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Was it a good strategy to push Hitler eastwards?

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Category: General History
Forum Name: Alternative History
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Topic: Was it a good strategy to push Hitler eastwards?
Posted By: Bankotsu
Subject: Was it a good strategy to push Hitler eastwards?
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 10:28
British Prime Minister Stanley Baldwin wanted to push Nazi Germany eastwards to destroy the Soviet Union, was this a good strategy?

Two weeks after Munich Baldwin said in a conversation with Lord Hinchingbrooke: "Can't we turn Hitler East? Napoleon broke himself against the Russians. Hitler might do the same".

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stanley_Baldwin#Later_life - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stanley_Baldwin#Later_life








Replies:
Posted By: Parnell
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 14:10
Watch out newcomer. Even suggesting the pre WWII narrative was any different around here will probably lead to accusations of supporting genocide and eating babies. Just watch out for some of the more medieval characters round here who will gang up on you pretty soon...

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Posted By: Parnell
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 14:12
Also I'm skeptical that that was a plan from the British. I think it was more of a case of 'if theres going to be war, better be against the Soviets than against us', most likely working on the principle that a conflict would leave both weaker after it.

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Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 14:43
Just watch out for some of the more medieval characters round here who will gang up on you pretty soon...


Why should they gang up on me?

Britain pushing Hitler eastwards to destroy Soviet Union is nothing new.

Then in July 1936 the Spanish civil war began. Tory ideological dread was brought to a fine edge. The Spanish civil war could lead to a European conflict between ideological blocs; and war could provoke the spread of communist revolution or Soviet influence. It was better, a lot of Tories thought, to turn Germany eastward against the USSR. "Let gallant little Germany glut her fill of reds in the East...," suggested one Tory M.P. (Henry Channon, September 1936). Even the British prime minister, Stanley Baldwin was attracted by the idea.

http://gozips.uakron.edu/%7Emcarley/COLDWAR.html - http://gozips.uakron.edu/%7Emcarley/COLDWAR.html

If last week's news had no other effect, it certainly pepped up diplomatic gossip. Around the embassies went the story about Yang Chieh, Chinese Ambassador to Moscow: The day before the German-Russian pact was announced, Yang Chieh called on Russian Premier Viacheslav Molotov and asked what was up.

Said he with Oriental suavity, he had heard rumors of a German-Russian plan to dismember Poland. . . . Thunderstruck, Premier Molotov gasped, drew back, while the veins of his forehead stood out in his apoplectic fury: this, he reminded his visitor, was the Soviet of Socialist Republics, the fatherland of the toiling masses, the vanguard of the antifascist struggle; that any ambassador could believe such a slander of the Socialist State made him, Molotov, wonder if he was the proper ambassador to be accredited to it. The Chinese Ambassador left, to read in Pravda the next day the laconic notice that the agreement had been made. Molotov hadn't been told.

Premier Molotov, whose name in Russian means Hammer (Stalin means Steel), whose pretty wife Paulina is Commissar of Fisheries and is very close to Stalin, may well have been taken by surprise. If so, his astonishment last week must have mounted hourly. No sooner had the German-Russian pact been hailed as thwarting the foul design of British Tories to direct German expansion to the East than the German Army did what (in the Russian view) Tories had failed to accomplish—i.e., directed German expansion to the East...

http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,761966-1,00.html - http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,761966-1,00.html


The decision to push Germany east to attack USSR was made in 1936 by the British conservative government. These are all facts.





Posted By: pekau
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 15:40

Nothing to worry about, Bankotsu. We had worse in many dark times... and this kind of question isn't offensive from my prospective... it's just pure military strategy questions.

Was it good? I personally don't think it would have been a great choice in the long-term for Britain. British economy was devastated by the war, and they needed to restabilize their economy by making wrecked European economy stable again ASAP. And let's not also forget that Hitler lied to Britain straight in the face numerous times... so why would Britain dare to trust Hitler again? Public opinion against Hitler and his "evil" regime was so strong in Britain, especially after German barrages in London and other coastal regions of UK. Churchill will lose his support steadily gained from the momentum of war.
 
And it's not just Britain. What would Holland, Belgium, France and other nations/resistance movement think if Germans are so easily forgiven against the "evil" USSR? I am pretty sure that France will never buy into truce with Hitler's Germany, and the moral of Allies will collapse.
 
Oh, and let's not forget that USA was heavily supporting USSR at that time. USA thought they need all the support they could get from USSR to defeat Germans and Japanese... so imagine the diplomatic disaster when Britain requests to switch side by supporting Hitler against USSR.
 
Note: My arguement can be proven wrong. I didn't even think straight (Easily observed by my disorganized arguments)


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Posted By: pekau
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 15:43

Just like to add that Britain had little reason to support the losing side. USSR had huge advantage over Hitler's collapsing nation with their numerical advantage. Their troops and armour units were getting better equipment thanks to improvement of mass production, and their soldiers were much more experienced in contrast of freshly recruited soldiers. (Much of experienced officers and soldiers were not in service or killed)



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Posted By: Peteratwar
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 16:00
Originally posted by Bankotsu

[quote]


The decision to push Germany east to attack USSR was made in 1936 by the British conservative government. These are all facts.



 
No such facts but has been theorised before without any real evidence


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 16:09
The British considered war between the two likely and not disadvantagous to UK's interests.

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Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 19:11
Without getting too far into the debate over the extent to which 'pushing' Hitler east was acutally British foreign policy under Baldwin, the fact is that there is a problem which is quite evident in the map you've posted.  That is, prior to the war, Germany and the Soviet Union did not share a common border.  Practically speaking, Germany would have needed to go through Poland.  Needless to say, the Poles were rather sensitive about this prospective, even being as anti-Soviet as they were.  In fact, when it came down to it, British foreign policy was actually to try to avoid a war at all.  After Germany violated the Munich agreement by occupying 'the rest' of Czechoslovakia in March 1939, Chamberlain offered 'guarantees' to various small states, including Poland.  So that policy itself tended to negate the possibility of 'pushing' Germany east.  At least not without involving Britain herself in a war against Germany.  In spite of later Soviet attempts to 'blame' the west for the pact the Soviets signed with Nazi Germany ('blame' which took the form, in part, of accusing the west of planning to do what the Soviets themselve in fact did do, which was to 'turn' Germany in the 'other' direction) the fact is that 'pushing' the Germans east was not British policy under Chamberlain.  In fact Chamberlain's policy was to try to avoid war entirely by addressing specific issues with direct negotiation with and concessions to Germany (i.e. appeasement), while 'freezing' the Soviets out of the negotiations.  I'm not suggesting that it was the best strategy, or an effective strategy (self-defeating to some extent in fact).  However, the later guarantee to Poland makes it clear that British policy was certainly not to 'push' Hitler east.  If anything, it was Hitler who wanted to go east, but he first had to deal with that fact that Britain and France refused to allow him a 'free hand' in central and eastern Europe.

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"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: pekau
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 19:29
Originally posted by deadkenny

Without getting too far into the debate over the extent to which 'pushing' Hitler east was acutally British foreign policy under Baldwin, the fact is that there is a problem which is quite evident in the map you've posted.  That is, prior to the war, Germany and the Soviet Union did not share a common border.  Practically speaking, Germany would have needed to go through Poland.  Needless to say, the Poles were rather sensitive about this prospective, even being as anti-Soviet as they were.  In fact, when it came down to it, British foreign policy was actually to try to avoid a war at all.  After Germany violated the Munich agreement by occupying 'the rest' of Czechoslovakia in March 1939, Chamberlain offered 'guarantees' to various small states, including Poland.  So that policy itself tended to negate the possibility of 'pushing' Germany east.  At least not without involving Britain herself in a war against Germany.  In spite of later Soviet attempts to 'blame' the west for the pact the Soviets signed with Nazi Germany ('blame' which took the form, in part, of accusing the west of planning to do what the Soviets themselve in fact did do, which was to 'turn' Germany in the 'other' direction) the fact is that 'pushing' the Germans east was not British policy under Chamberlain.  In fact Chamberlain's policy was to try to avoid war entirely by addressing specific issues with direct negotiation with and concessions to Germany (i.e. appeasement), while 'freezing' the Soviets out of the negotiations.  I'm not suggesting that it was the best strategy, or an effective strategy (self-defeating to some extent in fact).  However, the later guarantee to Poland makes it clear that British policy was certainly not to 'push' Hitler east.  If anything, it was Hitler who wanted to go east, but he first had to deal with that fact that Britain and France refused to allow him a 'free hand' in central and eastern Europe.
 
Indeed, Britain desparately tried to make "balance of power" concept intact in European continent. And it is also true that Hitler was more leaning into Eastern expansion rather than to west. (Hitler tried to forge alliance with Britain, and he himself admired British Empire.) Hitler didn't really hate French (Except French resistance... but that's different topic here). Lebensraum was his grand and detail plan of how to takeover Eastern Europe. (Maybe his Austrian blood has some connection to this? Anyone know the answer?) Hitler's armies occupied Western Europe, but no huge Nazi influence affected Western Europe. Other than hunting down non-Aryan race and collecting supplies for war effort, the governments in Western Europe remained intact. (ex. Hitler didn't really care whether Spain was part of his regime or not, as long as he was his ally) Generalplan Ost was part of Hitler's meticulous planning of what to do once these regions are conquered.
 
Clearly, it should be agreed that Hitler prioritized East. Why, I can't really say... 
 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lebensraum - Lebensraum .


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 21:24

It was England's, then Great Britain's than the United Kingdom's policy since Henry VIII that there could be no one power on the continent. It coloured the foreign policy against Charles V, against Phillip II, against old Louis XIV, against Napoleon, against the Russians, against the Germans. Not always successful, but always pursued. So the idea is not out of here.

 
 


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Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 08-Jun-2008 at 17:14
Started this topic at Armchairgeneral forum and got banned after they couldn't win the argument with me:

http://www.armchairgeneral.com/forums/showthread.php?t=63840 - http://www.armchairgeneral.com/forums/showthread.php?t=63840

Really pathetic behaviour of the moderators there.


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 05:01
Can anyone tell me why most british people despise this interpretation of history?

The view that Britain turned Nazi Germany eastwards to destroy Soviet Union?

...And by this date, certain members of the Milner Group and of the British Conservative government had reached the fantastic idea that they could kill two birds with one stone by setting Germany and Russia against one another in Eastern Europe.

In this way they felt that the two enemies would stalemate one another, or that Germany would become satisfied with the oil of Rumania and the wheat of the Ukraine.  It never occurred to anyone in a responsible position that Germany and Russia might make common cause, even temporarily, against the West.

Even less did it occur to them that Russia might beat Germany and thus open all Central Europe to Bolshevism.

