié, Strabon, Géographie. Livre VII, Paris 1989, 228, n. 4 ad locum)

2) some of the Epirotes inhabiting this area are bilingual (presumably they spoke Greek as well as Illyrian).

 

Judging from dedicatory inscriptions, the most popular gods of the Macedonians were Zeus, Herakles, Asklepios, Dionysos and a feminine deity variously appearing as Demeter, the Mother of the Gods, Artemis, Pasikrata, Ennodia etc. Catherine Trümpy’s excellent monograph, Untersuchungen zu den altgriechischen Monatsnamen und Monatsfolgen (Heidelberg 1997) 262-65, has made obsolete previous discussions of the Macedonian calendar.  For the months Peritios, Dystros and Hyperberetaios in particular (Hatzopoulos, “Macédonien” 237-39, “Epigraphie” 1202-1204.

Klodones and Mimallones have nothing to do with Thrace(M. Hatzopoulos, Cultes et rites de passage en Macédoine Μeletimata 19, Athens 1994 73-85. )
 
A piece of epigrpahical evidence( Hatzopoulos, Institutions, Volume  I , 472-86) which until very recently had gone unnoticed is the actual presence of Macedonians and Epirotes in the Pan-Hellenic sanctuaries, which is first attested in the Archaic period, but increases dramatically in the second half of the fourth century. Alexander I was neither the first nor the only Macedonian active at a Pan-Hellenic sanctuary in the fifth century. He had been preceded at Delphi by Macedonians from Pieria, and both his fifth century successors Perdikkas II and Archelaos participated in Pan-Hellenic festivals at Olympia, Delphi or Argos.

 



-------------


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 12-Jan-2009 at 23:20
While mentioning, Pasikrata, it is a name and a combined-word strickly used by Macedonians and Magnetes (Thessalians). However, it appears twice in Epeiros.

The name itself means "She who holds everything", "she who has everything" (πάσα κρατεί).

Such observations are rarely seen in analyses of lingual issues, as well as words strickly shared between Aetolia, Phokis, Locris and Macedonia. Not much food on the language, but  such words reveal the geographical distribution of certain phenomenas.


-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 12-Jan-2009 at 23:26
Originally posted by Akritas


2) some of the Epirotes inhabiting this area are bilingual (presumably they spoke Greek as well as Illyrian).


The context of billingualism is not mentioned. He says "diglottoi" which could apply to 2 languages (Greek-Illyrian, Greek-Phrygian, Greek-?) or 2 dialects (Macedonian-Aeolian, Macedonian-W. Doric).




-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 13-Jan-2009 at 00:10
Akritas, I argued against other parts of your initial post, while apparently relying mainly on Hall's ideas diverge considerably in the conclusions being drawn (e.g. "Macedonians were Greeks by criteria of [...] language" vs "Language and dialect [...] cannot be regarded as criteria of ethnicity").
 
Flipper, we know that some Illyrians or Pontic Scythians were Hellenized, we have no text in their language (but isolated glosses and names), we know little to nothing about their gods, all the epigraphic texts in regions with Greek-Illyrian or Greek-Scythian population were only in Greek, however we do not draw the conclusion that Illyrians were Greeks, that Scythians were Greeks, or even that the sole languages spoken in those regions were  dialects of Greek (we have no evidence but a mere assumption that the language/dialect of say, Pella tablet, is the same with that language/dialect about which the ancient authors said its speakers pronounce b, d, g instead of ph, th, kh; as such Brixhe and Panayotou consider the latter to be a substratum relic from another language/tribe which only ocassionally manifested into Macedonian). Moreover the dialects of Greek could be even practically mutually unintelligible to each other (Hall even compares them with the modern Italian dialects), as some of the ancient authors testify.
I agree with you that the Macedonians from Homeric age (whoever they were) were not the Macedonians of the Classical age, but the thorny problem is that we have too little evidence to know who the former were, we can't rely solely on the Classical age myths (e.g. Macedonians as Dorians), in other words we can't assume the Doric features we identify in 5-4th century Macedonian inscriptions are remnants of 2nd millenium BC Dorian invasion, unless we can prove the latter independently of Classical sources. And Dorian invasion as a historical event is challenged by several scholars: Borza or Hall are recent and well-known.
 
In short: I have no problem to accept that Alexander the Great's Macedonians were Hellenes or perhaps Hellenizing (if the process was not complete), but I see no good reason to consider Macedonia of Hellenic identiy or even solely Greek speaking from times immemorial.


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 17-Jan-2009 at 11:07
Chilbudios, I know that you apply healthy skepticism and the following is not pointed at you.

I believe that some scholars like Borza you mentioned do not keep a balance in their skepticism. I mean, sometimes, especially Borza does it for the sake of it. His dorian invasion things is a joke. The same goes for Philips tomb. I wish Taphoi, with whom i had a discussion about it, was a more regular poster here, in order to explain that issue in detail.

Now, what i mean with balanced skepticism is that some scholars, take the "what if" so far that they make it sound as probable as what they're skeptic about. That goes beyond skepticism. They don't even present it as a propability in many cases or they avoid to analyze both schools of though equaly.

For example the Hellenized Scythians and Illyrians. It is not a fair comparison to Macedon. The inscriptions found are all in the Greek colonies. The local Scythians and Illyrians of those small (compared to Macedon) areas were ofcourse billingual. We don't even know though if the inscriptions (honouring some Scythians or favouring a roman leader for his win over scythians) were written by Scythians themselves. Maybe the unmixed scythian population was illiterate. Any inscriptions in those areas are a product of Greek presence and their number is small compared to the massive macedonian corpus.

Moreover Scythians and Illyrians were not producing Greek culture in any form. They did not have the Macedonian equivalents of philosophers (I'm excluding Aristotle who I don't count as Macedonian), artizans etc. They were not accepted like Macedonians within the Greek world (Panhellenion, Olympics). Generally they're not even close to any comparison to Macedon and that's where it doesn't get fair.

Ofcourse, as we discussed both here and from our private discussions, Macedon incorporated people of certain origin as well, such as Thracians.  Basically, in many cases you know from an inscription when a person is Thracian. The question is if those Thracians were seen as Macedonians by the locals (and i'm not refering to the case of Kalindia) or if they were seen like "metikoi" (alien immigrants). In the case below, Kointos of Kointos and Artemidora "the barbarian" is obviously a Thracian living in Serrae the 2nd to 3nd century AD. Obviously the word "barbarian" was in use by Macedonians as well and in this case it is dirrected to a person of Thracian descend.

http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=150696&bookid=126&region=4&subregion=11 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=150696&bookid=126&region=4&subregion=11

Ofcourse, that does not mean that Macedonians could not be something else seing Thracians as barbarians. The example above is not a proof of Hellenic Macedonians but rather an example that the term "barbaros" was in use in Macedonia as well.


Now, comparing again the Scythian-Illyrian examples with Macedon. When i go to remote areas like ancient Apidaea and find tons of inscriptions. This does not indicate simply Hellenization from an external source but rather a massive Greek presence spreaded all over the 4 sub Kindoms. No matter the school of though everyone sticks to, the Greek presence was spread in all the Kindoms since very early times. No matter the original Macedonian origin of the bronze age, there must have been an inside greek body that caused the cultural flourising of the archaic-classical age. The proto/mello-Greek invaders can't have all left the north to settle in the south. Some must have stuck in the north. I don't think we can speak of Hellenization from an external source in upper Macedonia, because it's way back in time. That's where Borza basically fails i believe. He never answers when and how a hellenization occured, while an explanation of "inside Hellenization" is most probable if one wants to favour that view.

As for your last quote, i understand your view and as i mentioned many times there must have been Thracian speaking populations and people swinging between Greek and Phrygian in Macedonia. Maybe those are the "diglottoi" Thucydides refers to. The question is if those "diglottoi" whether they are bilingual or bidialectal people were considered as Macedonians by the natives or not. We can't know the Macedonian view of who is macedonian in that time. I don't think for example that the Macedones, viewed the people of Chalkidike as Macedonians. However, the rest of the Greeks maybe generalized them as such and maybe the Chalkidians were feeling more Macedonians rather than Euboans, Corinthians, Thracians, Cretans etc. The same could apply for the Epirotes of the Pindus borders.

Btw, we do know some things about the gods and their names of the people mentioned above.





-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 17-Jan-2009 at 17:53


Let's not underestimate the Greek colonies. I am not so sure about the Illyrian territory, but at least the Pontic Greek colonies produced a large number of inscriptions. In Olbia alone centuries of Greek presence are attested by hundreds of inscriptions ( http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/gis?region=6 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/gis?region=6 - browse the collections I.Olbia or IGDOlbia ) and that's true for several other cities along the Black Sea coast having a barbarian hinterland and arguably significant barbarian presence in cities (Ovid's poems are particularly illustrative in this regard, and the hundreds of Greek inscriptions found in Tomis and its surroundings are largely mute about the Getic and/or Scythian languages spoken in this city: http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/gis?region=5 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/gis?region=5 - IScM II volume holds alone more than 400 inscriptions). Not only epigraphy is hiding the languages the various natives spoke, but also, in general, the archaeology fails to make the difference. For instance, in Classical Olbia and the Scythian World (Proceedings of the British Academy, 2007), Kryzhitskiy concludes there's no way we can safely estimate the barbarian presence in this city, and he discusses pottery (p. 19), weapons in male burials (p. 20), female burials (p. 20), prosopography (p. 21). And since I mentioned prosopography, this shows the Greek culture irradiated outside these cities, for instance we even have barbarians kings wearing arguably Greek names (e.g. Dromichaites, his kingdom probably was located in north-eastern Bulgaria; for the Greekness of his name see Eusthatius' comments on the Homeric poems, attesting the word 'dromichaites', using it in syntagms like 'dromichaites hippos' and paralleling it with adjectives like 'kyanochaites' or 'glaukochaites'). However, the significant influence of Greek culture is to be found also in locations remote from the coastal Greek colonies (e.g. the Celtic and Dacian oppida on Middle Danube contain also imported Greek pottery, inscribed Greek letters on walls - probably suggesting some Greek-speaking builders, coin imitations after Greek tetradrachms). And all these in contrast with a virtual absence of the native languages of these people in written forms (save for some isolated inscriptions, some of them controversial, however large areas did not produce a single inscription in a native language).
As for participating in Olympics or other such arguments, we do not know if a Greek-named, Greek-speaking inhabitant of a remote Greek city was Greek for 2 or 20 generations. 

On the other hand, the Macedonian inscriptions are mostly from the Classical period and later. Macedonia was largely outside the Mycenean civilization and few isolated discoveries cannot be convincing. In Christidis' A History of the Ancient Greek (2007) there's a map showing the Mycenean world and its trade and material cultural connections (p. 214-215) and Macedonia lies largely outside it (the northern extent of "Mycenean sphere of influence" is bordered on this map by Haliakmon river). The assumption that Macedonia had a large or even majoritarian Greek speaking population at this time doesn't seem supported by evidence (or if there is any, I don't know of it). Of course, being outside Mycenean world it doesn't mean it there were no Greek speakers at all.

As for the Dorian invasion, I don't know of any evidence except for a late literary tradition. I won't repeat Borza's arguments, because I'm sure you're familiar with them, I'll turn on Johnathan Hall's. For instance, in Hellenicity: Between Ethnicity and Culture (2002), in the section "Dorian invasion: Fact or Fiction?" (p. 73-82), after enumerating some claims and arguments brought by scholars from 19-20th centuries for this invasion, Hall proceeds to cast some doubts:
- the so-called "Doric" institutional (e.g. Pindar's tethmoi, Thucydides' nomima Dorika) and religious (e.g. the cult of Apollo Karneois) features are not present in all Dorian cities (p. 77)
- John Chadwick's identification of one of the dialects of Linear B as proto-Doric places Dorians in central Greece, Peloponnese and Crete before their alleged invasion (p. 78)
- Antonio Lopez Eire and Maria Pilar Fernandez Alvarez showed independently that all the common innovatory features of the West Greek dialect group are to be found in at least one non-West Greek dialect, which suggests there's no single linguistic ancestor for these (as hypothesised by the proponents of the Dorian invasion theory)
- Several archaeologists (Desborough, Snodgrass et al) showed that the emergence of various allegedly Dorian archaeological markers (like violin-bow filbulae, cist graves, etc) and the destructions of the Mycenean palaces are not contemporary. Snodgrass described it as a "invasion without invaders" and James Hooker concluded "We may therefore boldly postulate that there never was a 'Dorian invasion' in the sense that speakers of Doric forcibly entered some of those areas of Greece previously occuped by Mycenaeans" (p. 78-79)
- in the end of this section Hall proceeds to show the non-unitary aspects of the Dorian invasion legends. While refraining to deny population movements towards the south, he points out that the evidence is elusive, that the composite nature of the tradition contradicts the notion of a one-time massive influx of Dorians, that even if such traditions come from an earlier period they do not allow us to invest them with historical authenticity and that whatever the Dorian migration literary accounts meant, it was not to replicate faithfully a past historical event (p. 79-82)

Moreover, even some Greek scholars doubt or at least manifest reservations towards this hypothesised invasion. From Christidis' A History of the Ancient Greek:
- S. Andreou about the fall of Mycenean world: "A variety of hypotheses have been formulated at different times as causes for the collapse: climatic changes, incursions from a variety of directions, internal disturbances or economical and social reasons steered by the collapse of Mediterranean exchange networks. No hypothesis has yet met with general acceptance" (p. 219)
- L. Vokotopoulos about the link of the 12th century catastrophes with movements of peoples "The chances of confirming such phenomena are limited or uncertain, since the geographical limits of the cultural entities that may be identified in the archaeological record do not necessarily correspond to the distribution of the later dialects." (p. 263) and "A major problem is the location of Dorians, i.e. the group that tradition claims it was responsible for the destruction, although it must be said that their supposedly simple material culture would not be easy to identify in the archaeological evidence. Features of Balkan or Italic origin, such as the so-called "barbarian" pottery, do not appear in numbers great enough to attest the presence of relevant compact groups. Besides, they appear well before the catastrophes." (p. 263-64).
- M. Karali about the ancient Greek dialects: "... it would be dangerous to attempt to impose our linguistic map of the first millenium on to the facts of the second millenium. The desire to draw the linguistic portrait of the second millenium has led to the formulation of numerous theories, several of which are associated with historical assumptions concerning the movements of the various Greek tribes and groups. For the time being, however, the available linguistic evidence is not sufficient to reconstruct the linguistic map of the early periods, far less to draw conclusions about the population movements at that time." (p. 394)
 
For fairness, I should also note that in the same book J. Mendez Dosuna argues against Chadwick's theory and claims that "A Dorian invasion from the north-western Greece remains the only convincing explantion for the historical data" (p. 445). However my point was only to show that Dorian invasion has a more considerable opposition than Borza's and many scholars (also Greek ones) are skeptical in taking a decissive stance. As such, I believe the claim that the inhabitants of ancient Macedonia were Greeks in the 2nd millenium BC (or earlier) remains far from being proven.


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 28-Jan-2009 at 18:20
Originally posted by Chilbudios

Let's not underestimate the Greek colonies.


Nobody underestimates them. In the case of Scythia & Black Sea coast, the comparison is still unfair:

a) The inscriptions are still in the Greek centres radius
b) The amount is not limited at all, but still not comparable (many of those inscriptions are in Latin)
c) the geographic distribution of material culture is not as vast and do not cover equal periods as Emathia, Pieria and the Pindus chain.
d) Kyanochaites, Dromichaites etc sound more as "nicknames" rather than real names of larger geographic distribution. In Greece proper the name is mentioned once http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=4191&bookid=5&region=1&subregion=71 - here in a list containing many a number of non Greeks.
e) There're no accounts of connecting Scythians/Dacians/Thracians with Greeks. However, there are acounts of half-Greek - half-Scythian people who speak 2 languages (Herodotus, Melpomene) and have Greek customes: "For the fact is that the Geloni were anciently Greeks, who, being driven out of the factories along the coast, fled to the Budini and took up their abode with them. They still speak a language half Greek, half Scythian". The modern equivalent of those people would be the Marianoupolitan Greek speakers of Ukraine.

and more points can be mentioned...