In order to carry out this plan of allowing Germany to drive eastward against Russia, it was necessary to do three things:


(1) to liquidate all the countries standing between Germany and Russia; 
(2) to prevent France from honoring her alliances with these countries;  and
(3) to hoodwink the English people into accepting this as a necessary, indeed, the only solution to the international problem.

The Chamberlain group were so successful in all three of these things that they came within an ace of succeeding, and failed only because of the obstinacy of the Poles, the unseemly haste of Hitler, and the fact that at the eleventh hour the Milner Group realized the implications of their policy and tried to reverse it...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html


When I presented this view at http://www.armchairgeneral.com/forums/ - http://www.armchairgeneral.com/forums/ , the moderators and a clique of forum posters despised it so much that they banned me without even a warning whatsoever.

This is how much they hate and despise this view.

Why is this so?

Why some british people hate the view of Britain turned Nazi Germany eastwards to destroy Soviet Union?


Posted By: snowybeagle
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 08:18
Could it be that many British today descended from refugees from the countries used as sacrificial lambs, and found the notion abhorrent?


Posted By: Peteratwar
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 08:29
This is a strange theorey which gets promulgated on many forums and has yet to provide any proof that any such strategy ever existed.
 
No doubt there might have been many at the time who thought 'wouldn't it be nice if.....'
 
However that is quite another thing.
 
Pushing Germany Eastward to destroy Russia would have destroyed the basis of British Foreign Policy for centuries. Do not allow one country to become predominant in Europe. There should always be a balance. Allowing Germany to destroy Russia would negate that policy.


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 08:32
I think we should respect historical truth.

So British textbooks should change to reflect this truth.

Japan also don't like to discuss about WWII history.

North Korean textbooks also say South Korea attacked first and was the aggressor in korean war.

Britain turn Germany eastwards to destroy Soviet Union also missing in english textbooks.

Very sad for historical truth.




Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 08:37
Britain's anti-bolshevik view which was executed as policy under Chamberlain regime:

Date: 04 Aug 1936
Scope/content:

Letter from Major-General Sir Hugh Tudor, St John's Newfoundland, Canada to WSC, on the European situation. Commenting that Britain should make a strong western pact with France and Germany, and allow Germany to "settle" the Soviet Union and Bolshevism "in her own way". Stating that Germany would eventually be stronger after defeating Russia, and it would take years before her to be in a position to make war again. "Russia deserves what is coming to her as she will never stop undermining capitalistic governments in every way she can." Commenting that if left alone Russia would be the stongest power on earth in 10 years, and may be a more dangerous enemy than Germany. Praising WSC for "bradawling" the Government over re-armament.

http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1169093;sort_by=Dscore;index=4 - http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1169093;sort_by=Dscore;index=4

Date: 16 Aug 1936
Scope/content:

Letter from WSC to Major-General Sir Hugh Tudor, thanks for letter on the European political situation. Commenting that a strong and growing section of Conservative opinion agreed with Tudor that Britain should form a strong Western Alliance with France and Germany, leaving Germany free to deal with the Soviet Union.


http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1169095;sort_by=Dscore;index=105 - http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1169095;sort_by=Dscore;index=105






Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 08:42
...Eden noted in his diary after talks with Hitler:"Only thing Hitler wants is Air Pact without limitation. Simon much inclined to bite at this....I had to protest and he gave up the idea.... Simon toys with the idea of letting Germany expand eastwards. I am strongly against. Apart from dishonesty it would be out turn next"(cited in Dutton 1994, 50)...



http://books.google.com.sg/books?id=UyMXon0JmBsC&pg=PA107&lpg=PA107&dq=edens+diary+1935+hitler+simon+&source=web&ots=A58iIH7xr6&sig=IChZUDHy4vJ-mJ8C112mq56Mfks&hl=en - http://books.google.com.sg/books?id=UyMXon0JmBsC&pg=PA107&lpg=PA107&dq=eden's+diary+1935+hitler+simon+&source=web&ots=A58iIH7xr6&sig=IChZUDHy4vJ-mJ8C112mq56Mfks&hl=en



Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 08:43
Originally posted by Bankotsu


In order to carry out this plan of allowing Germany to drive eastward against Russia, it was necessary to do three things:


(1) to liquidate all the countries standing between Germany and Russia; 
(2) to prevent France from honoring her alliances with these countries;  and
(3) to hoodwink the English people into accepting this as a necessary, indeed, the only solution to the international problem.

The Chamberlain group were so successful in all three of these things that they came within an ace of succeeding, and failed only because of the obstinacy of the Poles, the unseemly haste of Hitler, and the fact that at the eleventh hour the Milner Group realized the implications of their policy and tried to reverse it...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html
 
 
This part is simply wrong.  Chamberlain offered a guarantee to Poland and honoured it when Germany attacked.  Britain also insisted that France honour their treaty to Poland.  Those claims were only true with respect to Czechoslovakia.  Even then, Germany was only supposed to occupy the largely German areas in the Sudetenland.  But even with the rest of Czechoslovakia, Germany was still not in a position to 'get at' the Soviet Union.  So the historical fact is that, contray to the claim being made,  Britian stood in the way of Germany attacking the Soviet Union, by their agreement with Poland.  Thus Hitler was forced to make a deal with the Soviet Union himself in order to 'deal with' the western powers before he could turn east.  The fact is that the theory is flawed because Hitler himself was interested in conquering territory in the east, it did not require Britain to 'direct', 'push' or 'force' him in that direction.  Further, Britain stood in the way of Hitler's plans to move east by the guarantee to Poland. 


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"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 08:49
Then in July 1936 the Spanish civil war began. Tory ideological dread was brought to a fine edge. The Spanish civil war could lead to a European conflict between ideological blocs; and war could provoke the spread of communist revolution or Soviet influence.

It was better, a lot of Tories thought, to turn Germany eastward against the USSR.

"Let gallant little Germany glut her fill of reds in the East...," suggested one Tory M.P.
(Henry Channon, September 1936).

Even the British prime minister, Stanley Baldwin was attracted by the idea...

http://gozips.uakron.edu/%7Emcarley/COLDWAR.html - http://gozips.uakron.edu/%7Emcarley/COLDWAR.html

...There is one danger, of course, which has probably been in all your minds - supposing the Russians and Germans got fighting and the French went in as allies of Russia owing to that appalling pact they made, you would not feel you were obligated to go and help France, would you? If there is any fighting in Europe to be done, I should like to see the Bolshies and the Nazis doing it...

-
Stanlery Baldwin

http://books.google.com/books?id=qVMXHWtCeAUC&pg=PA183&dq=There+is+one+danger,+of+course,+which+has+probably+been+in+all+your+minds+-+supposing+the+Russians+and+Germans+got+fighting+and+the+French+went+in+as+allies+of+Russia+owing+to+that+appalling+pact+they+made,+you+would+not+feel+you+were+obligated+to+go+and&sig=-Tbur7sRqO_wXGxBVXtKo1b3QkU - http://books.google.com/books?id=qVMXHWtCeAUC&pg=PA183&dq=There+is+one+danger,+of+course,+which+has+probably+been+in+all+your+minds+-+supposing+the+Russians+and+Germans+got+fighting+and+the+French+went+in+as+allies+of+Russia+owing+to+that+appalling+pact+they+made,+you+would+not+feel+you+were+obligated+to+go+and&sig=-Tbur7sRqO_wXGxBVXtKo1b3QkU


Two weeks after Munich Baldwin said in a conversation with Lord Hinchingbrooke: "Can't we turn Hitler East? Napoleon broke himself against the Russians. Hitler might do the same"...

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stanley_Baldwin#Later_life - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stanley_Baldwin#Later_life

 


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 08:57
So the historical fact is that, contray to the claim being made,  Britian stood in the way of Germany attacking the Soviet Union, by their agreement with Poland. 


The history is more complex I am afraid. Read through the entire source below:

The unilateral guarantee to Poland given by Chamberlain on 31 March 1939 was also a reflection of what he believed the voters wanted.  He had no intention of ever fulfilling the guarantee if it could possibly be evaded and, for this reason, refused the Polish requests for a small rearmament loan and to open immediate staff discussions to implement the guarantee.

As a result, the guarantee was worded to cover Polish “independence” and not her “territorial integrity.” 

This was interpreted by the leading article of The Times for 1 April to leave the way open to territorial revision without revoking the guarantee.  This interpretation was accepted by Chamberlain in Commons on 3 April.

Apparently the government believed that it was making no real commitment because, if war broke out in eastern Europe, British public opinion would force the government to declare war on Germany, no matter what the government itself wanted, and regardless whether the guarantee existed or not.

 On the other hand, a guarantee to Poland might deter Hitler from precipitating a war and give the government time to persuade the Polish government to yield the Corridor to Germany.  If the Poles could not be persuaded, or if Germany marched, the fat was in the fire anyway;  if the Poles could be persuaded to yield, the guarantee was so worded that Britain could not act under it to prevent such yielding.  This was to block any possibility that British public opinion might refuse to accept a Polish Munich. 

That this line of thought was not far distant from British government circles is indicated by a Reuters news dispatch released on the same day that Chamberlain gave the guarantee to Poland.

This dispatch indicated that, under cover of the guarantee, Britian would put pressure on Poland to make substantial concessions to Hitler through negotiations.  According to Hugh Dalton, Labour M.P., speaking in Commons on 3 April, this dispatch was inspired by the government and was issued through either the Foreign Office, Sir Horace Wilson, John Simon, or Samuel Hoare.  Three of these four were of the Milner Group, the fourth being the personal agent of Chamberlain.  Dalton’s charge was not denied by any government spokesman, Hoare contenting himself with a request to Dalton “to justify that statement.”  Another M.P. of Churchill’s group suggested that Geoffrey Dawson was the source, but Dalton rejected this...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html

The German Foreign Ministry memorandum on this conversation makes it perfectly clear that the Germans did not misunderstand Halifax except, possibly, on the last point. 

There they failed to see that if Germany made war, the British Government would be forced into the war against Germany by public opinion in England. 

The German diplomatic agents in London, especially the Ambassador, Dirksen, saw this clearly, but the Government in Berlin listened only to the blind and conceited ignorance of Ribbentrop.

As dictators themselves, unfamiliar with the British social or constitutional systems, the German rulers assumed that the willingness of the British Government to accept the liquidation of Austria, Czechoslovakia, and Poland implied that the British Government would never go to war to prevent this liquidation.

They did not see that the British Government might have to declare war to stay in office if public opinion in Britain were sufficiently aroused.  The British Government saw this difficulty and as a last resort were prepared to declare war but not to wage war on Germany.  This distinction was not clear to the Germans and was not accepted by the inner core of the Milner Group.

It was, however, accepted by the other elements in the government, like Chamberlain himself, and by much of the second circle of the Milner Group, including Simon, Hoare, and probably Halifax. 

It was this which resulted in the “phony war” from September 1939 to April 1940...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html



The fact is that the theory is flawed because Hitler himself was interested in conquering territory in the east, it did not require Britain to 'direct', 'push' or 'force' him in that direction.


Yes, Hitler wanted to go east and Britain did not oppose and even encouraged it.

They allowed and turned Germany east because they hoped that it would lead to a German-Soviet war.




Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 09:04
According to historian Eric Hobsbawn:

"Many a good conservative felt, especially in Britain, that the best of all solutions would be a German-Soviet war, weakening, perhaps destroying both enemies, and a defeat of Bolshevism by a weakened Germany would be no bad thing".

http://joehendren.blogspot.com/2005/10/nazis-well-established-baggage-of-far.html - http://joehendren.blogspot.com/2005/10/nazis-well-established-baggage-of-far.html


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 09:07
The British strategy for dealing with Germany found initial expression in Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain's 'appeasement' policy. The purpose of Chamberlain's 1938 Munich agreement to give the Sudetenland to Germany was, in fact, to push the Germans to the east and into confrontation with the Soviet Union.

http://rwor.org/a/076/ww2-en.htmlrwor.org/a/076/ww2-en.html - http://rwor.org/a/076/ww2-en.html


Beijing, February 18, 1973, 2:43–7:15 p.m.

Talks between Chou En-lai, Premier of China and Dr. Henry A. Kissinger, Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs:

PM Chou: Originally Western Europe had hoped that Germany would go eastwards.

Dr. Kissinger: Western Europe.

PM Chou: At Munich.

Dr. Kissinger: Yes, at Munich. Western Europe had very superficial leaders. They didn’t have the courage to pursue any policy towards a conclusion. Once they had done Munich it made no sense to fight for Poland. But that is a different issue. And I don’t blame Stalin, because from his point of view he gained himself the essential time.

PM Chou: But there was one weak point, that they were not sufficiently prepared.

Dr. Kissinger: That is right.

PM Chou: They did make preparations but they were not entirely sufficient. And in Zhukov’s memoirs he also touched upon this. Have you read this?

Dr. Kissinger: Yes. And they deployed their forces too far forward.

PM Chou: Also scattered in three directions.

Dr. Kissinger: So, but the basic point that I want to make is not to debate history but to say the lessons of both wars are that once a big war starts its consequences are unpredictable, and a country which encourages a big war in the hope that it can calculate its consequences is likely to produce a disaster for itself. The Germans had made very careful plans in World War I, and they had exercised them for 30 years, but when the war . . .

PM Chou: You mean after the Pact of Berlin?

Dr. Kissinger: World War I—1914—the Schlieffen Plan.

PM Chou: You mean after the Treaty of Berlin.

Dr. Kissinger: Oh, after 1878, yes, that’s right. But they had exercised the Schlieffen Plan every year after 1893, for 21 years, and they had calculated everything except the psychological strain on a commander under battle conditions. So they thought they were starting a 6-months war and they wound up with a 4-year war. Not one European leader in 1914, if he had known what the world would look like in 1918, would have gone to war. And nor would Hitler in 1939. Let us apply it to the current situation, these observations. If one analyzes the problem of pushing the Soviet Union toward the East, or maybe you trying to push it towards the West . . .

http://www.state.gov/documents/organization/100320.pdf - http://www.state.gov/documents/organization/100320.pdf
http://www.state.gov/r/pa/ho/frus/nixon/xviii/ - http://www.state.gov/r/pa/ho/frus/nixon/xviii/


Posted By: Peteratwar
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 09:35
As I said not an iota of proof nor of evidence. A lot of innuendo, phrases taken out of whole conversations, people thinking that something would be nice BUT not a shred of evidence to contradict Britains' bedrock of not allowing any one power to dominate in Europe whoever it was.


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 09:54
BUT not a shred of evidence to contradict Britains' bedrock of not allowing any one power to dominate in Europe whoever it was.


Britain's main worry was Soviet Union.

That is why they let and encouraged Hitler to go east so as to instigate a war of mutual annihilation between Germany and USSR.

Did Chamberlain allow German to go east?

Yes, he did.

When Hitler wanted to expand eastwards during 1938-1939, Britain under Chamberlain regime did not oppose Hitler.

Chamberlain's policy was to collude with fascism. One of his first acts was to send Sir Nevile Henderson ("Our nazi ambassador to Berlin", as he became derisively known). Henderson drew up a 'Memorandum on British Policy Towards Germany'. This called for a comprehensive Anglo-German agreement which would include the demarcation of spheres of influence, world markets and raw material sources, and also colonial possessions. The whole sense of such an agreement would boil down to guaranteeing Britain her colonial possessions and preserving her great-power positions, having met Hitler's expansionist claims at the expense of other states (notably the USSR).

At Halifax 's first meeting with Hitler he praised the Fuhrer for having turned Germany into a 'bulwark of the West against Bolshevism' and put his imprimatur on German ambitions: 'All other questions', ran the minutes of the talks, 'could be said to relate to changes in the European order, changes that would probably take place sooner or later. Among these questions were Danzig, Austria and Czechoslovakia. England was only interested that any changes should be brought about by peaceful evolution'...

http://www.columbia.edu/%7Elnp3/mark_jones/appeasement.htm - http://www.columbia.edu/~lnp3/mark_jones/appeasement.htm






Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 09:59
Date: 08 Jan 1939
Scope/content:

Letter from WSC (Chateau de L'Horizon, Cannes) to CSC, reporting on visit to Paris, where he had meetings with Paul Reynaud, Sir Eric Phipps, Leon Blum, discussing French relations with Italy and Germany, also discussing fear in London that Hitler would turn against Britain, instead of going to the East...


http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1169092;sort_by=Dscore;index=169 - http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1169092;sort_by=Dscore;index=169



Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 11:03
Originally posted by Bankotsu

According to historian Eric Hobsbawn:

"Many a good conservative felt, especially in Britain, that the best of all solutions would be a German-Soviet war, weakening, perhaps destroying both enemies, and a defeat of Bolshevism by a weakened Germany would be no bad thing".

http://joehendren.blogspot.com/2005/10/nazis-well-established-baggage-of-far.html - http://joehendren.blogspot.com/2005/10/nazis-well-established-baggage-of-far.html
Well, he would say that, wouldn't he?
He joined the http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Socialist_Schoolboys&action=edit&redlink=1 - Socialist Schoolboys in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1931 - 1931 and the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Communist - Communist party in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1936 - 1936 . He was member of the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Communist_Party_Historians_Group - Communist Party Historians Group from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1946 - 1946 to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1956 - 1956 . The http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hungarian_Revolution_of_1956 - Soviet Invasion of Hungary in 1956 marked the end of the Communist Party Historian's Group and led most of its members to remove themselves from the British http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Communist_Party - Communist Party . Hobsbawm, uniquely among his colleagues, remained in the Party, however, going so far as to defend the Soviet invasion of Hungary.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hobsbawm - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hobsbawm
 


-------------


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 11:05
Originally posted by Bankotsu

Date: 08 Jan 1939
Scope/content:

Letter from WSC (Chateau de L'Horizon, Cannes) to CSC, reporting on visit to Paris, where he had meetings with Paul Reynaud, Sir Eric Phipps, Leon Blum, discussing French relations with Italy and Germany, also discussing fear in London that Hitler would turn against Britain, instead of going to the East...


http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1169092;sort_by=Dscore;index=169 - http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1169092;sort_by=Dscore;index=169

 
There was probably 'fear in London' that Hitler would do that. It should not be read into that that Britain, either the government or the people, was afraid of Hitler.
 
It needs to be borne in mind that for most people in England Hitler was still a comic figure.


-------------


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 11:31
gcle2003, you pointed out that Eric Hobsbawn is biased in favour of communists.

That is quite true, but his statement that many british conservatives favoured a German-Soviet war is not wrong. I have already quoted some sources showing that.

It is not just communists who say that, non-communists also agree, for example, Kissinger.

See:

http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA88&vq=the+popular+front+our+task&dq=william+dodd+lothian+german+east+soviet&source=gbs_search_s&sig=A8sifFD2Te-baY2a1HesbZVqYhc - http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA88&vq=the+popular+front+our+task&dq=william+dodd+lothian+german+east+soviet&source=gbs_search_s&sig=A8sifFD2Te-baY2a1HesbZVqYhc

http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA168&vq=spain+in+the+web+east+west&sig=ApoEhmqPmYvQCXY--6l4kD5Al-Q - http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA168&vq=spain+in+the+web+east+west&sig=ApoEhmqPmYvQCXY--6l4kD5Al-Q

http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA178&vq=british+historians&source=gbs_search_s&sig=DOdW4Mp8sbfB3gDPLwk9-TRzjaI#PPA650,M1 - http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA178&vq=british+historians&source=gbs_search_s&sig=DOdW4Mp8sbfB3gDPLwk9-TRzjaI#PPA650,M1



Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 15:21
Originally posted by Bankotsu

So the historical fact is that, contray to the claim being made,  Britian stood in the way of Germany attacking the Soviet Union, by their agreement with Poland. 


The history is more complex I am afraid. Read through the entire source below:

The unilateral guarantee to Poland given by Chamberlain on 31 March 1939 was also a reflection of what he believed the voters wanted.  He had no intention of ever fulfilling the guarantee if it could possibly be evaded and, for this reason, refused the Polish requests for a small rearmament loan and to open immediate staff discussions to implement the guarantee.

As a result, the guarantee was worded to cover Polish “independence” and not her “territorial integrity.” 

This was interpreted by the leading article of The Times for 1 April to leave the way open to territorial revision without revoking the guarantee.  This interpretation was accepted by Chamberlain in Commons on 3 April.

Apparently the government believed that it was making no real commitment because, if war broke out in eastern Europe, British public opinion would force the government to declare war on Germany, no matter what the government itself wanted, and regardless whether the guarantee existed or not.

 On the other hand, a guarantee to Poland might deter Hitler from precipitating a war and give the government time to persuade the Polish government to yield the Corridor to Germany.  If the Poles could not be persuaded, or if Germany marched, the fat was in the fire anyway;  if the Poles could be persuaded to yield, the guarantee was so worded that Britain could not act under it to prevent such yielding.  This was to block any possibility that British public opinion might refuse to accept a Polish Munich....