As for participating in Olympics or other such arguments, we do not know if a Greek-named, Greek-speaking inhabitant of a remote Greek city was Greek for 2 or 20 generations.


2 or 20, i'm half Greek and still qualify as a Greek today. Demosthenes was half Scythian but was the leader of the Athenians. The question is if a person labeled "Scythian" ever participated or even worse, being elected in national councils.


On the other hand, the Macedonian inscriptions are mostly from the Classical period and later. Macedonia was largely outside the Mycenean civilization and few isolated discoveries cannot be convincing.


a) Mostly yes...But Macedonians write their personal names already in the late 7th and early 6th century BC. Moreover, allow me to use Borzas logic and say that there must have been ealier inscriptions we're not aware of. The usage of ϝ and ϟ shows, that Macedonians adopted the Greek alphabet in a very early stage and while other Greek might still been illiterate or using an older writting system.

b) For the areas I've been speaking about (Pieria, Emathia, Pindus) there are many Mycenaean settlements, including the city of Aiani, cementaries and other smaller centers. There are currently loads of new bibliography about Mycenaean precense in Macedonia and Northern Thessaly.



I have mentioned it before, numerous of times, but there a Historian from FYROM called Dragi Mitrevski, believes Mycenaeans reached even the Vardar Valley. I don't really believe that, but that's how far some have taken it.

Also, in Aiani a Linear B inscription was found ( http://hellas.teipir.gr/prefectures/english/Kozanis/Aiani.htm - http://hellas.teipir.gr/prefectures/english/Kozanis/Aiani.htm ).



In Macedonian, you have also attested many times the word "Kynagidas" which means hunter and is an epithet of Herakles. That word has no equivalent in other dialects since it is only attested as Kynigos in Attic and Kynagos in Doric. The only match is the Linear B attested ku-na-ke-ta.

Now, the Greek speaking people of the bronse age certainly inhabited eastern Pindus and Pieria. So, your question should be if those people were the original Makedones or not. I guess, there's no answer to that, for the reasons we mentioned earlier in this thread.




As for the Dorian invasion, that belongs rather to a thread named "Was there a Dorian invasion?" instead of this one. I was not questioning the issue and how many support that, but rather Borzas arguments. He could choose better than the ones he picked.

Even Karamitrou - Mentesidi is skeptical about the "Dorian Invasion"

"Hence, the Aiani’s finds provide one more argument against the old (in any case untenable) theory of a massive Dorian invasion at the end of the second millennium"

However, the question is if Borza uses that to apply skepticism or not? In that case, a dorian invasion is inrelated with what people in the north were doing. Karamitrou - Mentesidi, might not favor such an invasion but she groups the people of Pieria and Pindus with some proto-Doric or akin to Doric people.

In any case such a theory of an absence has many question marks left unanswered. Historians treat it differently. Some speak of invasion, others of colonization, others of a longer process unrelated to the fall of the Mycenaean era. So it is a matter of definition.




-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Andrew-MK
Date Posted: 28-Jan-2009 at 22:08
http://www.historyofmacedonia.org/AncientMacedonia/gandeto.html

-------------


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 28-Jan-2009 at 22:11
Originally posted by Andrew-MK

http://www.historyofmacedonia.org/AncientMacedonia/gandeto.html



Sure...Gandeto is as reliable as Greek Liakopoulos. LOL


-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Andrew-MK
Date Posted: 28-Jan-2009 at 23:03
Wink


-------------


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 29-Jan-2009 at 00:03
You didn't get my point...

What i ment is that you'd better checking out academic works and express your understanding with your own words, instead of quoting websites of questionable objectivity.

What i have been talking here, in my last posts is summarized by a forgotten book published in the city you live in.

Živa Antika: Univerzitet vo Skopje Filozofski fakultet. Seminar na klasična filologija. Društvo za antički studii na SRM, 1993.








PS: Liakopoulos is not a reliable academic. So the equation with Gandetto was not a compliment for him. I'd group them together easily.


-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 29-Jan-2009 at 15:04
Originally posted by Flipper

Nobody underestimates them. In the case of Scythia & Black Sea coast, the comparison is still unfair:

a) The inscriptions are still in the Greek centres radius
b) The amount is not limited at all, but still not comparable (many of those inscriptions are in Latin)
c) the geographic distribution of material culture is not as vast and do not cover equal periods as Emathia, Pieria and the Pindus chain.
d) Kyanochaites, Dromichaites etc sound more as "nicknames" rather than real names of larger geographic distribution. In Greece proper the name is mentioned once http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=4191&bookid=5&region=1&subregion=71 - here in a list containing many a number of non Greeks.
e) There're no accounts of connecting Scythians/Dacians/Thracians with Greeks. However, there are acounts of half-Greek - half-Scythian people who speak 2 languages (Herodotus, Melpomene) and have Greek customes: "For the fact is that the Geloni were anciently Greeks, who, being driven out of the factories along the coast, fled to the Budini and took up their abode with them. They still speak a language half Greek, half Scythian". The modern equivalent of those people would be the Marianoupolitan Greek speakers of Ukraine.

and more points can be mentioned...
But you still do ...
a) The inscriptions are not only in the Greek center radius. a1) We know from accounts like Ovid's that barbarians were walking the streets of these Greek cities, we even know that barbarian languages were spoken there on daily basis considering Ovid could learn such a language and write poems in it, and yet none of the inscriptions found in these cities is written in one of these barbarian languages a2) the inscriptions were found not only in the urban center, but also in the hinterland, in villages, temples, fortifications, etc. It was a Greek linguistic and cultural space (if you want an analogy is this forum today as an English linguistic space)
b) I believe the amount is comparable. We can count the inscriptions city by city if you want (I already provided links to some collections, I can bring even more details). Many important remote Greek colonies produced more inscriptions than settlements in the mainland (and that is true also for Macedonia). Most inscriptions in these cities are in Greek, from the "Latin inscriptions" many are actually bilingual Greek-Latin inscriptions, but most important, for the period in question (Ancient Macedon) all the inscriptions were in Greek.
c) The geographical distribution is also vast and cover long periods. Many north and western Pontic Greek colonies had a life of ~1 millenium (roughly from 7-6th century BC until the early Byzantine times, though some of them survived or were re-populated in the Middle Ages) and they had vast hinterlands, some of them comparable or even larger than the Macedonian regions you mentioned.
d) And Demosthenes was perhaps also a nickname. Why would a barbarian have a Greek nick-name if he couldn't speak Greek? A nick-name assumes that the also the one having it also the ones surrounding him and calling him as such understand what that nick-name means. Moreover, we know that Dromichaites married Lysimachos' daughter. Having a Greek nick-name and marrying a Greek woman, I say he spoke also Greek (besides his own language and whatever others). And yet he lived in his own non-Greek city, king of a barbarian kingdom. Now if even the barbarians could have Greek names and speak Greek, how would you make the difference between a genuine Greek and a Hellenizing barbarian?
e) Not really. If by accounts you mean genealogical legends (like the descedency from Hellen), then yes, you're right. But otherwise you're not. The Greek mythology has Thracian heroes and kings (Diomedes) and gods (Orpheus). Thrace (as Macedonia) became a Greek region and province (see Thraki today). The other regions (Scythia,  southern Italy, etc.) were too far away, I guess. The connection is even stronger than that, as many of these barbarians eventually became Greeks. Let me give you an example. In Peiraieus (Attica) there was an important community of Thracians. In the festivals of Bendis, there were two distinct processions: of Athenians and of Thracians. However after some centuries this Thracian community disappeared and instead remained mostly Greeks (as it is the case also today).
Question with multiple choices to answer, what happened with those Thracians:
- they were exterminated by their xenophobic Greek neighbours
- epidemies decimated the non-Greeks from the city
- they decided to run away and spread all over
- they were culturally and linguistically assimilated and they became Greeks
 
The northern Pontic coast gives virtually only Greek epigraphy. Whatever Scythian or half-Greek/half-Scythian people lived there, in inscriptions they wrote only Greek.
 
2 or 20, i'm half Greek and still qualify as a Greek today. Demosthenes was half Scythian but was the leader of the Athenians. The question is if a person labeled "Scythian" ever participated or even worse, being elected in national councils.
 If the Macedonians from the Classical age were Greeks only for 2 generations (and not for 20), then obviously they weren't Greeks in the Homeric age or whatever immemorial times. Like Thracians and many other barbarians they could have been also Hellenized.
 
Mostly yes...But Macedonians write their personal names already in the late 7th and early 6th century BC. Moreover, allow me to use Borzas logic and say that there must have been ealier inscriptions we're not aware of. The usage of ϝ and ϟ shows, that Macedonians adopted the Greek alphabet in a very early stage and while other Greek might still been illiterate or using an older writting system.
The Greek colonies with arguably mixed barbarian-Greek population have Greek names and epigraphy since 7-6th centuries BC, as well.
As for those characters, it depends, as it was not only one Greek alphabet. It depends what they represent (some letters, digamma included, had also numerical values), in what language/dialect the inscription is written (some Greek dialects like Attic or Ionic lost the 'w' sound, but some didn't). One thing these inscriptions will never prove is that the language of the inscriptions was the only language spoken there.
 
For the areas I've been speaking about (Pieria, Emathia, Pindus) there are many Mycenaean settlements, including the city of Aiani, cementaries and other smaller centers. There are currently loads of new bibliography about Mycenaean precense in Macedonia and Northern Thessaly.
This so-called "presence in Macedonia" is actually a small corner of it (south-western), along the Haliakmon river (Pieria, Elimeia, etc.). Most of Macedonia (including Pella, but also Mygdonia, Bisaltia, Chalkidike, Bottike, etc.) was not Mycenaean.
Moreover many non-Greek/Thracian tribes are mentioned in these areas (Mygdones, Edoni, Bryges/Brygoi?, etc.). Your map shows settlements by chronology, it does not give any cultural identification. Do you have any kind of evidence the inhabitants of those "stars" and "squares" were Greeks? Here's that map I talked about in my previous post (the book is published in 2007, edited by a Greek scholar, the map comes from a chapter authored by a Greek scholar). As you can see Macedonia is mostly outside the Mycenean civilization:
 
 
 
 
On Macedonian language and Greekness, here's a small article/essay from livius.org:
http://www.livius.org/maa-mam/macedonia/macedonia.html - http://www.livius.org/maa-mam/macedonia/macedonia.html
 
 


Posted By: akritas
Date Posted: 30-Jan-2009 at 09:35

Originally posted by Chilbudios

 On Macedonian language and Greekness, here's a small article/essay from livius.org:

http://www.livius.org/maa-mam/macedonia/macedonia.html -  

This article has many clashes such as

 

....It is also certain that the Macedonian language became increasingly hellenized.Evidence for the pronunciation of Macedonian in the second half of the fourth century can be found in the cuneiform texts from http://www.livius.org/ba-bd/babylon/babylon.html - Babylon . If Macedonian was still unaspirated and voiced when Alexander the Great conquered the Persian Empire, the Babylonian scribes would have spelled the name of the king's brother, called http://www.livius.org/phi-php/philip/arridaeus.htm - Philippos in Greek sources, something like Bi-líp+ending. However, the first syllable is always Pi, which also represents a sound like /vi/. This suggests that the Macedonians had began  to aspire their consonants and were losing voice. The name Berenike (the Macedonian equivalent of Greek Pherenike) may also have been pronounced according to the Greek fashion, because it is rendered in Latin as Veronica.

 

The name Philippos(Φίλιππος), and Macedonian names in general in which the first component is φιλ, are written more frequently with φ from the beginn­ing of the written tradition; also, that φ and not β occurs in:

 

άμφοτερός, άρφύς, Βουκεφάλας, φάλαγξ, Φόβος, Φυλακαί and φύλαξ; χ and not γ in: άγχαρμος, διμάχαι, λόχος,-οχος, Πολυπέρχων, Χαρικλής and Χάρων; θ and not δ in ζέρεθρον, Θαΰλος Θούριδες and Πείθων.

 

Those who oppose the view that elements of Macedonian were Greek argue, of course, that the versions with φ, θ, χ, represent Macedonian names transmitted in Greek texts, and also names and words borrowed by the Macedonians from the Greeks. If the evidence of the Greek texts is ex­cluded, on the grounds that it is untrustworthy, then excep­tion cannot be made for those passages which attest to β, δ, γ in place of φ, θ, χ. If these latter are not excluded, and it is thus conceded that the Greek authors rendered the Macedonian pronunciation correctly by writing Βίλιππος etc., then it is illegitimate to assert that the versions with φ, θ, χ are errors. Furthermore, the spelling Φίλιππος is not attested solely in non-Macedonian texts; it also occurs on coins of Philip II, and on Macedonian arrows, and tiles of the same period.

 

It would be curious if the coins issued by the Macedonian state did not accurately reflect the national pronunciation. Let us concede, however, that Philip insisted that his name be written with Φ, since he had established the Attic dialect as the official language of the state: this explanation might account for the phonetic form of the royal name on the coinage, but not also on arrows and tiles. The hypothesis that Macedonian names and words having φ, θ, χ in place of β, δ, γ are borrowed from Greek has properly been countered with the hypothesis that this is unacceptable in the case of words like άρφύς, which is otherwise unknown; άγχαρμον, which had fallen into disuse in the rest of Greece; ζέρεθρον, which was used in the isolated region of Arcadia; χάρων, which in Macedonia was not used to mean 'Charon' but 'lion'.

 

Two conclusions emerge:

1) the pronunciation of the ancient bh, gh, dh as β, γ, δ, was not universal throughout Macedonia, but occurred alongside the pronunciation φ, χ, θ

2) the pronunciation φ, χ, θ appears in some words which could not have been borrowed by the Macedonians from a Greek people. In the light of these conclusions, we must look for some other explanation of the appearance of β, γ, δ in Macedonia.

 

 
 
 


-------------


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 30-Jan-2009 at 12:52
Akritas,
 
Your conclusions are in disagreement with several scholars, not only with that essay. Sticking to the same A History of Ancient Greek (2007), in the chapter about the Macedonian dialect, A. Panayotou says (p. 439), about the Macedonian b, d, g: "most linguists and philologists considered this as an absolutely fundamental feature, which distinguished Macedonian from all the other Greek dialects - including Mycenaean Greek - because it indicated a different evolution of the consonants in the phonological system of Macedonian" and further refutes the view of "other scholars" believing this "difference reflects evolution within Greek" eventually suggesting that "It might be simpler to assume that the names manifesting  this feature are substratum relics of a tribe which lived in the region and was linguistically assimilated". In other words, according to this view, the presence of b, d, g reflects another language which was assimilated by Greek dialects in Macedonia.
 
Several other scholarly views are skeptical about Ancient Macedonian being just another dialect of Greek and are open to different intepretations, according to the evidence. For instance, Brian D. Joseph, focused on Balkan languages, gives the following on Ancient Macedonian:
http://www.ling.ohio-state.edu/~bjoseph/articles/gancient.htm - http://www.ling.ohio-state.edu/~bjoseph/articles/gancient.htm
"There is some dispute as to whether Ancient Macedonian (the native language of Philip and Alexander), if it has any special affinity to Greek at all, is a dialect within Greek (see below) or a sibling language to all of the known Ancient Greek dialects."
"The slender evidence is open to different interpretations, so that no definitive answer is really possible but most likely, Ancient Macedonian was not simply an Ancient Greek dialect on a par with Attic or Aeolic."
 
Now turning to your arguments, we don't have enough evidence to conclude that the allegedly Macedonian words and names with φ, χ, θ were not initially pronounced with β, γ, δ. Also it my be that deaspiration and voicing to have been distinct phenomena and also conditioned by a phonetic context (as many sound changes are). However, the ancient Greek authors (Plutarch and later authors, mostly Byzantine) testify the Macedonians did have this pronounciation. Of course, you may argue that these authors (undoubtely Greek speakers and knowing the Greek pronounciation) lied or exaggerated, of course, it is possible. But your conclusions do not emerge as swiftly as you suggested.
 
If the Macedonian sounds were initially β, γ, δ, then the occurence of Macedonian names and words in Greek texts with φ, χ, θ are by no means errors, but Hellenization, as that article called it, pronounciation "according to the Greek fashion". In some cases they could have borrowed entirely some words, in some other cases they could have borrowed only the pronounciation. Similarly, the presence of Greek words with β, γ, δ instead of φ, χ, θ into Macedonian could be as well loanwords adapted to Macedonian pronounciation.
 
As I have said earlier in the thread, many "barbarian" regions produced written testimonies (of all kinds - seals, tiles, pots, epitaphs, you name it) only in Greek and Latin. Unless most of the ancient Europe was populated only by Greeks and Latins, one must accept that Macedonians writing in Greek does not prove their original, native language was a Greek dialect.


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 30-Jan-2009 at 18:30
Originally posted by Chibuldios


a) The inscriptions are not only in the Greek center radius.


So, will you find them in greater numbers all over Scythia? Do you find them in remote locations? In Macedonia you find one inscription for every rock you turn over, even if that rock is in an isolated location up in the mountains.


Now if even the barbarians could have Greek names and speak Greek, how would you make the difference between a genuine Greek and a Hellenizing barbarian?


From a very quick search: http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=183977&bookid=231&region=6&subregion=0 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=183977&bookid=231&region=6&subregion=0

Ἄρῃ καὶ Ἀφροδίτῃ ἐπὶ Βοράσπω Βάβου ἄρχοντ(ος)

Boraspo is not a Greek name.
Babos/-as = someone who speak inarticuly (verb babazo, speak confusely), which means this Archon called Boraspo is a such speaker or simply a foreign leader.

http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=183986&bookid=231&region=6&subregion=0 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=183986&bookid=231&region=6&subregion=0

Ῥησκουπόριδι is not a greek name and is a King of the Sauromatae.

Χοφράζ̣μου Φορ̣γ̣αβ̣ά̣κο̣υ̣ is definetely not a Greek name, but after Βασιλείδης Θεον̣είκου is mentioned as hellenarchon (leader of the greeks).

I think it is still pretty easy to determine a Scythian from a Greek. A Hellenized Scythian maybe not ofcourse, but in any case, you can see that Greeks do stick out whenever opposed to Scythians.








Not really. If by accounts you mean genealogical legends (like the descedency from Hellen


No I mean, historical accounts like Herodotus and Strabo. Strabo never said "Εστίν ουν Ελλάς η Σκυθία" (Scythia is a part of Hellas) which he did for Macedonia, nor did Herodotus assure us that the Scythians were of Greek descend. He does say that though for the Gileki, but mentions they are half Scythians and talk a mixed language.



 If the Macedonians from the Classical age were Greeks only for 2 generations (and not for 20), then obviously they weren't Greeks in the Homeric age or whatever immemorial times. Like Thracians and many other barbarians they could have been also Hellenized.


I was speaking about my self there Smile and what is considered now. I dunno if I would qualify as Greek back then.

Ofcourse they could have been Hellenized and that's the other end of the whole debate. However, I have the following to comments on that.

There was no such thing as a Greek race from the beginning and the term "proto-Greek" should correctly apply to the language, not the people. The people are mello-Greeks (people that will share common language, culture and religion in the future) is we want to be correct. Those people was a result of a clash of cultures that met at sometime between 3200 and 2000 BC (let others decide those dates) in the Balkans.

Now, the question is when can we speak of Hellenization? Is this Hellenization?

ἦσαν οἱ Πελασγοὶ βάρβαρον γλῶσσαν ἱέντες. εἰ τοίνυν ἦν καὶ πᾶν τοιοῦτο τὸ Πελασγικόν, τὸ Ἀττικὸν ἔθνος ἐὸν Πελασγικὸν ἅμα τῇ μεταβολῇ τῇ ἐς Ἕλληνας καὶ τὴν γλῶσσαν μετέμαθε


the Pelasgians used to speak a Barbarian language. If therefore all the Pelasgian race was such as these, then the Attic race, being Pelasgian, at the same time when it changed and became Hellenic, unlearnt also its language.

We know Pelasgians are autochthonus people, from which Ionians like Athenians descended from. Were the Athenians Hellenized people, considering that they were probably some of the earliest Greek speakers?

Let's say they were litterarly Hellenized...By whom? The descendands of Hellen who lived in Thessaly? Are the Thessalians the first Greeks? Pelasgia (Land of the Pelasgians) if you look at the map, is exactly (Thessalian Phthiotis) at the area where Hellen grew up and they are a part of the Thessalian race (SEG 34:558).

Let's assume yes...So, the first Greeks were formed in Thessaly. Surely, what ever cause that development did not simply land from space right? I guess Dimini Cultures were living there and some Bubanj-Hum culture invaders entered the area. Obviously, the BBH people came from North as the material culture suggests.

Since, BBH are the people responsible for the creation of the Greco-Phrygian group and we know that they lived in the area of northern Macedonia, it is highly unlikely, that the simply emptied the whole area. Those who arrived in Thessaly, must have been speakers of some proto-Greek language, which took complete form when they met the natives(anatolian? i'm thinking of Renfrews theory) of Thessaly.

I hope you get my point. If we speak of Hellenization, can we go as far as unlimited back in time? The Macedonians Hellenized more people than any other Greek group. Did other hellenized people do that?

My point from the begining is that all Greeks at different time periods entered a process of getting a similar speech, similar culture and similar religion. When you speak about 3rd, 2nd etc century BC you speak obviously of Hellenization, since there is enough ground and social forces to cause that to alien to greek culture people. In prehistoric and archaic times, you don't have such forces Hellenizing completely alien populations. You have various people that have some basic substances which makes them in the end Greek, without a systematic approach such as Ionians and foremost Macedonians used.

So, Chibuldios, would Hellenization be a correct word?


As for those characters, it depends, as it was not only one Greek alphabet. It depends what they represent (some letters, digamma included, had also numerical values), in what language/dialect the inscription is written (some Greek dialects like Attic or Ionic lost the 'w' sound, but some didn't). One thing these inscriptions will never prove is that the language of the inscriptions was the only language spoken there.


You are very correct. However, i do not refer to numerical values but of words. Here  is a use of qoppa.

http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/main?url=oi%3Fikey%3D312666%26bookid%3D172%26region%3D4%26subregion%3D11 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/main?url=oi%3Fikey%3D312666%26bookid%3D172%26region%3D4%26subregion%3D11

and here's a word with F.

http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=153303&bookid=172&region=4&subregion=11 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=153303&bookid=172&region=4&subregion=11

The Wa- sound is indeed absent very early in Ionic and it is not present in Aeolic.


This so-called "presence in Macedonia" is actually a small corner of it (south-western), along the Haliakmon river (Pieria, Elimeia, etc.). Most of Macedonia (including Pella, but also Mygdonia, Bisaltia, Chalkidike, Bottike, etc.) was not Mycenaean.


I was not refering to Pella, Mygdonia, Bisaltia, Chalkidike, Bottiki (later, the one in Chalkidike). I was refering to the early homelands of the Macedonians.

Hammond, detects Phrygian burial places in Pella dating from 1200BC, but in the 8th century, over them, graves of Greek fashion replaced them. Pella is originaly not Macedonian homeland.

Chalkidike, received Bottian, Corinthian and Chalkidaen population and later you have the invation of Thracian Sitalkes and the Carian colony of the Athos penisula.

I was refering to historical Pieria (including Kozani Perfecture), that has strong Mycenaean culture and Emathia, after 1200BC.

As for the map...Many of these maps show the centres of the Mycenaean culture, where cities have been formed. In other words, the metropolitan areas.

This map below is labeled as "The most important centers of Mycenaean civilization".






Macedonia is certainly not an Urban territory at that time and does not qualify for a map like this. That does not mean that people bound to the southern metropolies do not inhabit it.

There is bibliography about Mycenaeans in Macedonia and some of it is:

A. Cambitoglou and J. Papadopoulos, "The Earliest Mycenaeans in Macedonia"

E. Kiriatzi, S. Andreou, S. Dimitriadis, and K. Kotsakis, "Co-existing Traditions: Handmade and Wheelmade Pottery in Late Bronze Age Central Macedonia'"

C. Koukouli, "The Late Bronze Age in Eastern Macedonia" L. Stefani, “Angelochori: A Late Bronze Age Settlement in Western Macedonia”

L. Stefani and N. Meroussis, "Incised and Matt-painted Pottery from Late Bronze Age Settlements in Western Macedonia: Technique, Shapes and Decoration,"

K. A. Wardle, "Assiros: A Macedonian Settlement of the Late Bronze Age and Early Iron Age"

G. Karamitrou - Mentesidi - "Boion - Notia Orestes" (This includes detailed maps of all settlements found from 1983 until today)

D. Mitrevski - "The Spreading of Mycenaean culture through the Vardar Valley"



On Macedonian language and Greekness, here's a small article/essay from livius.org:
http://www.livius.org/maa-mam/macedonia/macedonia.html - http://www.livius.org/maa-mam/macedonia/macedonia.html


Chilbudios, do you think i wouldn't be aware of Jona L? Smile Common now...

He sais himself he is no expert on the field. He makes elementary mistakes. I'm pretty sure, you don't agree with a lot of things, the way he presents them. I have sent him an email in the past regarding that artile. I can send it to you in a PM if you're interrested on the points.

Originally posted by Chilbulios


Now turning to your arguments, we don't have enough evidence to conclude that the allegedly Macedonian words and names with φ, χ, θ were not initially pronounced with β, γ, δ. Also it my be that deaspiration and voicing to have been distinct phenomena and also conditioned by a phonetic context (as many sound changes are). However, the ancient Greek authors (Plutarch and later authors, mostly Byzantine) testify the Macedonians did have this pronounciation. Of course, you may argue that these authors (undoubtely Greek speakers and knowing the Greek pronounciation) lied or exaggerated, of course, it is possible. But your conclusions do not emerge as swiftly as you suggested.


Chilbudios, I think the scans below can solve that issue. In the case of Palladarian, my grandmother was a native speaker, so for me, such voice changes are not strange at all. Palladarian is a place belonging to ancient Aeolia, so the similar changes in that dialect could be a remnand of proto-Aeolic. I think it is a matter of awareness of such phenomenas of each author that gives such a conclusion.


Note that B represents latin B and not the Greek V sound in the cases below.





In this case Π becomes B. T Becomaes D. Ψ becomes Bz- which does not exist anywhere else in Greece.





Here is the equivalent to Danos...Θ becomes Delta, just like in Macedonian. So, that sound could be a remnant of some primitive form that survived in Macedonian and Aeolic.





Now, lets move to the Tsakonian (Spartan Doric)

 

B is pronounced as standard Greek, except from certain combinations when it turns to Γ, Δ, Ζ and other rare cases.




Θ turns into S-sound, since as the author says there's a theory supporting it was absent in Laconian speech. However, he dissagrees giving examples that do use it.







Also, a known example of the past where the same Φ to B occurs is the name Koroibos, who was an Elean humble baker that won in the Olympics of 776BC. Koroibos was earlier worshipped at Megara as a founder of one of its hamlets.

So what is Koroibos? It is the early Doric version of Koroiphos before it was southernized. It means "to ride a virgin".



Now have a look at this one...Larissaeans send a letter to Philip V in Aeolic as spoken in that region instead of Koine. If Attic was simply a replacement in Macedonia, then how on earth would the Macedonians understand this text below? Remember, that Aeolians of Lesbos were bullied for their "barbaric" speach of Greek, which was Aeolic. Note also the refered Thessalian names in the end of the text. Βερέκκας instead of Φερεκλής.

http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=148433&bookid=10&region=3&subregion=9 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=148433&bookid=10&region=3&subregion=9





-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 30-Jan-2009 at 18:39
And, btw Chilbudios. Thanks for your valueable input and effort, once more. I enjoy these conversations, since they're above any other discussion one can find in this subject.

-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: athenas owl
Date Posted: 30-Jan-2009 at 19:02
"Now have a look at this one...Larissaeans send a letter to Philip V in Aeolic as spoken in that region instead of Koine. If Attic was simply a replacement in Macedonia, then how on earth would the Macedonians understand this text below? Remember, that Aeolians of Lesbos were bullied for their "barbaric" speach of Greek, which was Aeolic. Note also the refered Thessalian names in the end of the text. Βερέκκας instead of Φερεκλής. 

http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=148433&bookid=10&region=3&subregion=9 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=148433&bookid=10&region=3&subregion=9  "

Translators?   How on earth would the Macedonians have understood the Persians or the Lydians or the Sidonians or the Egyptians?  

How did the earlier Greek critics (in the original sense) understand Psappha or as they called her Sappho?

I am just asking here.


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 30-Jan-2009 at 19:35
Originally posted by athenas owl

"Now have a look at this one...Larissaeans send a letter to Philip V in Aeolic as spoken in that region instead of Koine. If Attic was simply a replacement in Macedonia, then how on earth would the Macedonians understand this text below? Remember, that Aeolians of Lesbos were bullied for their "barbaric" speach of Greek, which was Aeolic. Note also the refered Thessalian names in the end of the text. Βερέκκας instead of Φερεκλής. 

http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=148433&bookid=10&region=3&subregion=9 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=148433&bookid=10&region=3&subregion=9  "

Translators?   How on earth would the Macedonians have understood the Persians or the Lydians or the Sidonians or the Egyptians?  

How did the earlier Greek critics (in the original sense) understand Psappha or as they called her Sappho?

I am just asking here.


In 214BC, you have something called Koine. They could have used that like the rest of the Greeks. Persians, Egyptians etc had no common language with the Macedonians to communicate with. Lydians, probably used Ionian without problems. Using Aeolic is an overkill, unless you think they were like some Germans today who refuse to speak english.

And as you say, how did earlier Greeks understand Sappho? Well, probably they did, when they saw it written. Not so sure, if they would grasp everything if it was spoken. However, giving Aeolic to someone that has adopted Attic, without speaking any form of Greek, would be like giving a Pontian Greek text to a foreigner that has learned Demotic Greek today. Wink

My mother is Swedish and has been speaking Greek for almost 30 years now. She's not a native speaker, but she's damn good. Pontic Greek, Tsakonian, Calabrian in written form are not texts she would understand with the help of her standard Greek. Also, my greek grandmother for example never spoke to her in her native dialect because she would simply not clearly understand. Since, standard Greek exists she used that in the same way Greeks back then used Koine.






-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 30-Jan-2009 at 20:25
Btw, here is how Lydians communicated with Macedonians: http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=263629&bookid=534&region=8&subregion=30

Koine...No Pamphylian Greek nor native Lydian.


-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 30-Jan-2009 at 21:15
Originally posted by Flipper

So, will you find them in greater numbers all over Scythia? Do you find them in remote locations? In Macedonia you find one inscription for every rock you turn over, even if that rock is in an isolated location up in the mountains.
I didn't say all over Scythia, I said the northern and western Pontic coast (and as you can easily find in the Packhum site, there are thousands of them). And you find them in what you call arguably remote locations, in mountains too, e.g. in Haemus (north of Black Sea are mostly steppes, therefore I'm picking an example from the west). Earlier today I was looking at a set of Greek inscriptions from Glava Panega (a mountainous region in north-central Bulgaria, rather remote from the main Greek cities), dating from the early centuries AD. At Glava Panega there was probably an Asklepieion and the spring - as the name hints - was believed to have healing properties. The inscriptions are IGB II 510-586  http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=168563&bookid=186&region=5&subregion=12 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=168563&bookid=186&region=5&subregion=12   .
 