 
Sorry, but this just amounts to so much 'dancing around' the historical fact that Britain declared war on Germany when Germany attacked Poland.  Even if your point about ceding the corridor is correct, it is moot in the context of the discussion since giving the 'corridor' and Danzig to Germany STILL does not provide them with an avenue for attacking the Soviet Union.  You are still left with the fact that Britain created a situation where Germany could not practically 'go east' without ending up in conflict with Britain and France, which directly contradicts the theory you are trying to put forward.  Unsubstantiated claims and 'newpaper speculation' (at the time) regarding intentions is not convincing.


-------------
"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 15:44
Originally posted by Bankotsu

The British strategy for dealing with Germany found initial expression in Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain's 'appeasement' policy. The purpose of Chamberlain's 1938 Munich agreement to give the Sudetenland to Germany was, in fact, to push the Germans to the east and into confrontation with the Soviet Union.

http://rwor.org/a/076/ww2-en.htmlrwor.org/a/076/ww2-en.html - http://rwor.org/a/076/ww2-en.html


Beijing, February 18, 1973, 2:43–7:15 p.m.

Talks between Chou En-lai, Premier of China and Dr. Henry A. Kissinger, Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs:

PM Chou: Originally Western Europe had hoped that Germany would go eastwards.

Dr. Kissinger: Western Europe.

PM Chou: At Munich.

Dr. Kissinger: Yes, at Munich. Western Europe had very superficial leaders. They didn’t have the courage to pursue any policy towards a conclusion. Once they had done Munich it made no sense to fight for Poland. But that is a different issue. And I don’t blame Stalin, because from his point of view he gained himself the essential time.

PM Chou: But there was one weak point, that they were not sufficiently prepared.

Dr. Kissinger: That is right.

PM Chou: They did make preparations but they were not entirely sufficient. And in Zhukov’s memoirs he also touched upon this. Have you read this?

Dr. Kissinger: Yes. And they deployed their forces too far forward.

PM Chou: Also scattered in three directions.

Dr. Kissinger: So, but the basic point that I want to make is not to debate history but to say the lessons of both wars are that once a big war starts its consequences are unpredictable, and a country which encourages a big war in the hope that it can calculate its consequences is likely to produce a disaster for itself. The Germans had made very careful plans in World War I, and they had exercised them for 30 years, but when the war . . .

PM Chou: You mean after the Pact of Berlin?

Dr. Kissinger: World War I—1914—the Schlieffen Plan.

PM Chou: You mean after the Treaty of Berlin.

Dr. Kissinger: Oh, after 1878, yes, that’s right. But they had exercised the Schlieffen Plan every year after 1893, for 21 years, and they had calculated everything except the psychological strain on a commander under battle conditions. So they thought they were starting a 6-months war and they wound up with a 4-year war. Not one European leader in 1914, if he had known what the world would look like in 1918, would have gone to war. And nor would Hitler in 1939. Let us apply it to the current situation, these observations. If one analyzes the problem of pushing the Soviet Union toward the East, or maybe you trying to push it towards the West . . .

http://www.state.gov/documents/organization/100320.pdf - http://www.state.gov/documents/organization/100320.pdf
http://www.state.gov/r/pa/ho/frus/nixon/xviii/ - http://www.state.gov/r/pa/ho/frus/nixon/xviii/
 
Kissinger and Chou?  That supports your theory how exactly?  The fact is that you persist in using the term 'forced' or 'pushed' when that was already the direction that Hitler himself WANTED to go in.  So at most you might accuse Britain of having failed to do enough to 'prevent' Hitler from going east.  But your 'pushed' east theory just doesn't hold water in face of the historical facts.
 


-------------
"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 16:39
Originally posted by Bankotsu

gcle2003, you pointed out that Eric Hobsbawn is biased in favour of communists.

That is quite true, but his statement that many british conservatives favoured a German-Soviet war is not wrong. I have already quoted some sources showing that.

It is not just communists who say that, non-communists also agree, for example, Kissinger.

See:

http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA88&vq=the+popular+front+our+task&dq=william+dodd+lothian+german+east+soviet&source=gbs_search_s&sig=A8sifFD2Te-baY2a1HesbZVqYhc - http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA88&vq=the+popular+front+our+task&dq=william+dodd+lothian+german+east+soviet&source=gbs_search_s&sig=A8sifFD2Te-baY2a1HesbZVqYhc

http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA168&vq=spain+in+the+web+east+west&sig=ApoEhmqPmYvQCXY--6l4kD5Al-Q - http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA168&vq=spain+in+the+web+east+west&sig=ApoEhmqPmYvQCXY--6l4kD5Al-Q

http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA178&vq=british+historians&source=gbs_search_s&sig=DOdW4Mp8sbfB3gDPLwk9-TRzjaI#PPA650,M1 - http://books.google.com/books?id=-VarDLHA3_YC&pg=PA178&vq=british+historians&source=gbs_search_s&sig=DOdW4Mp8sbfB3gDPLwk9-TRzjaI#PPA650,M1

It's perfectly true that the western countries were opposed to Soviet communism, and would be for the rest of the century. It's also understandable. It's also true that some British figures, including cartoon stereotypes like Rothermere, preferred Hitler to Stalin - though it shouldn't be forgotten that until the Anschluss anyway Mussolini was considered a far bigger threat than Hitler.
 
It is also of course true that right up until June 1941, the Communist Party of Great Britain (including Hobsbawm), in common with those in other western countries opposed the war against Hitler, which they denounced as yet another imperialist adventure like WW1. Stalin did a great deal to encourage German revanchism in the early years, long before the 1939 pact, including training his air force.


-------------


Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 18:23
Originally posted by gcle2003

It's perfectly true that the western countries were opposed to Soviet communism, and would be for the rest of the century. It's also understandable. It's also true that some British figures, including cartoon stereotypes like Rothermere, preferred Hitler to Stalin - though it shouldn't be forgotten that until the Anschluss anyway Mussolini was considered a far bigger threat than Hitler.
 
It is also of course true that right up until June 1941, the Communist Party of Great Britain (including Hobsbawm), in common with those in other western countries opposed the war against Hitler, which they denounced as yet another imperialist adventure like WW1. Stalin did a great deal to encourage German revanchism in the early years, long before the 1939 pact, including training his air force.
 
Of course, the collaboration of the Soviet Union with Nazi Germany is an episode that communists would prefer to forget - or to try to blame on the west.  A better question than that of this thread (i.e. regarding Britain supposedly 'pushing' Hitler east, which is based on a dubious premise) might be whether Stalin 'pushing'  Hitler west was a good idea.  In the short term it gave the Soviet Union a 'free hand' in eastern Europe (during which the Soviets attacked / occupied all or part of every one of their European neighbors) and the Soviets obtained German industry machinery as 'payment' for the raw materials they were providing to Germany.  However, end result was that it allowed Germany to concentrate on a 'one-front' war, and thereby to defeat France.  The peoples of the Soviet Union paid a heavy price for Stalin's shortsighted decision to 'push' Hitler west.


-------------
"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 20:14

....this feels like familiar territory so I felt it would be useful to ‘cherry-pick’ from a previous post on a similar topic…

 

…..while some continue to revise all commonly accepted, credible, and resourced reasons regarding Nazi foreign policy motivation, and seem convinced that Mr Hitler was ‘guided’ and encouraged by Britain to ‘go east’, it might be prudent to take a look at Hitler’s foreign policy ideas before any meaningful political contact between the Nazi’s and British government….…I have deliberately focussed on the book by ‘Noakes and Pridham’ as it is a comprehensive collection of primary source documents and free from bias and ‘revisionist’ thinking…..

 

…as most people know, Hitler’s first attempt to put forward a reasoned foreign policy was found in his book Mein Kampf written in 1924-25…...even then, Hitler’s ideas were designed to enforce German dominion over Europe and provide the basis for world supremacy……in 1919, he expressed some rather conventional ideas about Germans goals…for example, he focused on the revision of the Versailles Treaty and the acquisition of former lost German colonies and the unification of a Greater Germany...that’s 1919 …not 1936 or 37…it must also be noted that during this time, Hitler regarded Britain and France as the main ‘enemies’…. Not Russia….

 

“Let us look at our enemies! We can divide them into two groups: one group includes the absolute opponents: England and America, the second group: nations which become our opponents as a result of their unfortunate situation or as a result of their circumstances…we have been pursuing a Polish policy since Bismarck’s time”

Speech made on the 10th December 1919 taken from police reports of the episode Nazism 1919-1945 Book 3: Foreign Policy and Racial Extermination eds J. Noakes and G.Pridham 1988.

 

…..Hitler believed Germany was a ‘nation without space’ when compared to Russia, US, Britain and France and believed that the ‘big cities’ and ‘rootless masses’ were easy prey to Marxism …. Hitler’s solution to this was the acquisition of more territory, as we all know, the idea of Lebensraum. To do this however, Hitler realised that he would have to free Germany from the constraints imposed by the Versailles Treaty …Hitler knew he would need allies to take on the might of Britain and France, and initially, he looked towards the possibility of an alliance with Russia. However, in 1919 (that’s 1919 again), Hitler became influenced by a group of Baltic Germans who were refugees from the Russian Revolution, and they convinced Hitler (Baltic Germans, not the British) that the Revolution was the work of the Jews. By this time, Hitler was adopting a firm and aggressive anti-Russian position…..

 

……..In addition, the occupation of the Ruhr region by France in 1923 led Hitler to believe that the French were adopting a policy of dismemberment of Germany. Moreover, he was aware of British opposition to the occupation, and judged this to be a British fear of French hegemony in Europe. Hitler actually felt that an Anglo-German alliance against France was a possibility but such an alliance would also prove to be a barrier to the acquisition of German colonies. Hitler’s problem was how to balance all these shifts of power into a favourable position for Germany. At each and every stage, it was Hitler’s wishes and planning that led to the move eastward. Hitler deduced from all this power-play that the only way Germany could get ‘living-space’ was to take it from Russia. Hitler believed this was the only way to avoid a WWI situation where Germany had to face both Britain and Russia. Hitler had made the decision to move eastwards, it was only a matter of time. (This was 1923 Bankotsu). Hitler made clear this option in Mein Kampf.

 

“…we National Socialists have intentionally drawn a  line under the foreign policy of pre-war Germany….We are putting an end to the perpetual German march towards the south and West of Europe and turning our eyes towards the land in the East….we must principally bear in mind Russia…..destiny itself seems to wish to point the way for us there”…

Mein Kampf cited in Nazism 1919-1945 Book 3: Foreign Policy and Racial Extermination eds J. Noakes and G.Pridham 1988.

-------------


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 10-Jun-2008 at 20:20

....a bit of an afterthought 'post'....

 
....To add to this, Adolf Hitler had already stated on the 11th August 1939 that…

“Everything I undertake is directed against the Russians; if the West is too stupid and blind to grasp this, then I shall be compelled to come to an agreement with the Russians, beat the West, and then after their defeat turn against the Soviet Union with all my forces. I need the Ukraine so they can’t starve us out like in the last war”.

Statement made to Carl Burckhardt, the League of Nations Commissioner in Danzig, 11th August 1939. Cited in Nazism 1919-1945 Book 3: Foreign Policy and Racial Extermination eds J. Noakes and G.Pridham 1988.

 
...The implication here is that Hitler felt that the ‘west’ had proved obstructive in his foreign policy objectives and the ‘west’ would pay for that obstinacy sometime after the defeat of the USSR.....


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Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 05:13
…..while some continue to revise all commonly accepted, credible, and resourced reasons regarding Nazi foreign policy motivation, and seem convinced that Mr Hitler was ‘guided’ and encouraged by Britain to ‘go east’,


'Britain pushed Germany eastwards to destroy Soviet Union' might not be that good a phrase to use to describe british policy of appeasement.

Britain turned and encouraged Germany to go eastwards to destroy Soviet Union' is probably a better term.

Hitler's ambitions to go eastwards is clear enough.

But it still needed encouragement. If Britain opposed Germany going eastwards, Hitler might had dropped his plans.

But Britain did not oppose Germany going east but encouraged Germany going east.

Britain used these ambitions of Hitler to turn the course of German expansion eastwards so as to close the gap between the frontiers of Germany and Russia, hoping that sooner or later, tensions between Germany and Russia will increase and result in a German-Soviet war.

Britain standing aloof from this conflict, can only benefit as the two states destroy each other.

...On 26 November 1937, one week after Halifax’s conversation with Hitler, Chamberlain wrote to his sister that he hoped to satisfy German colonial demands by giving them the Belgian Congo and Angola in place of Tanganyika.  He then added:  “I don’t see why we shouldn’t say to Germany, ‘Give us satisfactory assurances that you won’t use force to deal with the Austrians and Czechoslovakians, and we will give you similar assurances that we won’t use force to prevent the changes you want if you can get them by peaceful means.'

On 3 March 1938, the British Ambassador in Berlin, Nevile Henderson, one of the Chamberlain group, tried to persuade Hitler to begin negotiations to carry out this plan but did not succeed.  He repeated Lord Halifax’s statement that changes in Europe were acceptable to Britain if accomplished without “the free play of forces,” and stated that he personally “had often expressed himself in favour of the Anschluss.”  In the colonial field, he tried to interest Hitler in an area in Africa between the 5th parallel and the Zambezi River, but the Fuhrer insisted that his interest was restricted to restoration of Germany’s 1914 colonies in Africa.

At the famous interview between Hitler and Schuschnigg in February 1938, Hitler told the Austrian that Lord Halifax agreed “with everything he [Hitler] did with respect to Austria and the Sudeten Germans.”  This was reported in a “rush and strictly confidential” message of 16 February 1938 from the American Consul General in Vienna to Secretary of State Hull, a document released to the American press on 18 December 1948...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html

So, to summerise, did Hitler wanted to expand eastwards?

Yes, that was no secret.

What was the attitude of Britain towards Hitler's ambitions?

Britain did not oppose these ambitions but seeked to encourage and bring it to reality. But why Britain no oppose but encourage?

Their aim was to turn Germany eastwards to destroy the Soviet Union.




Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 05:19
Mao Zedong's talk with British ex-prime minister Edward Heath:

  
Heath: I think the Soviet Union has a lot of troubles. They are facing domestic economic difficulties and agricultural predicament, and there are also differences within the leadership, over questions of tactics and timing, not over long-term strategy.

Mao: I think the Soviet Union is busy with its own affairs and unable to deal with Europe, the Middle East, South Asia, China and the Pacific. I think it will lose.

Heath: However, its military strength is continually augmented. Although the Soviet Union has encountered troubles at many places in the world, its strength is continuing to grow. Therefore, we deem this to be the principal threat. Does the Chairman think the Soviet Union constitutes a menace to China?

Mao: We are prepared for it to come, but it will collapse if it comes. It has only a handful of troops, and you Europeans are so frightened of it!

Some people in the West are always trying to direct this calamity toward China.

Your senior, Chamberlain, and also Daladier of France were the ones who pushed Germany eastward.

Heath: I opposed Mr. Chamberlain then.

http://english.pladaily.com.cn/special/mao/txt/w24.htm - http://english.pladaily.com.cn/special/mao/txt/w24.htm



Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 05:23
...We are told sometimes that the criminal plot of the two dictatorships –  Stalin’s and Hitler’s – was legitimate under the international law of the time. What’s more, it constituted a justified or even essential defense in view of the Munich Agreement concluded in September 1938 among Nazi Germany, Italy, the United Kingdom and France.

That treaty was designed to channel German aggression eastward.


True, it was a shameful Agreement conceived to appease the aggressor at the expense of Czechoslovakia...

-
Mr. Adam Daniel ROTFELD, Minister for Foreign Affairs of the Republic of Poland, speech at Fifty-ninth session of the General Assembly of the United Nations.

http://www.polandun.org/templates/statementRotfeld09may.html - http://www.polandun.org/templates/statementRotfeld09may.html


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 05:38
Another point to note is that Britain's policy of appeasement of Germany wasn't a passive policy but an active policy.

It wasn't that Hitler wanted to annex states to the east and Britain just "let him be". Britain just appeased his desires.

Not at all.

Britain's policy of appeasement of Germany was part of an active policy to reach an anglo-german settlement of their mutual differences.

This point is often not emphasized in english history books.

Britain was the first to carry out diplomatic moves to start negotiations to reach this anglo-german settlement. As part of this anglo-german deal, Britain was willing to allow Hitler to annex Austria, Sudetenland, Danzig and also the polish corridor.

...And it was Halifax who opened the third and last stage of appeasement in November 1937 by his visit to Hitler in Berchtesgaden.

It is probable that the groundwork for Halifax’s visit to Hitler had been laid by the earlier visits of Lords Lothian and Londonderry to the same host, but our knowledge of these earlier events is too scanty to be certain.

Of Halifax’s visit, the story is now clear, as a result of the publication of the German Foreign Office memorandum on the subject and Keith Feiling’s publication of some of the letters from Neville Chamberlain to his sister.  The visit was arranged by Halifax himself, early in November 1937, at a time when he was Acting Foreign Secretary, Eden being absent in Brussels at a meeting of signers of the Nine-Power Pacific Treaty of 1922.

As a result, Halifax had a long conversation with Hitler on 19 November 1937 in which, whatever may have been Halifax’s intention, Hitler’s government became convinced of three things:

(a) that Britain regarded Germany as the chief bulwark against communism in Europe;
(b) that Britain was prepared to join a Four Power agreement of France, Germany, Italy, and herself;  and
(c) that Britain was prepared to allow Germany to liquidate Austria, Czechoslovakia, and Poland if this could be done without provoking a war into which the British Government, however unwillingly, would be dragged in opposition to Germany...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html


Details of this anglo-german settlement proposed by the Chamberlain regime to Hitler was leaked to the press in November 1937, TIME run an article on it:


...The Yorkshire Post, owned by Mrs. Eden's family, did its best to sabotage Lord Halifax's visit. It was rebuked by the London Daily Telegraph (which is close to Mr. Chamberlain) for printing rumors that "There exist and are known to Germany to exist in this country [Britain] a "certain number of people—not all of them obscure [Halifax & friends]— who would be prepared to welcome a German campaign of territorial expansion in the East [Austria, Czechoslovakia, Russia] if by that means Germany could for the time being be diverted from exploiting her nuisance value in other directions [colonies].

Accordingly it requires no great exercise of the imagination to conjecture that Hitler at his meeting with Viscount Halifax will test the ground for some such policy." To the Chamberlainian Daily Telegraph'?, sharp rebuke for printing this rumor, the Edenesque Yorkshire Post sharply retorted that its information was from a "reliable source."

http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,758455,00.html - http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,758455,00.html



Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 05:55
So why did Chamberlain issue his famous guarantee of Poland on 31 March 1939?

Why did he suddenly decide to oppose Germany expansion eastwards?

Why did he declare war on Poland on 3 September 1939?

I will answer all of these questions.

Everything will become clear.

But first, I hope forummers can take some time to read through the following sources:

http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/06.html#16 - http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/06.html#16
http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/12.html - http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/12.html
http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/13.html - http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/13.html

The explanations of the events of 1938-1939 in europe will become clear.




Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 07:13
Originally posted by Bankotsu

…..while some continue to revise all commonly accepted, credible, and resourced reasons regarding Nazi foreign policy motivation, and seem convinced that Mr Hitler was ‘guided’ and encouraged by Britain to ‘go east’,


'Britain pushed Germany eastwards to destroy Soviet Union' might not be that good a phrase to use to describe british policy of appeasement.

Britain turned and encouraged Germany to go eastwards to destroy Soviet Union' is probably a better term.

Hitler's ambitions to go eastwards is clear enough.

But it still needed encouragement. If Britain opposed Germany going eastwards, Hitler might had dropped his plans.

But Britain did not oppose Germany going east but encouraged Germany going east.

Britain used these ambitions of Hitler to turn the course of German expansion eastwards so as to close the gap between the frontiers of Germany and Russia, hoping that sooner or later, tensions between Germany and Russia will increase and result in a German-Soviet war.

Britain standing aloof from this conflict, can only benefit as the two states destroy each other.

 
Well, no, once again this is incorrect.  Britain declared war on Germany when Germany invaded Poland and thereby forced Hitler to turn west - to finish off France before he was 'free' to attack the Soviet Union.  Hitler was greatly assisted by the Soviets in this turn to the west, which was not Hitler's desire but was forced upon him by British policy.  This theory simply falls apart with faced with undisputed historical fact.  It was not Britain that 'stood aloof' while Germany sought to destroy the Soviet Union.  It was in fact the Soviet Union that greatly assisted Germany as Germany sought to destroy France and Britain.
 
 
Originally posted by Bankotsu

So why did Chamberlain issue his famous guarantee of Poland on 31 March 1939?

Why did he suddenly decide to oppose Germany expansion eastwards?

Why did he declare war on Poland on 3 September 1939?

I will answer all of these questions.

Everything will become clear.

 
Chamberlain provided a guarantee to Poland, and several other small states potentially threatened by Germany in the wake of the German occupation of the remainder of Czecho-Slovakia.  At that point Germany had broken the agreement that they had signed at Munich, and it was finally clear to Chamberlain that Hitler could not be trusted.  Britain declared war on Germany (not Poland) on Sept. 3 after an ultimatum demanding that Germany stop their attack on Poland and withdraw had expired.  What is clear is that you are trying to construct a 'conspiracy theory' of Britain's policy in the pre-war period that clearly contradicts historical facts.  You motivation would appear to be the standard motivation of communists, who seek to absolve Stalin for his 'alliance' with Hitler by 'blaming' the west for 'forcing' Stalin to do so. 