And in Macedonia you don't find "one inscription for every rock you turn over". I visited myself a small part of Macedonia (Drama and surroundings: Philippi, etc.), I stepped on many rocks, probably rolled some as well, but no inscriptions. Maybe the time washed them out Tongue
 
I think it is still pretty easy to determine a Scythian from a Greek. A Hellenized Scythian maybe not ofcourse, but in any case, you can see that Greeks do stick out whenever opposed to Scythians.
Not really. I already mentioned a scholar studying the Olbian archaeological material and inscriptions, scholar who said it is impossible to separate Greeks from Scythians in the epigraphic record. If you can prove that all the allegedly Greek names from the Scythian inscriptions were of Greek people, please do it. Or that all the allegedly non-Greek names were of Scythians (or whatever other barbarians).
 
As for your inscriptions, Rhescuporis was also the name of several Thracian kings. If the Thracians and the Bosporans were sharing sometimes the same anthroponomastic fashion, why would anyone assume the Greeks (especially those from the periphery, in contact with other cultures) were an exception? Moreover, we know that Greek names were exported to "barbarians" (e.g. Andrew), we know that "barbarian" names were imported to Greeks (e.g. Ioannis). I don't see any reason in the ancient times the Greek to practice some sort of "onomastic apartheid". They certainly had their own specificity but that doesn't mean the boundaries weren't blurry.
True, sometimes by the use of statistics one might find out which names are popular in some regions, cultures, languages, religions, etc., but certainly that can't be the case for few isolated names served for exemplification. One problem which was reported for those Olbian names was that the sample of names was too small for finding reliable patterns. Consequently I have strong doubts that one can separate Greeks from Scythians on a glance.
 
No I mean, historical accounts like Herodotus and Strabo. Strabo never said "Εστίν ουν Ελλάς η Σκυθία" (Scythia is a part of Hellas) which he did for Macedonia, nor did Herodotus assure us that the Scythians were of Greek descend. He does say that though for the Gileki, but mentions they are half Scythians and talk a mixed language.
But when Strabo wrote (early 1st century AD) Macedonia was almost entirely Greek speaking. That doesn't prove anything for Homeric or Myceneaen age. Also Herodotus did not claim Macedonia is a part of Hellas (and I already said that I do not count genealogical legends, there's a lot of scholarship - like Jonathan Hall's above - about it)
Sticking to Strabo, as I already pointed out, today Thrace (Thraki) is part of Greece (Hellas). I can find you numerous online materials claiming Thrace is a part of Hellas. This doesn't mean the Thracians were originally some Greek tribe speaking some Greek dialect.
 
I hope you get my point. If we speak of Hellenization, can we go as far as unlimited back in time? The Macedonians Hellenized more people than any other Greek group. Did other hellenized people do that?

My point from the begining is that all Greeks at different time periods entered a process of getting a similar speech, similar culture and similar religion. When you speak about 3rd, 2nd etc century BC you speak obviously of Hellenization, since there is enough ground and social forces to cause that to alien to greek culture people. In prehistoric and archaic times, you don't have such forces Hellenizing completely alien populations. You have various people that have some basic substances which makes them in the end Greek, without a systematic approach such as Ionians and foremost Macedonians used.

So, Chibuldios, would Hellenization be a correct word?
 The evidence we have for Macedonians speaking Greek or being Greek (participating at the Olympics, having Greek gods, etc.) are late, are from the Classical age and later (when we indeed speak of Hellenization, as they call themselves Hellenes). We can't say anything about Macedonians in prehistoric and archaic times.
 
You are very correct. However, i do not refer to numerical values but of words. Here  is a use of qoppa.

http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/main?url=oi%3Fikey%3D312666%26bookid%3D172%26region%3D4%26subregion%3D11 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/main?url=oi%3Fikey%3D312666%26bookid%3D172%26region%3D4%26subregion%3D11

and here's a word with F.

http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=153303&bookid=172&region=4&subregion=11 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=153303&bookid=172&region=4&subregion=11

The Wa- sound is indeed absent very early in Ionic and it is not present in Aeolic.
And is the presence of qoppa and digamma unusual in Greek inscriptions ~500 BC? I don't think so. Or does it prove the Macedonians always spoke a Greek dialect?
 
As far as I know the ancient inhabitants of Sicily weren't originally Greek speaking ( http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=175631&bookid=209&region=13&subregion=82 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=175631&bookid=209&region=13&subregion=82  ). If Greek colonists could bring such characters in Sicily why couldn't they do the same in Macedonia or whereever else?
 
I was not refering to Pella, Mygdonia, Bisaltia, Chalkidike, Bottiki (later, the one in Chalkidike). I was refering to the early homelands of the Macedonians.
If it is not Macedonia, where is this homeland and what are the evidences for it?
 
As for the map...Many of these maps show the centres of the Mycenaean culture, where cities have been formed. In other words, the metropolitan areas.
This map below is labeled as "The most important centers of Mycenaean civilization".
Macedonia is certainly not an Urban territory at that time and does not qualify for a map like this. That does not mean that people bound to the southern metropolies do not inhabit it.
There is bibliography about Mycenaeans in Macedonia
But how one identify the Myceneaens from the Myceneaen culture (which can be also trade, gift-giving, and other cultural contacts with neighbours). I suggested in the case of Greek that not even Greek writing isn't a reliable criterion to locate the ancient Greeks (i.e. having Greek as native language), but in most of these regions, there's not even written evidence (i.e. Linear B) to locate the Greek-speaking Mycenaeans.
If I'm using a Coca Cola bottle am I an American? Then, to address one of the titles from your bibliography, if I'm using an allegedly Myceneaen pot, will that make me a Greek speaker? I say the only safe localization of Greek-speakers (the language being either native or learnt) is with Linear B.
 
Anyway, thank you for the references, I will try to find and read them.
 
Chilbudios, do you think i wouldn't be aware of Jona L? Smile Common now...

He sais himself he is no expert on the field. He makes elementary mistakes. I'm pretty sure, you don't agree with a lot of things, the way he presents them. I have sent him an email in the past regarding that artile. I can send it to you in a PM if you're interrested on the points.
I suggested that essay because the presentation of several controversial aspects (language, ethnicity) is in agreement with what other scholars say.
 
Chilbudios, I think the scans below can solve that issue.
The information is very interesting, but I respectfully disagree. You're presenting dialects and varieties of modern Greek. Some of the sound changes or pronounciations you refer to, were probably caused by centuries of contact with other languages (Slavic, Turkic mainly) or the internal evolutions of Greek dialects (languages inevitably change). The peliculiarity of Ancient Macedonian b, d, g is remarked when compared with the Ancient Greek dialects and the evolution of Greek language to that age (~500 BC). I will stress again that A. Panayotou, a Greek linguist, in her article on Macedonian dialects considers them a substratum relic and she's not the only scholar doing so. Jona Lendering may be no expert, but others are.
 
Also, a known example of the past where the same Φ to B occurs is the name Koroibos, who was an Elean humble baker that won in the Olympics of 776BC. Koroibos was earlier worshipped at Megara as a founder of one of its hamlets.

So what is Koroibos? It is the early Doric version of Koroiphos before it was southernized. It means "to ride a virgin".
Or maybe Koroibos has another etymology / meaning and Koroiphos is a "folk-etymology". Who else was named Koroiphos (couldn't find any so far, nor the word listed in lexicons, but still looking)?
 
Now have a look at this one...Larissaeans send a letter to Philip V in Aeolic as spoken in that region instead of Koine. If Attic was simply a replacement in Macedonia, then how on earth would the Macedonians understand this text below? Remember, that Aeolians of Lesbos were bullied for their "barbaric" speach of Greek, which was Aeolic. Note also the refered Thessalian names in the end of the text. Βερέκκας instead of Φερεκλής.
If some of the Thracians or Scythians could understand Greek, I guess some Macedonians could too, whatever their native language was. It is not like that like that letter was read by every Macedonian commoner. Not even all the Greeks were literate (even though having Greek as a native language).
 
 
 
 


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 30-Jan-2009 at 22:59
Originally posted by Flipper

In 214BC, you have something called Koine. They could have used that like the rest of the Greeks. Persians, Egyptians etc had no common language with the Macedonians to communicate with. Lydians, probably used Ionian without problems. Using Aeolic is an overkill, unless you think they were like some Germans today who refuse to speak english. 
The Larissaeans were not really forced to write in Koine, the Aeolic dialect was their own language. And the Macedonian court certainly could afford translators, especially from the neighbouring languages and Greek dialects. Moreover, some Macedonians could know Aeolic just like today some people from Czech Republic or northern Italy know German. There's always a degree of bilingualism along the borders.
Let's also note that among the scholars suggesting the Macedonians spoke a Greek dialect, not all agree on Aeolic.
 
On Koroibos, meanwhile I searched the Packhum database and I found several results for κοροιβ (I usually strip the endings from words, to find also the word in oblique cases, but also its derivatives) but 0 results for κοροιφ.
Is "koroiphos" an attested word/name or is it just a reconstruction by you/some other scholars? Where can I read of it? Thank you in advance.
 


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2009 at 09:46
Good day!
Just a quick input Chilbudios about Koroibos/Koroiphos.

It is not my breakup really. It is a composite word, from "kore" and "oipheo/oiphein". I found it on the magenda lexicon, which is the richest Greek lexicon currently. I don't know where it is attested as koroiphos, but when i type koroibos, I get koroiphos as the main type instead of koroibos.

I will see if i find any known text containing it as koroiphos.



-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2009 at 09:50
Found it!
http://books.google.com/books?id=6ekUAAAAQAAJ&pg=RA1-PA499&dq=%CE%BA%CE%BF%CF%81%CE%BF%CE%B9%CF%86%CE%BF%CF%82&hl=el - http://books.google.com/books?id=6ekUAAAAQAAJ&pg=RA1-PA499&dq=%CE%BA%CE%BF%CF%81%CE%BF%CE%B9%CF%86%CE%BF%CF%82&hl=el

"H τον ως κόρην οιφώμενον"






-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2009 at 11:30
Thank you, Flipper! Meanwhile I reached my LSJ lexicon and I also found the entry "koroiphos" having the meaning "defiling maidens". What's interesting is that it is next to "Koroibos" and there are several people listed with this name: an Athenian archon, that Elean Olympic victor you already mentioned, a Phrygian, a Plataean, an Argive. I'll keep searching on the origins and geographical distribution of the second name.


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 03-Feb-2009 at 21:19
Originally posted by Chilbudios


I didn't say all over Scythia, I said the northern and western Pontic coast (and as you can easily find in the Packhum site, there are thousands of them). And you find them in what you call arguably remote locations, in mountains too, e.g. in Haemus (north of Black Sea are mostly steppes, therefore I'm picking an example from the west). Earlier today I was looking at a set of Greek inscriptions from Glava Panega (a mountainous region in north-central Bulgaria, rather remote from the main Greek cities), dating from the early centuries AD. At Glava Panega there was probably an Asklepieion and the spring - as the name hints - was believed to have healing properties. The inscriptions are IGB II 510-586  http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=168563&bookid=186&region=5&subregion=12 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=168563&bookid=186&region=5&subregion=12   .
 


Yes, but again, look at the timeframes Chilbudios...
In the same way we can't take to account late BC and early AD records for Macedonians (e.g Strabo), we can't compare the timeframes of Scythia and Macedon. You're talking about dates, when Greek influence was greately established compared to archaic times (excluding Ionia and Sicely).

Ofcourse the "one inscription for every rock" I said was a way of speech, not a true argument. It was an exhageration to point out great amount.


One problem which was reported for those Olbian names was that the sample of names was too small for finding reliable patterns. Consequently I have strong doubts that one can separate Greeks from Scythians on a glance.


I haven't had a closer look, but i will look for more authors instead of sticking to one. You, know that historians can unintentionally overlook certain things. With a simple search I found that "babos" King. I don't want to imply that "babos" means certainly he was a non-Greek, since it could litterarly mean he had some problem or it could be something else. In any case it is an interresting case.

As for the Greeks importing names like "Ioannis" is only for religious reasons. Furthermore, they made them Greekish, they don't kept for example Jewish names in a Jewish form but turned e.g Ιακώβ to Ιάκωβος, while they refered to Jewish people named Jabob as Ιακώβ.


But when Strabo wrote (early 1st century AD) Macedonia was almost entirely Greek speaking. That doesn't prove anything for Homeric or Myceneaen age. Also Herodotus did not claim Macedonia is a part of Hellas (and I already said that I do not count genealogical legends, there's a lot of scholarship - like Jonathan Hall's above - about it)
Sticking to Strabo, as I already pointed out, today Thrace (Thraki) is part of Greece (Hellas). I can find you numerous online materials claiming Thrace is a part of Hellas. This doesn't mean the Thracians were originally some Greek tribe speaking some Greek dialect.


I can agree with your note on Strabo and I didn't say Herodotus said it was a part of Hellas. In fact Herodotus never mentioned that about anyone. There are other authors (incl Herodotus) that refer to their origins or applying epithets in various forms. If we get to non-Greek or non-Roman authors the frequency is even larger.

As for Thrace, can you be more specific? Who wrote it is a part of Hellas? I'm not aware of such a source, at least not an ancient one. Currently, a part of it is in Greece but overall in school you learn that Thrace is a larger region, that Thracians were neighbouring nation to the Greeks, that Ionians colonized the coast, that Thracian were Hellenized, that Pomaks could be their closest ancestors etc etc.


 The evidence we have for Macedonians speaking Greek or being Greek (participating at the Olympics, having Greek gods, etc.) are late, are from the Classical age and later (when we indeed speak of Hellenization, as they call themselves Hellenes). We can't say anything about Macedonians in prehistoric and archaic times.


But here you come to my original point and i'm not sure if you got me from the beginning. Is Hellenization the correct word to use for those periods? Writting is not excistent or litteracy is low, the Greek world is rather static and there are no forces that can cause a systematic change of culture, religion, language?

I'm basically objecting to the definition. Also, those authors who use that theory can not put a finger to an approximation on when and where it started.


And is the presence of qoppa and digamma unusual in Greek inscriptions ~500 BC? I don't think so. Or does it prove the Macedonians always spoke a Greek dialect?


No, but obviously they did not speak Attic when they started to write but some other type, where it was suitable to use -que and wa- sounds. Also, in the Derveni papyri, the language is mixed Attic and something else which i'm not sure if it definetely Doric as some say.


If it is not Macedonia, where is this homeland and what are the evidences for it?


I already answered to that. Emathia and Pieria as far as the Pindus chain. Strabo tells us that Macedonia was earlier called Emathia. Justin records the same when he speaks about the arrival of Caranus. Aegae was Phrygian until the 12th century. You have a difference of material cultures during the bronze age between what we now call southern macedonia and the part that covers Aegae, Drama etc as Hammond notices. The Chalkidike penisula needs no introduction... The Chalkidike people differenciated themselves from the pre-Philippic Macedonia. Just some examples...


But how one identify the Myceneaens from the Myceneaen culture (which can be also trade, gift-giving, and other cultural contacts with neighbours). I suggested in the case of Greek that not even Greek writing isn't a reliable criterion to locate the ancient Greeks (i.e. having Greek as native language), but in most of these regions, there's not even written evidence (i.e. Linear B) to locate the Greek-speaking Mycenaeans.
If I'm using a Coca Cola bottle am I an American? Then, to address one of the titles from your bibliography, if I'm using an allegedly Myceneaen pot, will that make me a Greek speaker? I say the only safe localization of Greek-speakers (the language being either native or learnt) is with Linear B.
 
Anyway, thank you for the references, I will try to find and read them.



You're welcome. Have a look at them, cause they explain briefly those differences. There's a difference between imported ware and localy made ware. Your coca cola bottle has Romanian text on the ingredients and mine has Greek. Cretans make their own kinds of soft drinks called "Gerani" as well as other names. As for linear B and writting i can only speak about Elimia currently. The rest are theories based on the data we have, like many of the things you and I have mentioned in this thread.