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"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: Sarmat
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 07:24
It's a fact that Brittain and France pushed Germany to the East. The whole Nazi movement appeared and was supported as a counter weight to communism in the West.
 
USSR and communism was viewed as much greater and eminent evil than Hitler.
 
Was it a good policy? Well, judging from practical British and French interests it was a very good policy. But they made 2 big mistakes. They underestimated both Hitler's ambitions and the USSR capabilities. Small Estern European states were pawns in this game nobody took their interests seriously.
 
It started with quite support of right extremist in Italy and Eastern Europe. Then Hitler. Then Spain. All culmitates with the Western bertrayed of Czechoslovakia, then the bertrayal Poland by not providing any meaningful military aid against Germany.
 
All the Soviet attempts to conclude anti German pact were ignored.
 
The result was, however, shocking. USSR being convinced that any negotiations with the West are useless desided to sign the pact with the Nazi devil to buy at least some time before the inevitable conflict. While Hitler ignored all the "peaceful" attitudes and aggresivelly attacked the West.
 
The end of this was much worse that anybody in the West could imagine before the war. Communism stayed firmly now in the center of Europe, stronger than ever...
 
But was that result predictable?
 
Perhaps not, why would Hitler not satisfy just  himself with Czechoslovakia, Austria and Reinland? Why would he attack France first instead of the USSR? Why would USSR sign the pact with Hitler?
 
Those things were very hard to predict before they actually happened.
 
So, from the tactical point of view British policy was wise at a given moment, strategically it turned to be a disaster.
 
Sometimes history opens Pandora box for those who want it to stay close...


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Σαυρομάτης


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 07:24
deadlkenny, don't bother. He won't be convinced by such unreasonable things such as facts.


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Posted By: Sarmat
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 07:27
Originally posted by deadkenny

 What is clear is that you are trying to construct a 'conspiracy theory' of Britain's policy in the pre-war period that clearly contradicts historical facts.  You motivation would appear to be the standard motivation of communists, who seek to absolve Stalin for his 'alliance' with Hitler by 'blaming' the west for 'forcing' Stalin to do so. 
 
It was not a conspiracy it was just an unwise Western foreign policy. No need to search for communists here. Just read Churchill's book about WWII.


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Posted By: Sarmat
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 07:43
Sad, but true..
 
 
1930s-era Soviet poster showing Western powers giving Hitler Czechoslovakia on a dish. Inscription in the flag:"On towards the East!"


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Σαυρομάτης


Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 07:43
Originally posted by Sarmat12

It was not a conspiracy it was just an unwise Western foreign policy. No need to search for communists here. Just read Churchill's book about WWII.
 
We've had this debate before.  I agree that western foreign policy was unwise.  However, it was not based on 'forcing' Hitler east.  Historical fact directly contradicts those claims.  First, Britain was only involved in negotiating one round of 'appeasement' with Hitler, which was Munich.  By giving Germany the Sudtenland, they hoped to peacefully settle a dispute and thereby avoid war.  When only a few months later Germany violated the agreement by the occupation of the remainder of Czecho-Slovakia, the 'appeasement' policy was at an end.  At that point Britain provided the guarantee to Poland (and a number of other small states) which in effect 'forced' Germany to fight the west.  This is where Britain and France 'paid the price' for their earlier attempt to 'freeze out' the Soviet Union from the diplomacy taking place to avoid war.  This is also where the true fraud of the 'pushing Hitler east' theory comes out, as the claim is that Stalin was 'forced' to ally himself with Hitler.  The truth is that Stalin could still have opposed Hitler, or remained neutral.  However, instead, Stalin decided to 'push' Hitler west and profit from the 'free hand' he would have in eastern Europe, by agreement with Hitler.


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"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 07:50
Originally posted by Sarmat12

Sad, but true..
 
 
 
1930s-era Soviet poster showing Western powers giving Hitler Czechoslovakia on a dish. Inscription in the flag:"On towards the East!"
 
Typical clumsy communist propaganda.  First, only the Sudetenland was 'handed' over to Hitler.  The signatory powers were to have 'guaranteed' the remaining territory of Czecho-Slovakia.  When Germany violated that agreement, 'appeasement' was over and the guarantees of small states against German aggression were issued.  Secondly, even with the occupation of all of Czecho-Slovakia, Germany still had no common border with the Soviet Union.  Further, Chamberlain's guarantee ensured that Hitler could not 'get at' the Soviet Union without triggering a war with Britain and France as well.  The effect of British policy was exactly the opposite of what is being claimed - Hitler was 'forced' to fight the west and make an alliance with the Soviet Union as a result of British policy.


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"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: Sarmat
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 07:57
Yes, Stalin could do it in theory. And I'm not trying to acquit him.
 But why would he do it? He was a very cruel and practical person. Why would he think that Britain and France would support him in a potential conflict with Germany and not unite with it against the "Red threat"? Just before the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact, British stance was so uncertain and vague that simply for practical reasons Stalin preferred Hitler. I'm not saying here that Stalin was a peace dove, he was a bloody monster.
 
It was hard for British and French to calculate who was more dangerous Hitler who appeared just talked a lot or Stalin that already killed millions. It was a hard decision indeed, who was more dangerous?
 
Churchill wrote that Hitler was more dangerous and that the British foreign office should have been persistent and reliable in the negotiations with the Soviets. Churchill also says that Czechoslovakia was a disaster. And I agree with Churchill. He hated communism BTW.


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Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 08:04
It's a fact that Brittain and France pushed Germany to the East.


That is true. Britain's strategy of turning Germany eastwards to destroy Soviet Union is historical fact.

Very true.

deadkenny's interpretation of history is mostly the british propagandist version, which is not accurate.

It takes time to unlearn the british propagandist version and learn the more factual and accurate interpretation of history.

Hope the moderators can at least give me a warning before they ban me.Smile

deadkenny and others who opposes and despises my view, all I ask is give me more time to explain the facts.

Britain turn Germany east is true, british propagandist version is false.

That is completely true.

For example, when you want a history of the 1937 Nanjing Massacre, which history textbook do you trust more, the chinese version or the japanese version?

Which version tends to play down, ignore, dismiss or cover up facts?

Which version tends to protray it in more detail?

When you want the truth about Britain's appeasement of Germany, you CANNOT trust british history books.

That is also true.



Russian cartoon about Munich: Chamberlain and Daladier act as traffic policemen; the sign-post reads 'Left - Western Europe, Right - USSR'


Posted By: Sarmat
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 08:06
Originally posted by deadkenny

Typical clumsy communist propaganda.  First, only the Sudetenland was 'handed' over to Hitler.  The signatory powers were to have 'guaranteed' the remaining territory of Czecho-Slovakia.  When Germany violated that agreement, 'appeasement' was over and the guarantees of small states against German aggression were issued.  Secondly, even with the occupation of all of Czecho-Slovakia, Germany still had no common border with the Soviet Union.  Further, Chamberlain's guarantee ensured that Hitler could not 'get at' the Soviet Union without triggering a war with Britain and France as well.  The effect of British policy was exactly the opposite of what is being claimed - Hitler was 'forced' to fight the west and make an alliance with the Soviet Union as a result of British policy.
 
It's just a poster. Not a scientific research on  exact European foreign policy before WWII.
 
But it's funny, however, when one tries to argue how good and wise was the "Munich treason," in fact, the same animal with the "Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact."


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Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 08:09
Typical clumsy communist propaganda.


'Britain turn Germany eastwards to destroy Soviet Union' is communist propaganda is quite true.

But that doesn't mean that the propaganda is false.

In this case the propaganda is completely true.


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 08:11
Sarmat12 , why you support the view of 'Britain turn Germany eastwards to destroy Soviet Union'?

Most english moderators upon hearing of this view, the first thing they want to do is to ban me.

For example, I was banned from Armchairgeneral for propagating this view.


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 08:22
Imagine that the only source of information that you recevied on the 1937 Najing massacre is from Japanese sources.

Japanese history books barely mention about this event. Some extremists even say that it never happened. It is an event Japanese are not proud of.

You have to go to non-Japanese sources to learn the more factual and accurate and detailed versions of this event.

The same is true of Britain's appeasement of Hitler. British history books seldom give the factual and real reasons for that policy. It is a policy that britons are not proud of. They tend to dismiss, ignore, cover up or give propaganda.

You have to go to non-british sources to find out the truth.

I am giving you those sources.




Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 08:27
When a Japanese comes across a chinese historical version of the nanjing massacre, his first reaction is communist propaganda! Anti-japanese propaganda!

The reason is because that he was taught a different interpretation of history in school.

The same reaction can be expected from british people when they first come across:

Falsifiers Of History

http://www.agitprop.org.au/lefthistory/1948_falsifiers_of_history.php - http://www.agitprop.org.au/lefthistory/1948_falsifiers_of_history.php

This is only a natural reaction.



Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 09:02
The Japanese did punish people (before the surender) for the Nanking affair. So its not like a Japanese would be unaware of it.


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Posted By: Peteratwar
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 09:30
Originally posted by Bankotsu

When a Japanese comes across a chinese historical version of the nanjing massacre, his first reaction is communist propaganda! Anti-japanese propaganda!

The reason is because that he was taught a different interpretation of history in school.

The same reaction can be expected from british people when they first come across:

Falsifiers Of History

http://www.agitprop.org.au/lefthistory/1948_falsifiers_of_history.php - http://www.agitprop.org.au/lefthistory/1948_falsifiers_of_history.php

This is only a natural reaction.

The above is hardly the most unbiased of links.
 
However, I still await any EVIDENCE other than comments, alleged conversations etc. None of these are evidence of what British policy was.
 
Have you any governmental sources (i.e. official minutes and the like) which we can look at ?


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 10:08
The above is hardly the most unbiased of links.


It is completely biased in favour of USSR, as it is after all published by a soviet propaganda agency.

Below source by American historian Carroll Quigley would be more neutral:

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html
 

However, I still await any EVIDENCE other than comments, alleged conversations etc. None of these are evidence of what British policy was.
 
Before we touch on the issue of evidence, I hope that there could be some agreement on the basic facts.

(1) The Chamberlain government in 1937 made the decision to reach a general anglo-german settlement and to resolve differences between Germany and Britain.

(2) This policy was executed by Chamberlain government in the years 1937-1939 and eventually failed. The first diplomatic act to carry out this plan for anglo-german settlement was carried by Halifax by his visit to Hitler in November 1937.

Anyone is in disagreement with the above two points?





Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 10:17
According to the analysis by Carroll Quigley:

In the meantime the British government, especially the small group controlling foreign policy, had reached a seven-point decision regarding their attitude toward Germany:

1. Hitler Germany was the front-line bulwark against the spread of Communism in Europe.

2. A four-Power pact of Britain, France, Italy, and Germany to exclude all Russian influence from Europe was the ultimate aim; accordingly, Britain had no desire to weaken the Rome-Berlin Axis, but regarded it and the Anglo-French Entente as the foundation of a stable Europe.

3. Britain had no objection to German acquisition of Austria, Czechoslovakia, and Danzig.

4. Germany must not use force to achieve its aims in Europe, as this would precipitate a war in which Britain would have to intervene because of the pressure of public opinion in Britain and the French system of alliances; with patience, Germany could get its aims without using force.

5. Britain wanted an agreement with Germany restricting the numbers and the use of bombing planes.

6. Britain was prepared to give Germany colonial areas in south-central Africa, including the Belgian Congo and Portuguese Angola if Germany would renounce its desire to recover Tanganyika, which had been taken from Germany in 1919, and if Germany would sign an international agreement to govern these areas with due regard for the rights of the natives, an "open-door" commercial policy, and under some mechanism of international supervision like the mandates.

7. Britain would use pressure on Czechoslovakia and Poland to negotiate with Germany and to be conciliatory to Germany's desires.

To these seven points we should add an eighth: Britain must rearm in order to maintain its position in a "three-bloc world" and to deter Germany from using force in creating its bloc in Europe. This point was supported by Chamberlain, who built up the air force which saved Britain in 1940, and by the Round Table Group led by Lord Lothian, Edward Grigg, and Leopold Amery, who put on a campaign to establish compulsory military service.

The first seven points were reiterated to Germany by various spokesmen from 1937 onward. They are also to be found in many recently published documents, including the captured archives of the German Foreign Ministry, the documents of the British Foreign Office, and various extracts from diaries and other private papers, especially extracts from Neville Chamberlain's diary and his letters to his sister. Among numerous other occasions these points were covered in the following cases:


(a) in a conversation between Lord Halifax and Hitler at Berchtesgaden on November 17, 1937;

(b) in a letter from Neville Chamberlain to his sister on November 26, 1937;

(c) in a conversation between Hitler, Ribbentrop, and the British Ambassador (Sir Nevile Henderson) in Berlin on March 3, 1938;

(d) in a series of conversations involving Lord Halifax, Ribbentrop, Sir Thomas Inskip (British minister of defense), Erich Kordt (Ribbentrop's assistant), and Sir Horace Wilson (Chamberlain's personal representative) in London on March 10-11, 1938; and

(e) in a conference of Neville Chamberlain with various North American journalists held at Lord Astor's house on May 10, 1938. In addition, portions of these seven points were mentioned or discussed in scores of conversations and documents which are now available.

Certain significant features of these should be pointed out. In the first place, in spite of persistent British efforts lasting for more than two years, Hitler rejected Angola or the Congo and insisted on the return of the German colonies which had been lost in 1919. During 1939 Germany steadily refused to negotiate on this issue and finally refused even to acknowledge the British efforts to discuss it.

In the second place, the British throughout these discussions made a sharp distinction between Germany's aims and Germany's methods. They had no objections to Germany's aims in Europe, but they insisted that Germany must not use force to achieve these aims because of the danger of war.

This distinction was accepted by the German professional diplomats and by the German professional soldiers, who were quite willing to obtain Germany's aims by peaceful means, but this distinction was not accepted by the leaders of the Nazi Party, especially Hitler, Ribbentrop, and Himmler, who were too impatient and who wanted to prove to themselves and the world that Germany was powerful enough to take what it wanted without waiting for anybody's permission...

http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/13.html#44 - http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/13.html#44




Posted By: Peteratwar
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 11:45
Originally posted by Bankotsu

The above is hardly the most unbiased of links.


It is completely biased in favour of USSR, as it is after all published by a soviet propaganda agency.

Below source by American historian Carroll Quigley would be more neutral:

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html
 

However, I still await any EVIDENCE other than comments, alleged conversations etc. None of these are evidence of what British policy was.
 
Before we touch on the issue of evidence, I hope that there could be some agreement on the basic facts.

(1) The Chamberlain government in 1937 made the decision to reach a general anglo-german settlement and to resolve differences between Germany and Britain.

(2) This policy was executed by Chamberlain government in the years 1937-1939 and eventually failed. The first diplomatic act to carry out this plan for anglo-german settlement was carried by Halifax by his visit to Hitler in November 1937.

Anyone is in disagreement with the above two points?
 
Quigley is by no means reliable.
 
I will agree that Chamberlain Government wanted peace in Europe (and worldwide) and that any differences should be resolved by peaceful means having just experienced all the horrors of war


Posted By: Peteratwar
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 11:55
Looking at you next post and rather than quoting the whole thing:
 
1. Not particularly, but they would be useful Poland was the front line (see battle of Warsaw)
 
2. Stability and peace was to be desired
 
3. Certainly not
 
4. Peaceful means essential
 
5. As part of general disarmament agreements
 
6. No - Britain had no authority over these
 
7. Within reason and involving coniliation and compromise on all sides
 
8. Good precaution
 
Right we now look at the above and not one of them shows any inclination of Britain 'pushing' Germany towards Russia. Quite the reverse and with the laudable aim of establishing a universal peace at least in Europe


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 13:18
Originally posted by Bankotsu

It's a fact that Brittain and France pushed Germany to the East.
No it isn't. The historical FACT is that Germany attacked France and the rest of western Europe north of the Pyrenees before it attacked any communist country.
 
That's the FACT. Everything else is speculation and/or fantasy and/or Stalinist propaganda.
 
Germany wasn't 'pushed to the east' by any country, except when his attack on Britain was defeated and there was nowhere else for him to go in the west. What was Britain supposed to do - allow Hitler to occupy it?

That is true. Britain's strategy of turning Germany eastwards to destroy Soviet Union is historical fact.
No it isn't. See above. Once appeasement failed, Britain OPPOSED Germany moving east. The worldwide Communist movement publicly opposed Britain and France going to war against Germany at all, and approved Stalin's alliance with Hitler.
 
Apart from short term considerations, this conformed to then current Marxist predictions that capitalism would lead to some form of right-wing tyranny like Nazism or Fascism in order to grease the path to world revolution. (A contemporary parallel would be the the religious ultra-right seeking Israeli domination of Palestine as a prelude to the second coming of Christ.)
 
Those are the FACTS.


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Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 13:44
Originally posted by Bankotsu

The above is hardly the most unbiased of links.


It is completely biased in favour of USSR, as it is after all published by a soviet propaganda agency.

Below source by American historian Carroll Quigley would be more neutral:

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html
 

However, I still await any EVIDENCE other than comments, alleged conversations etc. None of these are evidence of what British policy was.
 
Before we touch on the issue of evidence, I hope that there could be some agreement on the basic facts.

(1) The Chamberlain government in 1937 made the decision to reach a general anglo-german settlement and to resolve differences between Germany and Britain.

(2) This policy was executed by Chamberlain government in the years 1937-1939 and eventually failed. The first diplomatic act to carry out this plan for anglo-german settlement was carried by Halifax by his visit to Hitler in November 1937.

Anyone is in disagreement with the above two points?
 
The first one is wrong, so the second doesn't matter very much. It wasn't an 'Anglo-German' settlement that was being sought, but a general European one - in particular Italy-France-Germany-Britain as the leading powers, the SU having already aligned itself with Germany.
 
Up until the Anschluss, in March 1938, it was generally expected that Mussolini would oppose German expansion, seeing Hitler as a dangerous rival. Mussolini's 1938 turnabout took everyone by surprise. Still, since technically the Anschluss was invited by the Austrians, there wasn't too much Britain, France and Italy could do about it (even though it contravened Versailles). Italy was the only country that could possibly have used force in the area.
 
'Appeasement' only became a fixed policy with the demand on the Sudetenland later that year, resulting in the Munich agreement of September 1938. It ended the following March with the occupation of what is now the Czech republic and the 'independence' of Slovakia.
 
That led immediately to the decision to step up the preparations for war that had started the previous summer in the 1938 'crisis' when I remember buildings being sandbagged for protection and air raid shelters being made available. It also of course led to the guarantees made to other eastern countries, and eventually to the declaration of war in September 1939.
 
So the policy of appeasement lasted only six months. And in any case the hope behind it was the somewhat naive one that Hitler's territorial ambitions could be satisfied in any direction. If you're 'pushing someone to the east' you don't give guarantees to all its eastern neighbours.
 
Meanwhile the Soviet Union had continued with the pursuit of its own interests leading at its height to the agreement of August 1938 and the subsequent carving up between Germany and the SU of the remaining countries of north-east Europe (though Finland did manage fight off the Red Army and keep its independence).


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Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 14:31
A lot of that is in error gcle2003.

'Appeasement' only became a fixed policy with the demand on the Sudetenland later that year, resulting in the Munich agreement of September 1938.


What about this:

On 26 November 1937, one week after Halifax’s conversation with Hitler, Chamberlain wrote to his sister that he hoped to satisfy German colonial demands by giving them the Belgian Congo and Angola in place of Tanganyika.  He then added:  “I don’t see why we shouldn’t say to Germany, ‘Give us satisfactory assurances that you won’t use force to deal with the Austrians and Czechoslovakians, and we will give you similar assurances that we won’t use force to prevent the changes you want if you can get them by peaceful means.' ”

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html

The evidence shows that policy of appeasement was from 1937 onwards to 1939.




Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 11-Jun-2008 at 17:11
 
....sorry, this is another collection of 'picked information from a similar thread, seems lazy i know, but its still relevant to what is beeing discussed here...

 

…..In the 1930’s Britain was the greatest world, colonial and imperial power. After the WWI, the imperial position had significantly improved with Britain gaining many new Arab and African territories; however, there was a loss to be considered in marketing and investment. World War I cost Britain £4 billion in money rates even then. Despite this, Britain remained an economic power until WWII when relative economic decline had set in for good. The prevailing view in government circles was that another war would not be good and costly even if you win! By 1926, Britain had no territorial ambitions and wanted to keep the peace. War was felt to be harmful to commercial and financial interests and the overriding factor to maintain peace and stability…….

 

…..The British attitude towards Hitler in the 1930’s was the same, there was moral opposition but it was not commercially viable to physically oppose the regime in Nazi Germany, Britain firmly remained a bastion of self-interest. In addition, a significant amount of pacifist sentiment found expression in Britain. Many feared a war even worse than the WWI. There were deep memories of WWI and few believed that another political leader would use war as an instrument of foreign policy again, but without bargaining for the fanatical and disturbed Adolf Hitler.(remember we know this now with the benefit of historical hindsight, it was not so clear cut then what Hitler’s ambitions were)….