The information is very interesting, but I respectfully disagree. You're presenting dialects and varieties of modern Greek. Some of the sound changes or pronounciations you refer to, were probably caused by centuries of contact with other languages (Slavic, Turkic mainly) or the internal evolutions of Greek dialects (languages inevitably change). The peliculiarity of Ancient Macedonian b, d, g is remarked when compared with the Ancient Greek dialects and the evolution of Greek language to that age (~500 BC). I will stress again that A. Panayotou, a Greek linguist, in her article on Macedonian dialects considers them a substratum relic and she's not the only scholar doing so. Jona Lendering may be no expert, but others are.


First of all, I think you have missunderstood my view on the specific theories whether Macedonian was Doric or Aeolic. I do not believe it was Aeolic like Hoffman insisted. To be honest, I can't say it was certainly Doric, because as I early on this thread demonstrated what we read as  Doric of the Corinthian region, was not Doric according to the Corinthians. What I tend to believe is that there's a background (depending on geography as well) that contributed in various ways to these tongues + a vacum of proto-Greek speaking migrations from the north and later a Phrygian one to the west that created a certain morphology in the speech.

So, I think I have cleared that out.

Now to the examples i gave you on modern Greek as you say. Tsakonian is not exactly modern Greek. It is far from that, since it evolved separately from the Attic Greek. Moreover, you're talking about a region were people switched to christianity later than anyone else. Ok, i'm not 100% they're the latest ones, but they were damn late at the 11th century.

Michail Lekos, the linguist and writer of the book i scanned, is a native speaker of Tsakonian (unlike many others who were devoted to it). In the introduction, after labeling it Laconian he says:

"Είναι τουτέστιν αυτή συγγενής και της Ομηρικής, ήτοι της Ιωνικής διαλέκτου, καθό αδελφή της Δωρικής"

"Moreover it is a relativeof the Homeric and Ionic dialect, as well as a sister language to the Doric dialect"

Note the Kynourians (AKA Tsakonians nowadays) were originally autochthonus Ionians and Arcadians that switched to Doric (See Pausanias, Lakonika, 11, 207.2 and Herodotus, VIII, 73).

Now, I'm pretty sure that neither Turks nor Slavs would use Δ instead of Θ, since none of those consonants exist in their language. In fact words like θαρσήεις and δαδίς are rather impossible for pronounciation for Turkish speakers and therefore does not explain foreign influence. I know this from first hand, since i've already made the test on my gf who is turkish Smile

Also the change of βλέπω το γλέπω is neither a confortable switch...

The fact is that mr Lekos, says the following about foreign influence on Tsakonian,

"The Germans Zigaizen and Miklosic concluded that the reason that Tsakonian is different from standard Greek is because the slavic influence. Obviously their ignorance on Tsakonian led them to that erronious conclusion"

However, he later credits Deffner because he got in the process of learning the language.

Later on the chapter of grammar he recognises the foreign elements as Albanian (which he happens to have a fair knowledge on), which he attributes to the contact with the south-western arvatite villages of the argolis perfecture. He recognises Albanian words, which he points out, but mentions nothing on grammar and phonology.

Now, to the Palladarian book...Indeed Palladarian as modern Greek as it can get. However, it has a long background of Aeolic speakers and as I told you the sound changes there are on consonants that are not used in Turkish.

Now, have a look at the following essay. It is a child from Levadero, Kozani perfecture who litterarly writes as he speaks. It is basically the way natives of those regions speak even today (unlike the Asia minor people living amongst them).




Now look at the following:

"Του προυί σκόνητι η μάναμ να πα να χέσι".

which in standard Greek is

Το πρωί σηκώνεται η μητέρα μου να πάει να χέσει

and means "in the morning my mother woke up to go for a shit" LOL

"Ανοίγει ντπόρτα"

"Ανοίγει την πόρτα" - She opened the door

"Τι κάντς άι ικεί;"

"Τι κάνεις εσύ εκεί;" - What are you doing there

"Ύστερα πήγα στου παραθύρι και έγλιπα του χιόνι"

"Ύστερα πήγα στο παράθυρο και έβλεπα το χιόνι" - I went to the window and i was watching the snow

"Αυτό ήταν του πρότου χιόνι στου χουριό μ"

"Αυτό ήταν το πρώτο χιόνι στο χωριό μου" - That was the first snow in my village



What do we have here will you ask me? Well, you have the phenomenas found in Laconia, Thessaly and Aeolia in one regardless the timeframe! Let me be specific.

"Anige Dporta"...The same switch of P to B or of P to D like in Palladarian.

"Ti kants ai ike"...Iotaism like in many non Attic speaking regions (ikei instead of ekei, Timounida instead of Temenida,this occurs in regions of Messologi and Agrinion today) and the different breath stops (kants) that are found in Aeolic (see in the Thessalian letter πὸτ τὸς, Λαρσαίοις).

"Ejlipa tou chioni"...The same replacement of b to j (or g if you prefer) like in Tsakonian (γλέπω instead of  βλέπω).

"tou protou chioni stou chourio m"...The replacement of ending -o tou -ou like in Tsakonian and Aeolic (see Φιλανθρούπα, χούραν)

As you can see, you have common phenomenas in 3 isolated from each other regions (Macedonia/Thessaly, Aeolia, Laconia), from various times.

Don't forget also that in the Thessalian letter you have the names that have B instead of Ph-.

So my point is that claiming that those phenomenas are stricly found in Macedonia are far from correct, whether a linguist says so or not. It is a matter of awareness rather than knowledge on ancient Greek.

I'm lacking time, but if you want i can scan many more examples from many places, reaching as far as the island of Karpathos (which Leonidas in this case can assist as a native Karpathian).




-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Vorian
Date Posted: 03-Feb-2009 at 22:02
LOL, flipper the last essay was priceless...


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 03-Feb-2009 at 22:56
Hahahha yeah...Kids that are not afraid to tell everything LOL Especially about details why their mother woke up early in the morning.

However, it is the kids of the ages 7-10 that write exactly as they speak at home. Many linguists i've seen who write about diatopies of languages, collect such essays for their work.


-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2009 at 13:12
Originally posted by Flipper

Yes, but again, look at the timeframes Chilbudios...
In the same way we can't take to account late BC and early AD records for Macedonians (e.g Strabo), we can't compare the timeframes of Scythia and Macedon. You're talking about dates, when Greek influence was greately established compared to archaic times (excluding Ionia and Sicely).
Though my argument was not initially a matter of chronology but of symptoms showing perhaps similar processes (the quasi-universal Greekness of a mixed Greek-barbarian element), even so, my examples are in the same time-frame. The Greek colonies from Scythia (as most of the main Greek colonies from Black Sea, Aegean or Mediterranean) flourished starting with 6th century BC (the earliest ones might have been set in late 7th century) and did so for many centuries to come, being thus contemporaneous with the ascension of Macedonian polity, the presence of Macedonians in written sources, the assertion of Macedonian Hellenicity, with the epigraphic monuments, etc. For the latter, you can check the  Packhum site and you'll find many Scythian Greek inscriptions from the same period as, say, Pella Katadesmos; I already exemplified with some inscription from Sicily (another place colonized by Greeks) to illustrate similar and contemporaneous phenomena like those you identified in Ancient Macedonia.
 
Ofcourse the "one inscription for every rock" I said was a way of speech, not a true argument. It was an exhageration to point out great amount.
Since the Pontic coasts exhibit thousands of such inscriptions, perhaps a more accurate expression of magnitude would be in order to make a point Wink
 
As for the Greeks importing names like "Ioannis" is only for religious reasons. Furthermore, they made them Greekish, they don't kept for example Jewish names in a Jewish form but turned e.g Ιακώβ to Ιάκωβος, while they refered to Jewish people named Jabob as Ιακώβ.
Everyone adapts names (Andrew is not in a Greek form, is it?), everyone adopts names for some reason (Christianity is a reason like any other). I can't believe the Greeks were some special people, having their own special ways (and names) and borrowing nothing but instead giving everything to the others. These are romantic myths if anything. A matrimonial alliance (which happened often between Greeks and barbarians) could trigger such an anthroponomastic practice: e.g. the name Roxane which was worn by few Greek women, probably echoing the age of Alexander the Great. A significant cultural influence could have also such consequences. Let's take Latin, a very important source of names for ancient Greek speakers during the times of the Roman Empire. We find Greeks having Latin names (e.g. Flavios, Claudios), we find Greeks having names derived from Latin ones (e.g. Marcion from Marcus).
 
As for Thrace, can you be more specific? Who wrote it is a part of Hellas? I'm not aware of such a source, at least not an ancient one. Currently, a part of it is in Greece but overall in school you learn that Thrace is a larger region, that Thracians were neighbouring nation to the Greeks, that Ionians colonized the coast, that Thracian were Hellenized, that Pomaks could be their closest ancestors etc etc.
But why ancient one? We are also unaware of any source from Myceneaen or Homeric age claiming the Macedonians were Greek back then and yet almost everyone assumes that based on written testimonies from centuries when not millenia later. Thrace nowadays gives a similar example:
http://www.pickatrail.com/jupiter/location/europe/greece/map/thraki.gif - http://www.pickatrail.com/jupiter/location/europe/greece/map/thraki.gif
Yet based on this late reality, few dare to draw conclusions about how Thrace was 20-2500 years ago.
Macedonia is a larger region, too. Its inhabitants were once also non-Greek tribes, and at some point some Greek speakers colonized parts of its territory. The Macedonians were also perhaps Hellenized. I am yet to see some serious evidence for an archaic Greekness of Macedonians which does not apply to some other barbarian culture which was later obscured by the Greek language, literacy and civilization.
 
But here you come to my original point and i'm not sure if you got me from the beginning. Is Hellenization the correct word to use for those periods? Writting is not excistent or litteracy is low, the Greek world is rather static and there are no forces that can cause a systematic change of culture, religion, language?

I'm basically objecting to the definition. Also, those authors who use that theory can not put a finger to an approximation on when and where it started.
Hellenization means to become a Hellene. And the authors put the finger - Johnathan Hall, for instance (see the first page of this thread for several excerpts of what this author thinks of Hellenicity)
 
I already answered to that. Emathia and Pieria as far as the Pindus chain. Strabo tells us that Macedonia was earlier called Emathia. Justin records the same when he speaks about the arrival of Caranus. Aegae was Phrygian until the 12th century. You have a difference of material cultures during the bronze age between what we now call southern macedonia and the part that covers Aegae, Drama etc as Hammond notices. The Chalkidike penisula needs no introduction... The Chalkidike people differenciated themselves from the pre-Philippic Macedonia. Just some examples...
But which is the evidence those material cultures spoke Greek (and only Greek) or that they were identified with the Macedonians?
Strabo says that Macedonia was called Emathia, and that parts of this country (i.e. which was formerly known as Emathia) were held by Epirotes, Illyrians, Bottiaei and Thracians and even goes further to list the Thracian tribe of the Pieres inhabiting Pieria and foothills of Olympus. (VII, fr. 11). He also says that a large part of Greece is held by barbarians, in particular regions of Macedonia and Thessaly by the Thracians (VII, 7, 1). I wouldn't trust Strabo in all what he claims, however if one uses Strabo to prove something about Macedonia, then Emathia and Pieria were mostly non-Greek in the earlier ages, even more, according to Strabo, Thracians seem to have been here (southern Macedonia) the most important ethnos in the archaic times.
 
Your coca cola bottle has Romanian text on the ingredients and mine has Greek. Cretans make their own kinds of soft drinks called "Gerani" as well as other names.
Not really, until recently (some years ago, thus I guess one can still find such bottles in junkyards, collections or used as flower vases, etc.) most bottles were having labels only in English. In the 70s there was even a TV sketch played by a famous local actor, on the instructions or the ingredients lists which were virtually untranslateable for most people (as they were in Hungarian, Czech, German, Russian, Turkish, Vietnamese, whatever language of this Earth)  http://youtube.com/watch?v=CeHuaGoDlq4 - http://youtube.com/watch?v=CeHuaGoDlq4  (the sketch is in Romanian, however at 0:40 it starts on DeliKat, imported from Hungary, and it follows with other two products).
And the shape of the bottle (which was actually the point of my analogy) is the one which really matters (the label gets destroyed faster, not mentioning the symbolism of the bottle which would make it persist in some other representations but the bottle - drawings of all types and for all purposes, comercials recorded in different forms, etc.) and it's not local. It's an import and it's so widely found in many corners of the world. Most of the Greek/Myceneaen pottery has no real clues of its origin, but shapes, ornamentation, color. You won't know if those creating those artefacts or those using them were speaking Greek or not. Like many archaeologists say: pots are not people.
 
Now to the examples i gave you on modern Greek as you say. Tsakonian is not exactly modern Greek.
[...]
So my point is that claiming that those phenomenas are stricly found in Macedonia are far from correct, whether a linguist says so or not. It is a matter of awareness rather than knowledge on ancient Greek.

I'm lacking time, but if you want i can scan many more examples from many places, reaching as far as the island of Karpathos (which Leonidas in this case can assist as a native Karpathian).
It is, as it is spoken today. The birth of its dialect may be ages ago, what it matters is most examples you picked to illustrate some phonological features (or accidents) are from today, not from 2500 years ago. Even that wonderful, pitoresque sample of linguistic particularity, but also orality and spontaneity can't prove anything for the Greek dialects spoken millenia ago. I'm sure you can bring many more examples, but you paint the Greek linguistic world of today, not the ancient one. Languages change. For an ancient language you need ancient evidences, and so far, there's only that one name which supports your case. One name is not a linguistic feature, it is not a dialect.
 
As such, with the evidence you provided so far, those linguists are correct to identify in some Macedonian features some local particularities. It is a matter of awareness and knowledge of the ancient Greek.
 
 
 


Posted By: eaglecap
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2009 at 18:18
I will add these to my library:
Ethnic Identity in Greek Antiquity (2000)
Hellenicity: Between Ethnicity and Culture (2002)
A History of the Archaic Greek World, 1200-479 BCE (2007)
Thanks

-------------
Λοιπόν, αδελφοί και οι συμπολίτες και οι στρατιώτες, να θυμάστε αυτό ώστε μνημόσυνο σας, φήμη και ελευθερία σας θα ε


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 09-Mar-2009 at 19:25
Hello!
Sorry for my long absence but i was lacking time to write anything lately.

Originally posted by Chilbudios


Everyone adapts names (Andrew is not in a Greek form, is it?), everyone adopts names for some reason (Christianity is a reason like any other). I can't believe the Greeks were some special people, having their own special ways (and names) and borrowing nothing but instead giving everything to the others. These are romantic myths if anything. A matrimonial alliance (which happened often between Greeks and barbarians) could trigger such an anthroponomastic practice: e.g. the name Roxane which was worn by few Greek women, probably echoing the age of Alexander the Great. A significant cultural influence could have also such consequences. Let's take Latin, a very important source of names for ancient Greek speakers during the times of the Roman Empire. We find Greeks having Latin names (e.g. Flavios, Claudios), we find Greeks having names derived from Latin ones (e.g. Marcion from Marcus).


Chilbudios, i didn't say they didn't borrow the names. I said that when borrowing a name, they did not leave it in it's original form but changed it to fit Greek phonology. For example Marcus turned to Markos, Valerius turned to Oualerios, Dārayavahuš turned to Darios etc. Noone says those are not non-Greek names. Ofcourse, there are exceptions like Adam, Eva and Maria which were left intact as their Jewish form. In the majority of names however, changes are made.

Originally posted by Chilbudios


But why ancient one? We are also unaware of any source from Myceneaen or Homeric age claiming the Macedonians were Greek back then and yet almost everyone assumes that based on written testimonies from centuries when not millenia later. Thrace nowadays gives a similar example:
http://www.pickatrail.com/jupiter/location/europe/greece/map/thraki.gif - http://www.pickatrail.com/jupiter/location/europe/greece/map/thraki.gif
Yet based on this late reality, few dare to draw conclusions about how Thrace was 20-2500 years ago.
Macedonia is a larger region, too. Its inhabitants were once also non-Greek tribes, and at some point some Greek speakers colonized parts of its territory. The Macedonians were also perhaps Hellenized. I am yet to see some serious evidence for an archaic Greekness of Macedonians which does not apply to some other barbarian culture which was later obscured by the Greek language, literacy and civilization.


Yes i got yout point...Like for example in 2000 years from now, maybe peoples perception of Thrace will be the current status. However, people will see that in Thrace, Greeks, Bulgarians, Turks and Romanians inhabited it. That requires ofcourse that most of the data available today vanishes. Todays data is much more than the data produced in archaic ages, so if we find today 0.0010% of what was produced lets say at 700BC, then in 2000 years from now, people should find more than that 0.0010% of archaic data we have now. Anyway, this is another thread concerning how much we will leave behind us, since we use the internet and optical discs instead of stone.

Last but not least, we don't know much about what happened around 1800BC, but we do know pretty much about what was happening 700-1000 years ago.

Originally posted by Chilbudios


Hellenization means to become a Hellene.


In that case all Hellenes were Hellenized at different points of history. That was my earlier point...

Originally posted by Chilbudios


Strabo says that Macedonia was called Emathia, and that parts of this country (i.e. which was formerly known as Emathia) were held by Epirotes, Illyrians, Bottiaei and Thracians and even goes further to list the Thracian tribe of the Pieres inhabiting Pieria and foothills of Olympus. (VII, fr. 11). He also says that a large part of Greece is held by barbarians, in particular regions of Macedonia and Thessaly by the Thracians (VII, 7, 1). I wouldn't trust Strabo in all what he claims, however if one uses Strabo to prove something about Macedonia, then Emathia and Pieria were mostly non-Greek in the earlier ages, even more, according to Strabo, Thracians seem to have been here (southern Macedonia) the most important ethnos in the archaic times.


We know for sure that other people lived there as well. It doesn't even need to be discussed at this point. Furthermore, from my earlier posts i demonstrated a Macedonian inscription where a Thracian from Macedonia is reffered as barbarian.

However, one would not just rely on Strabo as he is a geographer, not a linguist/ethnologist - he makes the remaining Brygoi Illyrians, he believes Carian has many Greek words (not that Greek inherited the pre-Greek anatolian ones) and he completely omits the ancient presence of Phrygians in Macedonia. I believe he can distinguish a greek from a foreigner, but that's all about it.

However, he speaks of those people you mentioned...Epirotans, Cretans, Thracians, Illyrians etc...Not Macedonians. Others, like Justin, Diodorus mention the establishment of the Macedonian Kindom by Karanos who colonized the area with a large band of Greeks.

That is still problematic...According to others, the Macedonians emerged before the Dorian invasion. So, Karanos based on those traditions cannot be the father of the Macedonians (Attamak LOL).

I know i'm not giving an answer with this but at least i give perspective. Was a tribe originally called Makednoi that gave their name to the inhabitants of the greater regions? Maybe yes, maybe no. Maybe the Macedonians were insignificant in number compared to the other people in the area, but got a boost with the arrival of the Argeads and preveiled. Maybe there were no Macedonians, in the area before Karanos but a myth was created to claim the nativeness from the Brygoi, the Epirotans and the Thracians. All these are hypothesis.

As for your initial question, none of the mycenaean sites in southern macedonia can proove the inhabitants were "The Macedonians". They only proove Mycenaean material culture, linear B litteracy (1 example) and Greek alpgabetical litteracy almost at the same time as the rest of Greece. 

Originally posted by Chilbudios


And the shape of the bottle (which was actually the point of my analogy) is the one which really matters (the label gets destroyed faster, not mentioning the symbolism of the bottle which would make it persist in some other representations but the bottle - drawings of all types and for all purposes, comercials recorded in different forms, etc.) and it's not local. It's an import and it's so widely found in many corners of the world. Most of the Greek/Myceneaen pottery has no real clues of its origin, but shapes, ornamentation, color. You won't know if those creating those artefacts or those using them were speaking Greek or not. Like many archaeologists say: pots are not people.



Ofcourse pots are not people, but you've comparing the modern industrial age with times where making a mycenaean pot was hi-tech. Otherwise, the examination of material culture would not be significant in archeology. Just an example...The anatolian limestone kouroi in Cyprus...

Originally posted by Chilbudios


It is, as it is spoken today. The birth of its dialect may be ages ago, what it matters is most examples you picked to illustrate some phonological features (or accidents) are from today, not from 2500 years ago. Even that wonderful, pitoresque sample of linguistic particularity, but also orality and spontaneity can't prove anything for the Greek dialects spoken millenia ago. I'm sure you can bring many more examples, but you paint the Greek linguistic world of today, not the ancient one. Languages change. For an ancient language you need ancient evidences, and so far, there's only that one name which supports your case. One name is not a linguistic feature, it is not a dialect.
 
As such, with the evidence you provided so far, those linguists are correct to identify in some Macedonian features some local particularities. It is a matter of awareness and knowledge of the ancient Greek.


Chilbudios, my point was that those phonological changes do not signify non-Greek phenomenas. It's like saying "All birds fly" when you know that penguings, ostrages, chickens and many other birds don't...This renders the "all birds fly" to a false absolute argument. I couldn't not remember instantly ancient greek examples of the same phenomenas, but at least i showed you that similar things occured in remote areas were the foreign influence could not create them (θ -> δ in an area where the foreign language has none of those consonants). Besides, even the modern examples should not be omitted. Modern Greek examples are often used by linguists in the analysis of the Greek language historically.

Last time i showed you Koribos and the Thessalian decree with the phonetically changed names. During my absence, i remembered more words that again cover different geographic areas. Now, that i have time, whithin a week i will find even more. I'm good in attic Greek for obvious reasons, i can't even remember modern Greek dialectal differences, which makes it even harder when it comes to ancient greek. Imagine how it is for a non native speaker that want to draw a conclusion. Now let's see some examples.

First of all i will take the opposite direction...

In Linear B you have the word ζαFετες (za-we-te) translitterated in as Zawetes and standard Greek (τ)ζαβέτες. It means "this year". Later in various Greek dialects it turned to Fέτος (wetos) and then to εφέτος/φέτος. So, in this case the archaic forms have a V/W sound and later turn to Ph-. So maybe it is originally Φ that occasionally interchanged with B instead of the opossite. Unfortunately, we don't have enough Mycenaean sources to be  sure.

Second, the word Tύμβος which means round mound/grave. It also appers as Τύμφος...Today in Greek you have the following forms : Τύμβος, τύμφη (see mount tymphe), τούμπα...All mean the same. The first is panhellenic, the second is local (epirus) and the third is Macedonian (Modern Gk). Taking to consideration the third, anciently in macedonia the word could be τύμβα, where β was pronounced as b (since the W was represented by F-digamma) and υ as -ου. Translitterating that it would be tumba, exactly the same as the current macedonian equivalent (note μπ- in Greek translitterates as b or mb like in this case).

Third the Thessalian lake Boibe described in the Apollonian myths. Obviously, the lake got it's name from Phoibos aka Apollo...

Fourth the Macedonian river Baphyras meaning "bridged river" (Gephyra = bridge).

Fifth the word Βαλαρός in Cretan Doric which means bad/evil man, an excile. In attic the word is not attested exactly like that but instead you have the verb Φαλαρίζω (i'm bad, i behave as a tyran) and Φαλαρισμός (being inhuman).

Sixth, the Arcadocypriot άνωδα instead of attic άνωθε which means up-side.

You will find many similar examples in the Book "The Modern Greek Language in Its Relation to Ancient Greek" by Edmund Martin Geldart. Just some extracts...


 

As you see, there are more phonetical changes than one might imagine.

My point with all these is not to put a finger if Macedonia was hellenized in the bronze age, in the colonial age or in the classical age. None of us can answer that and in the end the result is the same. My point is that some erronious assumptions have been put forward in the past and have been presented with thin arguments and methodology, which in other issues would not be passed that easily.

To start from the basics...The only historically centrum languages of the area we're aware of were Greek and Phrygian.

As I mentioned earlier, since both Greeks and Phrygians (or somekind of ancestors of both) passed through Macedonia, it is impossible to think that they completely emptied it, leaving no people back.

With the collapse of the Hittite empire, the migration of the Phrygians to Anatolia and the migrations of proto/mello-Greeks to the south, a huge vacum must have been created in the area. This vacum could have given space to the formation and a separate development of a new kind of speech.

I'm not insisting that Macedonian is related to Doric or Aeolic, since it can be easily a separate idiom. What i tend to believe nowadays is that it was a language that shared common basis with those dialects.

The consonant changes as you've seen are not unique, nor geographically restricted. Even in Palaeophrygian you can find the same phenomena e.g ber- instead of pher- (i bring), arkieFais instead of Archiereus (where Greek -eus in that case is pronounced -ephs).

With the last example, i add weight to my earlier comment that it might have been originally B that turned to Φ and not the opposite.

Last but not least, i cannot say Phrygian can't have affected a possible macedonian idiom. The opposite, it must have. In that case, it falls into the same group which makes it akin to Greek as some say.



-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 13-Mar-2009 at 08:43
Originally posted by Flipper

First of all i will take the opposite direction...

In Linear B you have the word ζαFετες (za-we-te) translitterated in as Zawetes and standard Greek (τ)ζαβέτες. It means "this year". Later in various Greek dialects it turned to Fέτος (wetos) and then to εφέτος/φέτος. So, in this case the archaic forms have a V/W sound and later turn to Ph-. So maybe it is originally Φ that occasionally interchanged with B instead of the opossite. Unfortunately, we don't have enough Mycenaean sources to be  sure.

Second, the word Tύμβος which means round mound/grave. It also appers as Τύμφος...Today in Greek you have the following forms : Τύμβος, τύμφη (see mount tymphe), τούμπα...All mean the same. The first is panhellenic, the second is local (epirus) and the third is Macedonian (Modern Gk). Taking to consideration the third, anciently in macedonia the word could be τύμβα, where β was pronounced as b (since the W was represented by F-digamma) and υ as -ου. Translitterating that it would be tumba, exactly the same as the current macedonian equivalent (note μπ- in Greek translitterates as b or mb like in this case).
I don't know what exactly you meant by "opposite direction", however if a linguistic phenomenon (sound change) happens in one direction, studying the opposite may indicate nothing. Your first example is about W, not about B. In the second case, the Greek form has the B sound (whereas the particularity of Macedonian we were discussing is about having B-s instead of some Greek P+H-s/F-s)
 
Third the Thessalian lake Boibe described in the Apollonian myths. Obviously, the lake got it's name from Phoibos aka Apollo...
Such information, though interesting, is hard to be valued without a specific context. If however we assume Boibe is a local rendition of Phoibos, it doesn't exclude that this name shows a northern linguistic influence (Thessaly is somewhat north, isn't it?), the one which was present also in Macedonia.
 
As you see, there are more phonetical changes than one might imagine.
I know there are, but that doesn't exclude that Macedonian linguistic area to have its own phonetic and phonologic specificity, one which was remarked by the scholars studying the Greek dialects and Greek substrata.
 
I will answer later to some other interesting points you made.


Posted By: AksumVanguard
Date Posted: 13-Mar-2009 at 16:51
IMO the Macedonians were trying to gain more ground in both  the Agean and with the Semi Greek territories such as Thrace,Thesally ,Ilyria. Macedonians tried to incorporate and consul with the Athenians,but every state was bent on staying in control.The Athenians had went to Darius sometime before in order to stop the Macedonian growing threat.

The Pelopenssian League and the League of Thebes were not cohesive, as a result the  Macedonian Confederacy would've just have to suffice,after their defeat in attempted rebellion.It was why in the end Athenians and Thebian states become Hellinized as with other previous empires,Selucids,Ptolemiac,Sodgdiana,and the Indo-Greek Kingdom.


Posted By: Vorian
Date Posted: 13-Mar-2009 at 17:21
Originally posted by AksumVanguard

IMO the Macedonians were trying to gain more ground both  Agean and the sEmi Greek territories such as Thrace,Thesally ,Ilyria.


A small correction here. Thessaly was considered entirely greek and Illyria and Thrace were not Greek at all.


Posted By: AksumVanguard
Date Posted: 13-Mar-2009 at 20:53
Originally posted by Vorian

Originally posted by AksumVanguard

IMO the Macedonians were trying to gain more ground both  Agean and the sEmi Greek territories such as Thrace,Thesally ,Ilyria.


A small correction here. Thessaly was considered entirely greek and Illyria and Thrace were not Greek at all.

You are of course correct,the Ilyrians are Barbarians,and they aren't under the hellenistic empire until later on,by Lysimachus. And so was Thraces.


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 18-Mar-2009 at 14:50

Flipper, I am postponing my reply in order to finish reading some books. One I've just read is Margalit Finkelberg, Greeks and Pre-Greeks: Aegean Prehistory and Greek Heroic Tradition (2005)
The author is a classicist and this books gives some perspectives on ancient Greekness. For now, I'll just excerpt some bits related to the language of the ancient inhabitants of Macedonia:

p. 31: "Compare, for example, the case of the Phrygians. The Phrygians spoke an Indo-European language closely related to Greek, which allows us to suppose that their position as regards the Greeks could not have differed much from that of the Macedonians."

p. 121: "Thus Macedonian, for example, does not share with Greek at least one of the features identifying the unique idiom of the latter, namely, the devoicing of the IE voiced aspirates."

Here are also two dialectal maps, please note the outsideness of Macedonia:


p. 110, map 3:

p. 132, map 4:

 
 
I'm currently reading a book on ancient north-western Pontic coast, about personal names and about the relations between Greeks and barbarians. I'll be back soon with some more evidences about my earlier point of ethnic mixture in Greek colonies under a veil of rich Greek epigraphy.


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 23-Mar-2009 at 21:06
Hello and sorry for my late response again. Got some health issues lately that kept me away from computers.


I don't know what exactly you meant by "opposite direction", however if a linguistic phenomenon (sound change) happens in one direction, studying the opposite may indicate nothing.


I ment that originally in certain cases the b-sound was used instead of ph-. That the change of b- to ph- occured later in other Greek dialects, while in Macedonian it was preserved.


Your first example is about W, not about B. In the second case, the Greek form has the B sound (whereas the particularity of Macedonian we were discussing is about having B-s instead of some Greek P+H-s/F-s)


That's a good remark Chilbudios. However, the specific example was not random. We know that non-attic speakers were the first to transform the b-sound to v/w-sound. We can't know exactly when this could have happened in Macedonia. However, when it comes to φέτος and βέτος (β as a v-sound) you have the Macedonian month Υπερβετταίος which was the last moth of the year. Besides, i believe that the Macedonian -b in Bilippos etc is a W/V sound. If you think about it both Greek β and φ are produced in the same way with the lips by blowing the air to different directions.

Now take a look at your second map.



Look closely at the area over Thessaly. The region of Kozani behind Olympus, until Grevena and Pindus is marked as Doric speaking. That is a large part of Upper (Mountainous) Macedonia incorporating Boion and Elimeia. I have been refering to these areas earlier in my posts.

I dunno which timeframe the map shall represent, but remember that Hammond, Hatzopoulos and others consider that the Macedonian anexation of the previously Phrygian parts occured entirely much later.

Also, note that the earliest attestations of Macedonians as a group places them at Pindus. Then you have the establishment of the Kindom by Karanos and a large band from Argos around 808BC.

I will return to that books comment shortly with Oneils points on the mater.

Now, I will make a list of attested words that are characterized by possible Macedonian phonology, that is supposed by some to be absent in Greek:

- Βίλιππος (Φίλιππος), Βάλαινα (Φάλαινα), Βίλα Βρατεάδου (Φίλα), Βερενίκα (attic Φερενίκη but Doric Φερενίκα), άβρουFες (όφρεις), βασκιοί (pl. φασκιοί), Βρύγες (Φρύγες).
- Δάνος (Θάνος), Αδραία (Αίθρια)

Now, I dunno if such an amount of words qualify to characterize a certain phonology. I will summarize what examples i have found previously in other Greek terretories outside Macedonia.

Φ -> Β

- Αλίβω instead of αλίφω.
- Βαλαρός (bad/evil man, an excile  in Cretan Doric), instead of Φαλαρός, verb Φαλαρίζω (being bad)
- Βέρακας (Thessalian) instead of Φερεκλής
- Βιλαράς instead of Φιλαράς. Currently a well spread Greek surname, geographically unrelated to Macedonia (try google or facebook).
- Βοίβη instead of Φοίβη (Thessaly)
- Βλησκούνι instead of φλησκούνι
- Κόρυβος (Elis, Megara) instead of Κόρυφος - See Gk. κορυφή
- Κύμβη (Greek word for bowl). The Κυμβ-/Κυβ- prefix is used for concave or bent objects like κύμβαλον (concave musical instrument), κυβαίον (cup), κύμβος (concave pot). However, you have exceptions where b- turns to ph- like κυφαλέος (bent), κύφελλα (the concave part of your ear), κύφος (humpbacked see κύφωσις).  So according to strict Greek phonology, the first examples should be with φ instead of β.
- Τύμβος, Τύμφη and the tribe of the Τυμφαίοι or Τυμβαίοι/Τυμπαίοι ( http://i207.photobucket.com/albums/bb193/bboyflipper/MacedonianMegara.gif - http://i207.photobucket.com/albums/bb193/bboyflipper/MacedonianMegara.gif ) - See also Τυμφηστός


Δ -> Θ

- αίδωσα instead of αίθουσα
- δα instead of θα (note modern idiom from Aeolia)
- άνθρωπός from ανδρός (gen for man) + οπός (faced) = άνδρο-οπός = ανθρ-ώ-πός
- σκυδνός or σκυθρός (surviving) from the verbs Σκυδάζω, σκυδμαίνω - also Σκυθρωπός similar case to άνθρωπός.


Possible use of F(w) -> β(v)

- ζαFετες/Fετος, εφέτος, φέτος, υπερβετταίος/υπερβερταίος
- Fικοία -> βικία (Elis)
- όρβος (mountain Attic όρος) earlier ορfος (Corfu)  - See Macedonian mountain όρβηλος
- Περραιβοί (att. Homer. means from the source of the Aias/Aous) which comes from Πέρρας + ΑίFα.


Those are some examples and i'm pretty sure there are more to find. Some of those above are widely used Greek words (anthropos, skythros, alifo etc) and even though it is not easy to think of them directly, it is a serious miss to omit them.

So, here is my previous points. Can few examples in Macedonian inscriptions be considered alien, when you have similar examples in other areas of Greece? It's not that you have a vast amount of such Macedonian-styled words. I personally believe that all the examples above including the Macedonian, are leftovers of PIE in Greek. It is very probable that those survived widely at an early stage of Greek that we cannot attest or haven't attested yet. Do you think that that hypothesis is less probable? James L. O'neil suggests that the PIE bh- could have been deaspirated to -b in Macedonia.

Moreover, since Macedonian preserves the proto-Indoeuropean voiced aspirated, as against all other Greek dialects changing them to unvoiced aspirates. Macedonian must have started to differentiate itself earlier than any of the better known dialects. So that even though it had some developments in common with neighbouring Greek dialects, such as the infinite in -stai shared with Northwest Greek, more changes of vocabulary are likely to have occured in Macedonian even than was the case in Cretan and this is supported by the number of unusual words preserved as "Macedonian" in the glosses.

Then he says the following

Speakers of Doric dialects or even an Aeolic one like Thessalian may have found Macedonian less difficult to follow, since it shared many features with them as against Attic-Ionic.

Then he makes the following hypothesis:

We should allow for the possibility that spoken Macedonian was as far from standard Attic as Sicilian is from Venetian, and that it may have been difficult to determine whether there were two separate languages or just two dialects even if we had better evidence.

O'Neils analysis is labeled "Doric forms in Macedonian inscriptions" where he analyses the 3 larger inscriptions as well as smaller fragments, placenames and personal names. He seems to find similarities with mainly Doric and some Aeolic but gives ofcourse space to the other view as shown above.


From all these, i can summarize that if there are problematics in the classification of Macedonian as a known or unknown Greek dialect, there are much more problematics in other hypothesis. That is my point from the start of this thread and i think O'Neil is very good in showing this.

Just one example...Why are some Macedonian phonology labeled as alien, when e.g within Aeolian you have Πετθαλος ( http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=148432&bookid=10&region=3&subregion=9 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=148432&bookid=10&region=3&subregion=9 ) and Φετταλός ( http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=145923&bookid=13&region=3&subregion=6 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=145923&bookid=13&region=3&subregion=6 ) in Thessalian/Boettian respectively? Is the -τθ combination standard in Greek? Does that make Thessalian alien because of the usage of -τθ?

It is fair to keep distance and give space to possibilities, but the same weight of problems should be applied equally to all cases, which i have the belief is not done sometimes.


PS: Just out of curiosity. Has anyone ever mentioned the possibility that Eteocretan could have been spoken in some areas, considering that there's a large minority group of Cretans that colonized the area? Could the small amount of pre-Greek/Non Thracian names attested at Kalindoia be attributed to the Bottians?






-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 22-Apr-2009 at 12:32
Don't worry, I haven't forgot about this. I hope your health problems are no more (I see you active and posting).
 
"My second map" is said to represent prehistoric Greece, Greece in 2nd millenium BC (possibly in early 1st). I provided it together with the other two maps for showing no consistent "Greekness" in most of Macedonia during the 2nd millenium BC. Which leaves us to conclude that most of Macedonia "Greekized" during the 1st millenium BC (and I suggested earlier this process perhaps wasn't complete at the apogee of Macedonian kingdom, i.e. 4th century BC). Please note that the main centers of ancient Macedonian power and culture (Aigai, Beroia, Pella, not to mention those settlements beyond Axios or Strymon) lie outside the hashed areas. If, as you say, there were some population identified as Macedonian in those mountainous valleys of Upper Macedonia (for which we have no direct evidence, but I can accept this hypothesis for the sake of discussing it), most of the Macedonian population in Classical and Hellenistic age is composed of Hellenized/Hellenizing natives (for me is hard to accept that a small population, living in several valleys could exterminate/chase away the much more numerous populations of the Macedonian plains and occupy those areas), in many cases this Hellenization meant also becoming Greek from non-Greek.
 
I will reply soon to your other comments about Macedonian dialect/language and its feature, for now I'll just comment on the excerpts from James L. O'Neil's work.
 
Moreover, since Macedonian preserves the proto-Indoeuropean voiced aspirated, as against all other Greek dialects changing them to unvoiced aspirates.
Changed the emphasis. Note the difference in voicing, which is the feature we've been discussing. This author seems to contradict your point, that the other Greek dialects share this feature with Macedonian, claiming that Macedonian is unique in this.
 
Macedonian must have started to differentiate itself earlier than any of the better known dialects
That's pretty much the story of every language. Some time ago, a PIE dialect started to differentiate and eventually became a language. The process continues today. The Romance languages, for instance, at some point were some dialects/variants of Latin (Vulgar Latin).
 
We should allow for the possibility that spoken Macedonian was as far from standard Attic as Sicilian is from Venetian, and that it may have been difficult to determine whether there were two separate languages or just two dialects even if we had better evidence.
Changed the emphasis. In some cases the difference between language and dialect is in the eye of the beholder. Compare the Scandinavian languages with the Italian dialects.
 


Posted By: khshayathiya
Date Posted: 22-Apr-2009 at 12:52
"A language is a dialect with an army and navy", they say.

-------------


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 22-Apr-2009 at 12:54
Originally posted by Flipper

Ofcourse pots are not people, but you've comparing the modern industrial age with times where making a mycenaean pot was hi-tech. Otherwise, the examination of material culture would not be significant in archeology.
Meanwhile I read Drago Mitrevski's "The Spreading of the Myceneaen Culture throught the Vardar Valley" which you earlier recommended. This author suggests in several occasions that this is about trading, cultural influences, local imitations, etc. not so much about Greek-speaking populations represented by Greek-specific artefacts.
I also find misleading this dichotomy of superiority vs inferiority. Certainly creating a nice-looking Myceneaen pot required some knowledge, skills, materials, but it doesn't mean that  a) these artefacts weren't traded/offered as gifts (as recipients for wine, honey, incense, oils, etc.) or even b) these artefacts weren't imitated.
 
For a parallel example, check some Greek pottery in "barbarian Scythian" sites:
http://www.pontos.dk/publications/books/bss-6-files/bss6_02_vachtina - http://www.pontos.dk/publications/books/bss-6-files/bss6_02_vachtina
That doesn't mean the examination of material culture is not significant, it only means that not everything is a direct marker of ethnicity (or language).


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 22-Apr-2009 at 13:32

Originally posted by Flipper

Chilbudios, i didn't say they didn't borrow the names. I said that when borrowing a name, they did not leave it in it's original form but changed it to fit Greek phonology. For example Marcus turned to Markos, Valerius turned to Oualerios, Dārayavahuš turned to Darios etc. Noone says those are not non-Greek names. Ofcourse, there are exceptions like Adam, Eva and Maria which were left intact as their Jewish form. In the majority of names however, changes are made.

You made this point that names change when adapted in a language and I agree, this is largely true. But what I actually attempted to show is that sometimes one cannot differentiate between a foreigner wearing that name transcribed in Greek and a Greek wearing a borrowed name. For sake of simplicity, I'll use the mother tongue as a sole criterion and I believe that unless there's some extra information, we can't say about someone named Ουαλεριος what his mother tongue was: Greek or Latin. Κλαυδιος Πτολεμαιος was perhaps born in a Greek speaking family, but many others named Κλαυδιος weren't. It's like today when we can't tell of a certain Lee living in the U.S. what his mother tongue is: Chinese, Korean, English or some other.

I promised I will bring more evidence of "barbarians" hiding under Greek names and epigraphy. Here is some (I'm not using copy-paste because of the diacritics which may not render correctly, consequently I apologize for any mistakes in transcriptions):

Besides typical "barbarian" names, in the manumissiones from Delphi (most from mid 2nd century BC), we find also several (freed) slaves with Greek names.
From the SGDI II collection ( http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/book?bookid=466 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/book?bookid=466 ) here are some examples of
Maioteans (Scythians?): 1992 - Αγαθων, 2163 - Ευταξια, Παρνασιος
Bastarnians: 1754 - Αριστω
Sarmatians: 2274 - Αφροδισια, 2142 - Ειρηνα, Φιλοκρατεια
Galatians (Celts): 1885 - Αγαθων
Thracians: 1902 - Διονυσιος, 1832 - Σωτηριχος
Phrygians: 1922 - Δημητριος

Another situation is when we have a "barbarian" father but a "Greek" son. The case of Thucydides is quite famous, but we can find this phenomenon in epigraphy, e.g. in the Thracian space, in IGB III.2 corpus ( http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/book?bookid=188 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/book?bookid=188 ), here are some persons whose father was named Auluzenis (a Thracian name):
1690 - Καστωρ Αυλουζενεος
1703 - Ερμογενης Αυλουζενεος
1832 - Απολ[λω]νιδης Αυλ[ου]ζενεος
What's even more interesting that there are situations in reverse, like in IGB V 5652 where we find a certain Αυλουζενις Ερμοδ[ω]ρου or like in the Pontic inscription CIRB 266 where we have someone named Παιρισαλος Ερακλειδου. I take Pairisalos to be an Iranian name(for Pairi- check Pairisades, the name of several Bosporan kings).

Some other good examples I found in the Egyptian papyri and ostraca, as in Egypt there were some Greeks, Macedonians, Thracians, etc. deployed as mercenaries or soldiers. For instance in the papyrus NYU 122 / 2.16 ( http://epiduke.cch.kcl.ac.uk/2008-07-21/html/p.nyu/p.nyu.2/p.nyu.2.16.html - http://epiduke.cch.kcl.ac.uk/2008-07-21/html/p.nyu/p.nyu.2/p.nyu.2.16.html http://wwwapp.cc.columbia.edu/ldpd/app/apis/item?mode=item&key=nyu.apis.4852&dbg=1 - http://wwwapp.cc.columbia.edu/ldpd/app/apis/item?mode=item&key=nyu.apis.4852&dbg=1 ) we find a Macedonian and a Thracian. The Macedonian's name is Serapion! Both fathers had the same name: Dionysios. How can one tell their ethnic identities only by considering their names? In another papyrus, NYU 71 / 2.14 ( http://epiduke.cch.kcl.ac.uk/2008-07-21/html/p.nyu/p.nyu.2/p.nyu.2.14.html - http://epiduke.cch.kcl.ac.uk/2008-07-21/html/p.nyu/p.nyu.2/p.nyu.2.14.html http://wwwapp.cc.columbia.edu/ldpd/app/apis/item?mode=item&key=nyu.apis.4795&dbg=1 - http://wwwapp.cc.columbia.edu/ldpd/app/apis/item?mode=item&key=nyu.apis.4795&dbg=1 ) we find more Thracians: Θεω[ν Ηρα]κλειδου, Ζωιλος Εκαταιου, Προξενος Προξενου. Theon, Herakleides, Zoilos, Hekataios, Proxenos - aren't these names Greek enough? And yet there were some Thracians in Egypt named that way.

With such examples at hand, I think it's hard to maintain that having a Greek name meant necessarily to have a Greek ethnic identity or even Greek mother tongue. We can at best assume that at some point those individuals became familiar with or fluent in Greek. Perhaps many were Greeks for many generations but we need positive evidence to argue for that. A large density of Greek names suggests a strong Greek culture and possibly also identity, but we may have the surprise to find other identities and languages obscured by such naming fashions. Whether the name was Greek or non-Greek but adapted to Greek, we can't really say what identity a particular person had or what was his mother tongue unless we have some more evidence to correlate and support such conclusions.

 
 
Here're few more articles about ancient Greeks and barbarians and their cultural world and identities, etc:
 
T. Bekker-Nielsen, "Mobility, ethnicity and identity: the evidence of the funerary inscriptions from Pantikapaion"
http://www.pontos.dk/publications/papers-presented-orally/oral-files/Bek_Mobility.pdf - http://www.pontos.dk/publications/papers-presented-orally/oral-files/Bek_Mobility.pdf
 
Alexandru Avram, "The Territories of Istros and Kallatis"
http://www.pontos.dk/publications/books/bbs4-files/BSS4_04_Avram.pdf - http://www.pontos.dk/publications/books/bbs4-files/BSS4_04_Avram.pdf (especially p. 63 for a model of Greek-barbarian cohabitation in 7th-6th centuries BC Istros)
 
Mirena Slavova, "Philology and Cultural Identity: the Balkans as a Common Cultural Area in Antiquity"
text:  http://kkf.proclassics.org/documents/Identity.pdf - http://kkf.proclassics.org/documents/Identity.pdf
slides: http://kkf.proclassics.org/documents/Cultural%20Identity.ppt - http://kkf.proclassics.org/documents/Cultural%20Identity.ppt


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 22-Apr-2009 at 14:17
One last contribution for today is about the Macedonian diallect/language and its features.
 
You're certainly right to doubt that "such an amount of words qualify to characterize a certain phonology" but there are some extra considerations:
 
a) We have a small number of certain Macedonian words (or Greek words in Macedonian pronounciation, whatever the case). As such, while in absolute terms the number is not that impressive, it is more so in relative terms
 
b) It is not only a list of words, it is the testimony of ancient authors, as well. Plutarch, in Moralia (Greek Questions, question 9), testifies for this particularity of the Macedonian pronounciation (Plutarch speaks of Macedonian B instead of Ph). I assume the ancient ones must have heard something to write such a thing.
 
c) The list of words is actually larger. As my previous post was about names and epigraphy, I'll be using Macedonian names to exemplify it. Scholars like O. Masson and M. Hatzopoulos suggested that several names from the inscriptions show this particularity. In IG I3 89, for instance:
Γαιτεας instead of Χαιτεας
Βυργινος instead of Φυρκινος
Σταδμεας instead of Σταθμεας
 


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2009 at 10:57
Chilbudios!
It's been a while since the last time i had time to write in this thread.

First of all, i don't know if you have noticed, but your arguments are far better than most books speaking about possible barbarian nature of Macedon. I really mean it, so respect for that. Smile

Originally posted by Chilbudios


I promised I will bring more evidence of "barbarians" hiding under Greek names and epigraphy. Here is some (I'm not using copy-paste because of the diacritics which may not render correctly, consequently I apologize for any mistakes in transcriptions):


That's very correct. There are many barbarians hidding behind Greek names. Even in Athens and Piraeus you will find loads of Thracians that had communities there and in smaller cities between the Isthmus and Athens. Foreigners using local names is a common fenomenon. For example, even today an Albanian named Gjerg living in Greece, would introduce himself as Georgios.

Ofcourse, that is a problem if you need to determine an individuals ethnicity. For example look at the following inscription

http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=150696&bookid=126&region=4&subregion=11 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=150696&bookid=126&region=4&subregion=11

All those names are Thracian except from Artemidora. However, from the inscription we know Artemidora is barbarian as well, because she's labeled as such. You've got an inscription from Macedonia where a Thracian woman, is labeled barbarian, which shows the view of the locals towards Thracians even though they are a part of the population. Generally, the term "barbarian" is used amongst the Macedonians, which means they differenciate themselves from foreigners just like the rest of the Greeks.

However, that's not the only problematic issue here. Take for example Herodotus. He was probably half-Carian from his father who was called Lyksu. Many Ionians were a mix of Attics, Minoans, Carians, Lydians and other anatolian populations. However, as we know, the Athenians being the pure Ionians were calling themselves Athenians while the Ionians of Asia Minor where those bearing proudly this name.

Now the other Ionians, and among them the Athenians, avoided the name, not wishing to be called Ionians, nay even now I perceive that the greater number of them are ashamed of the name: but these twelve cities not only prided themselves on the name but established a temple of their own, to which they gave the name of Panionion, and they made resolution not to grant a share in it to any other Ionians (nor indeed did any ask to share it except those of Smyrna);
 
If we accept that Herodotus is by birth a half-barbarian and since we know he's a patriot, do you think he would like to be called Barbarian? I think, that for many half-breeds in Macedonia the same would apply. They wouldn't like to be classified as non-Greeks.


Third on the names are the strickly Macedonian names. To be called Dimitrios in Macedonia is nothing revealing, because it is a so called Panhellenic name. Contrary names like Perdikkas, Alketas, Ikkotas, Tirimmas are strickly Macedonian forms.

Perdikkas is the Macedonian version of Peridikaeos where i in ri is dropped, joined with di and the ending has the Dorian form.

Alketas is the Macedonian version of Alkeus, having a doric suffix in the end.

Ikkotas is the equivalent of Hippotas, keeping the Mycenaean-Greek i-qo form for horse.

Tirimmas is a strickly Macedonian invension, but still perfectly Greek meaning "Cheese lover".

Those are just few examples out of hundreds. Macedonians, invented their own names, in Macedonian style that have an obvious meaning in Greek.


Originally posted by Chilbudios


One last contribution for today is about the Macedonian diallect/language and its features.
 
You're certainly right to doubt that "such an amount of words qualify to characterize a certain phonology" but there are some extra considerations:
 
a) We have a small number of certain Macedonian words (or Greek words in Macedonian pronounciation, whatever the case). As such, while in absolute terms the number is not that impressive, it is more so in relative terms



I agree, but we don't know how much from what we read in inscriptions can be rendered as Macedonian. Maybe, in many cases we cannot distinguish a different written language from Attic. I gave you the example of Cypriots, who write identically to other Greeks, but speak very differently. Unless a local dialect word is used, you can't distinguish Cypriot writtings from mainland Greek.

Originally posted by Chilbudios

b) It is not only a list of words, it is the testimony of ancient authors, as well. Plutarch, in Moralia (Greek Questions, question 9), testifies for this particularity of the Macedonian pronounciation (Plutarch speaks of Macedonian B instead of Ph). I assume the ancient ones must have heard something to write such a thing.


Yes, you're right about that. What i'm questioning is if that is a result of barbarophony or isolation and different development from Southern Greek. As you've seen dialects like Doric and Aeolic that are closer to archaism, still preserved words that included those rules.

Originally posted by Chilbudios


c) The list of words is actually larger. As my previous post was about names and epigraphy, I'll be using Macedonian names to exemplify it. Scholars like O. Masson and M. Hatzopoulos suggested that several names from the inscriptions show this particularity. In IG I3 89, for instance:
Γαιτεας instead of Χαιτεας
Βυργινος instead of Φυρκινος
Σταδμεας instead of Σταθμεας


But both Masson and Hatzopoulos in the end, concluded that Macedonians spoke a separate branch of Greek that followed a different development that the rest. That means, that that phenomenon did not trouble them so much to classify Macedonian as non-Greek because the sound laws.

Since you mentioned Hatzopoulos, here are some comments he made on the voice stops:

the vast majority of personal names, not only were perfectly Greek (Φίλιππος, Ἀλέξανδρος, Παρμενίων, Ἀντίπατρος, Ἀντίοχος, Ἀρσινόη, Εὐρυδίκη) but also presented original traits excluding the possibility of their being borrowed from the Attic dialect, which was the official idiom of the kingdom (Ἀμύντας, Μαχάτας, Ἀλκέτας, Λάαγος), indeed from any other Greek dialect (Πτολεμαῖος, Κρατεύας, Βούπλαγος).

One reason – perhaps the main one – for such resistance to the assimilation of new evidence and persistence of obsolete theories until these very last years is the way in which since the nineteenth century the scholarly discussion about Macedonian speech and its Greek or non-Greek character has focused on the sporadic presence in Macedonian glosses and proper names -- which otherwise looked perfectly Greek -- of the sign of the voiced stop (β, δ, γ) instead of the corresponding unvoiced, originally “aspirated” stop expected in Greek, as for instance in Βάλακρος and Βερενίκα instead of Φάλακρος and Φερενίκα.

What the partisans of such theories have not always explicitly stated is that they all rely on the postulate that the sounds rendered by the signs β, δ, γ in Macedonian glosses and proper names are the direct heirs of the series of voiced “aspirate” stops of Indo-European and do not result from a secondary sonorisation, within Greek, of the series represented by the signs φ, θ, χ. However, one must be wary of short-cuts and simplifications in linguistics. For instance, the sound /t/ in the German word “Mutter” is not the direct heir of the same sound in the Indo-European word *mater, but has evolved from the common Germanic form *moδer, which was the reflex of Indo-European *mater.

The example of Latin demonstrates that the evolution /bh/>/ph/>/f/>/v/>/b/, envisaged above, is perfectly possible. Thus, the form albus (“white”) in Latin does not come directly from Indo-European *albhos. In fact the stem albh- became first alph- and then alf- in Italic, and it was only secondarily that the resulting spirant sonorised into alv- which evolved into alb- in Latin (cf. alfu=albos in Umbrian and ἀλφούς˙ λευκούς in Greek).


He has written a lot, but i just quote some samples. The main point is that none of those you mentioned called Macedonian non-Greek language, but a dialect of separate development.

Basically, Macedonian is a similar case with Arcadian. However, thanks to early Cypriot and Cretan writtings we know Arcadian is Greek developed differently from a native pre-Greek language different from the other pre-greek substances that gave a character to Attic, Aeolic, Doric etc. In early Macedonian inscriptions we don't have complete sentences, like Arcadian to make a profile.

Also, each time i devote myself to this issue, i find new words in different Greek dialects (mainly Doric and Aeolic) that follow the same rules as Macedonian. Those words, are not borrowings but relics of archaism.



Now, i want to show you something interesting i've found. I guess you remember what i earlier said about geographic unrelated phenomenas similar to the Macedonian sound laws? The funny thing is that i found examples in the 2 places i originate from (upper Macedonia and Aeolia). Specifically, the following text is the local dialect of upper Macedonia, dated around the 60s.




Most Greeks, wouldn't understand easily this text. If the difference between Attic and Macedonian were as the text above and Greek Demotic, then it is fully understandable that Attic speakers could not comprehend Macedonians easily.

What is interesting with the modern Macedonian dialect above is the iotaism (use of i instead of Grek e) found in Thessalian, the turn of o to -u like Tsakonian Doric, the vowel dropping (eg. σκώθκι instead of σηκωθηκε and Περδικκας instead  of Περιδικαίος), the use of Δ instead of Θ (δα instead of θα).

Moreover, there are combinations of sounds that are highly unsual in Greek, but still that does not make the text non-Greek or non readable as Greek. Examples: εφκιάνει, σναζουμι, σκωθκι, δλεια. Before commenting that those are phenomenas of foreign influence, note that none of the surrounding languages have θ and δ. I would rather compare them to pre-Greek words like τλάθυμος, αρκρκοκλες̣ etc.

On the use of Δ instead of Θ compare the Macedonian Greek "δα σώσει τουν οργού μπρουστητίρα" and the Palladarian (Aeolia) "δα κολλούσε όλη η χώρα"



As I told you before, Aeolians moved to Aeolia with the comming of the Thessalians. The Aeolic speech of Thessaly probably changed a bit, while in Asia Minor, some archaic elements could have been preserved.

Also, the word κατούνια (furrow) cognates with the Kerkyrian καντούνια (furrow, narrow street). You know the passages about Upper Macedonians when it comes to dress and speech being similar in a line stretching to Epirus and Corfu.

The inscription http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=153303&bookid=172&region=4&subregion=11 - http://epigraphy.packhum.org/inscriptions/oi?ikey=153303&bookid=172&region=4&subregion=11

Ϝαλιος ἐμὶ τῆς Δολίο

could be compared with the above text's "η λάλας κι μι παράτωρσι" where "εμι" and "μι" is the equivalent of standard Greek εμε/με.

Now, another word, that is really suprising in the page above, is the word πιρπιρέϊ (pirpirei) which means butterfly (Greek ψυχάνθη, πεταλούδα) and has it's root to PIE peipel. While in other Greek dialects the meaning is metaphoric (soul of the flower, flying flower), in Macedonian Greek it has kept the PIE version. That could also be a phenomenon of isolation. We don't have an attestation of butterfly in Linear B to know if the Mycenaeans used a PIE rooted word for butterfly before the metaphor, but we know for example that Macedonian Kynagidas is the word used during Mycenaean times in Greece that later changed.

Also, note γνεκις (women, Att. γυναίκες, Aeolic Βανήκες, Myc. Ku-ne-ka, PIE gwen, gwna).

Last, as i told before, skepticism about Macedonian emerged in earlier times when epigraphic evidence was scarce. Even before the curse tablet of pella, the arethousa tablet and some other minor inscriptions, many scholars were quite sure.

John Antwerp Fine, suggests that most modern scholarship (back in 1983) recognise the dialect as Greek and it seems the skepticism was mostly an earlier debate.







-------------


Så nu tar jag fram (k)niven va!


Posted By: medenaywe
Date Posted: 25-Sep-2011 at 07:41
What does it means HeLeN/I?I suppose all words have(had had once) had their meaning of course.Big smile


Posted By: Nick1986
Date Posted: 25-Sep-2011 at 19:17
Originally posted by medenaywe

What does it means HeLeN/I?I suppose all words have(had had once) had their meaning of course.Big smile

Basically the Macedonians believe they're descended from the ancient Greeks. The modern Greeks disagree.

-------------
Me Grimlock not nice Dino! Me bash brains!


Posted By: medenaywe
Date Posted: 25-Sep-2011 at 23:47
Origin of both of them i will not discuss cause there is DNA check today.I believe that original ancestors they
share both,at least 30/34% of population.Genesis of language form  HeLeN&I  as name for ancients and meaning i am looking for!Was this preserved in collective memory of natives and others?



Posted By: Don Quixote
Date Posted: 27-Sep-2011 at 16:58
Modern Macedonians are Slavs, actually the same stock as the modern Bulgarians, and Macedonian lingustically is a dialect of Bulgarian - I can read it without only me native Bulgarian.
As for the ancient Macedonians - I see then as marginal, frontier Greeks, hillbilly Greeks, but Greeks nevertheless.


-------------


Posted By: UnicornBaby9
Date Posted: 18-Oct-2011 at 23:13

The Greeks were cultural revolutionaries that held minds that changed the world, philosphophies that were beyond their time. They were truly the greatest Civilization producing innovations that were created with a single brilliant thought. However, they were wrong on their view towards the Macedonians. Alexander the Great was from this very kingdom and he was no where close to the concept of a barbarian. The story of Alexander and his horse, who i believe was a Unicorn, is an incredibly heartwarming one. The bond between the two was strong beginning when he received the wild Bucephalus (ox faced or Horned one) for his 13th birthday from his father. The creature could not be tamed, well that was until Alexander examined him. He soon realized that the reasoning behind the horse's fear was because of the shadow that was cast when the laborers would climb upon his back. But the young prince repositioned the gentle beast and showed him respect that a great horse(Unicorn) deserved and upon his back he mounted, and off into the future they rode. The two fought as one in many battles, and their friendship only growing stronger over the years. But then many years later when Alexander was around 30, tragedy struck at a grave battle and the mighty Bucephalus fell. This caused Alexander great grief and he named the city after his dear friend and had a statue made in honor of the noble Unicorn. Tragically, Alexander and his horse were connected through a bond much greater than the material world, for but a few years later he passed away as well and together Alexander and Bucephalus galloped away into the afterlife. The term Barbarian sounds like inhumane. But if one heard this story of Alexander and his horse(Unicorn) they would know of Macedonia's inner and outer humanity. And this is the conclusion that history can be interpreted anyway your heart desires, that is the beauty of the past itself, it may be set in stone, but there is still some carving needed to be done.



-------------
10th grade AP World History Student with a passion for history and writing.


Posted By: Nick1986
Date Posted: 19-Oct-2011 at 19:18
Originally posted by UnicornBaby9

The Greeks were cultural revolutionaries that held minds that changed the world, philosphophies that were beyond their time. They were truly the greatest Civilization producing innovations that were created with a single brilliant thought. However, they were wrong on their view towards the Macedonians. Alexander the Great was from this very kingdom and he was no where close to the concept of a barbarian. The story of Alexander and his horse, who i believe was a Unicorn, is an incredibly heartwarming one. The bond between the two was strong beginning when he received the wild Bucephalus (ox faced or Horned one) for his 13th birthday from his father. The creature could not be tamed, well that was until Alexander examined him. He soon realized that the reasoning behind the horse's fear was because of the shadow that was cast when the laborers would climb upon his back. But the young prince repositioned the gentle beast and showed him respect that a great horse(Unicorn) deserved and upon his back he mounted, and off into the future they rode. The two fought as one in many battles, and their friendship only growing stronger over the years. But then many years later when Alexander was around 30, tragedy struck at a grave battle and the mighty Bucephalus fell. This caused Alexander great grief and he named the city after his dear friend and had a statue made in honor of the noble Unicorn. Tragically, Alexander and his horse were connected through a bond much greater than the material world, for but a few years later he passed away as well and together Alexander and Bucephalus galloped away into the afterlife. The term Barbarian sounds like inhumane. But if one heard this story of Alexander and his horse(Unicorn) they would know of Macedonia's inner and outer humanity. And this is the conclusion that history can be interpreted anyway your heart desires, that is the beauty of the past itself, it may be set in stone, but there is still some carving needed to be done.


Somewhat off-topic but a lot more interesting than the typical Greek-Macedonian flame wars we usually see in such threads

-------------
Me Grimlock not nice Dino! Me bash brains!



Print Page | Close Window

Bulletin Board Software by Web Wiz Forums® version 9.56a - http://www.webwizforums.com
Copyright ©2001-2009 Web Wiz - http://www.webwizguide.com