..another reason that led to the policy of appeasement was the English channel. The British navy was no longer the protective body it once was and there was a fear of the new superiority of airpower. Many felt that in the event of war, it would be the bombers that would get through. Chamberlain believed this, and his fear was grounded in not being able to protect British cities, the logic therefore was not to go to war…..

..another reason for the policy of appeasement  was that Britain was now an overstretched power with a colonial empire far too big to manage effectively, which again caused worry over issues of defence. What if Italy, Japan, and Germany attacked parts of the empire? How could Britain defend against this? How to defend what they already had? Such predominant thinking encouraged and developed into a strong ‘defensive attitude’….

..one economic reason for applying a policy of appeasement arose when the government considered the cost of Defence expenditure. In 1918, £2.5 billion was spent on defence and in 1924, this had been reduced to £130 million, but there was still the need to make this figure even lower. In 1928, the Chancellor of the Exchequer was Winston Churchill. Churchill had enquired with the Joint Chiefs of Staff if war was coming and when the answer was no, there was no raise in expenditure…..

..as a direct result of these concerns, in the late 1930’s the minister of Coordination of defence, Thomas Inskip, produced a report which dealt with Britain’s ability to catch up with Germany’s defence spending. There were two factors to consider in this report. One, the UK had too many enemies to fight at once. Two, the UK could only win a long drawn out war using economic advantage. As a result of this report, Britain minimised naval spending, did not spend any more on the army and put most of the budget into fighter aircraft for defence. Britain could then use its ‘4th arm’ of defence by using financial advantage to economically starve the enemy to ‘death.’ The idea was implicitly to  ‘buy off’ potential enemies until military ‘defence’ is ready. This is where the idea of ‘appeasement’ came from and there is logic to this policy. Britain at the tail end of the 1930’s was a cautious, introspective nation looking to avoid war….

 

..if appeasement was only designed to push Hitler into aggressive action against the Soviet Union? Why did Britain eventually go to war? I tell you why. Once again, it was total British self-interest; there was no such plan to ‘kill two birds with one stone,’ and no ‘plan’ to aid Hitler in defeating Communism. To put it even more simply, just take a look at British imperial policy throughout the country’s history, total self-interest all the way. So why is it so difficult to comprehend these were the exact same reasons why Britain chose appeasement, and conversely, then went to war….

….so why was there an ardent decision to go to war in September 1939 and not in September 1938? Did ‘appeasement’ still exist in 1939? One answer is yes it did, so why did Chamberlain decide to got to war. By the time 1939 arrived, the reasons had nothing to do Czechoslovakia, Poland, or even the Danzig Port. In the greater scheme of things, these issues are irrelevant as far as British interests go. The answer is simple and clear-cut. The ‘reasons’ were that empire, trade, power, self-interest were all more important to Britain in 1939 than in 1938…..

 

..on the 15th March 1939, Germany moved to occupy Prague. The German forces invade through Bohemia and Moravia, but Slovakia maintains ‘independence’ for the time being by becoming a German ‘satellite.’ So is this the turning point on the road to war? After all, this is the first time that non-German peoples have been ‘absorbed’ by German actions. This is not a revision of the Versailles treaty, and all Hitler’s rhetoric has been proved false. Hitler’s intentions are now clear, the total domination of central and south-eastern Europe. Chamberlain’s reaction to this is two-fold with differing outlooks. His first reaction is in a speech at the House of Commons on the 15th March 1939. In this statement, Chamberlain is still looking at ‘appeasement’, and the chance for negotiation through peaceful means. Chamberlain’s second reaction came two days later on the 17th March 1939 at a speech in Birmingham Town Hall, his own constituency. This time chamberlain’s attitude is firmer. He is more harder on Hitler and points to the dangers of a coming war, and appears ready to stand firm on the issue of further Nazi aggression. It has been pointed out that the ‘human aspect’ to Chamberlain’s reaction on the 15th might have been an automatic reaction. By the 17th, Chamberlain had time to think about the situation and possibly felt cheated, fooled, and hence the more non-appeasing stance and more bitter statement concerning Hitler’s action. In addition, Chamberlain was feeling the pressure from more hard-line anti-Nazi’s in British government, and the harder stance was Chamberlain’s attempt to consolidate his leadership in a bid to keep power of the Conservative Party. It might be that Chamberlain was still following ‘appeasement’ but was being reluctantly drawn away from the policy. The Munich settlement can now be seen as moral and practical mistake with Hitler viewed in a different light. This is particularly highlighted by the ‘Night of Broken Glass’ (Kristallnacht), which reinforces the moral mistake of dealing with someone who cannot be dealt with on a rational basis. Such issues usher in a shift of government policy and a change in opinion in Chamberlain who is now questioning the validity of appeasement. He is less convinced that the policy will now work……..

 

….so why the change in policy and viewpoint for Chamberlain and government? During January and February of 1939, a series of rumours about Hitler’s next move are beginning to circulate amongst government members, and remember that this is shortly after the ‘Munich Settlement’ (30th September 1938). There is some speculation about Nazi intentions. This includes possible threats to Holland, Ukraine, the Danzig port and even Switzerland, however these rumours are all false (for the time being). Nevertheless, these rumours are taken seriously enough that perhaps shows a lack of confidence in the ‘finality’ of the Munich Settlement. (Some of these rumours were deliberately circulated by anti-Nazi opposition in Germany in a bid to push Britain into action against Hitler and the Nazi’s, and as far as this goes, the tactic is fairly successful, and Britain does begin to act!)….The prime ministerial cabinet decided that if Holland was threatened, Britain would go to war with Germany. This is no vague statement, but a firm statement of intention, most definitely not appeasement, however such threats are just rumour for now. Nevertheless, by February 1939, the cabinet made a decision that ushered in an increase in the British army. The British were now talking more positively with the French, and formulating the idea of sending a British Expeditionary Force to Europe. It now looks like Britain is getting psychologically ready to go to war and events are looking inevitable. The conclusion that could be drawn is that even before Prague was occupied, Britain was slowly abandoning ‘appeasement’, so in effect, Prague was ‘not’ the great turning point in policy and the decision to go to war…..

 

….the British reaction to the Czechoslovakian ‘crisis’ is important. How much of a turning point was all this in Anglo-French thoughts towards Hitler’s actions? By the 15th of March, the Czechoslovakian episode was done and dusted. However, by the end of March 1939, there was an Anglo-French guarantee to Poland. Why was this? What were Britain and Chamberlain’s motivation in this issue? The answer to these questions lies in the fact that both Poland and Romania were seen as important to British self-interests. Before the Czech crisis was concluded there was a Polish ‘crisis’ that remained largely undetected until the Czech episode was finalised. The Versailles treaty seems to be at the heart of this crisis.  Before the end of World War I, there was no Polish state since the 18th century when the Pole’s were absorbed into Russia. Nevertheless, Polish nationalism survived and negotiations at the ‘Peace of Paris’ (1918) conference allowed the birth of a ‘new’ Poland and national recognition.  In 1919, the geographical problem was where this ‘new’ Poland should be. There were no obvious boundaries and physical limits to the new country’s borders. In addition, how would Poland conduct its domestic affairs? The ongoing crisis in Polish affairs came to ahead in 1938/1939. Poland needed access to the sea and was granted the port of Danzig, but this was a German town and it was 'given’ to Poland. Danzig was to be overseen by the League of Nations to help ease tensions, but trouble was still brewing among those who believed that Danzig should be totally German…..

 

…. By October 1938, the problem started to present itself in more serious terms. Berlin started to put pressure on Warsaw to deal with this issue. Ribbentrop attempted to ‘talk’ to the Pole’s to end this ‘situation’, but the Pole’s were naturally unwilling to budge on the issue. This is the crisis that preceded the Czechoslovakian episode. Hitler wanted short-term co-operation with Poland and desired Poland becoming a ‘semi-satellite’ to Germany. Hitler also wanted access to Danzig via a road/rail system that would go through the ‘Polish corridor’. (this was not to be an invasion just yet). It has been stated that the ‘Danzig problem’ was a barometer of German/Polish relations according to what was happening with the port. Hitler felt that there would not be problem with this and believed the Pole’s would concede to his demands. On the other hand, the Pole’s, in western eyes, were not a people in the ‘good books’. Poland had played a poor part in the Czech crisis and demanded their part of territory and they took it after Munich! The Polish government was also distrusted because of the slippery nature of their Foreign Minister Josef Beck (However, he did not give in to Hitler’s demands for influence in Polish affairs). There was also an agreement/peace pact in 1934 between Poland and Germany, which Hitler thought would aid the concession to his demands. However, it did not! Strangely enough, in 1938/39, the port of Danzig was not very important to the Pole’s either. Poland had another port in the west called ‘Gdynia’ that was more successful in trading and commerce. Despite this, Poland did not want to give up Danzig as this would set a dangerous precedent by allowing Germany a strategic gain; what would the Nazi’s demand next? For Poland, this was a fine political balancing act between German demands and the prospect of having Russia on its borders ready to pounce (there being no great enmity between USSR and Poland)…..

 

….As far as Britain was concerned, the government requested an explanation about what was is going on, but no answer was given by the Polish Foreign Minister Josef Beck, who believed that Poland could handle the issue on its own. Poland at this time, held onto a self-belief in its military strength and enough self-confidence to turn down help. In addition, the Polish believed that if Britain and France got involved, it would make Hitler more determined to act aggressively. In Britain, it was seen as if the Pole’s were playing down the crisis. So why did Britain suddenly help Poland by extending a guarantee to help militarily?…

 

..the answer is Romania. Here lies Britain’s main concern at the time. There were primary British interests in Romanian oilfields and grain supplies. Rumours were again still filtering throughout Whitehall. A Romanian diplomat and junior official called ‘Tilea’ made an appearance at Whitehall on the 16th March 1939 claiming that Berlin was putting pressure on Bucharest to fall in line with Nazi thinking or face invasion. There was no real substance to this claim, but Britain was sufficiently alarmed to respond to these statements. When Tilea met Chamberlain, the thought was in the Prime Ministers’ mind that Hitler was not just focusing on Czechoslovakia but also Romania as well. This gave the British Government reason to be concerned…..

 

…Chamberlain’s reaction to all this was to attempt to construct an ‘eastern front’ against Hitler and bring in as many states in Eastern Europe to rally against Hitler’s perceived intentions. (France, Britain, USSR, that is the USSR and Poland were to be employed to protect Romania). However, the fundamental key in all this was Poland. Poland was in a good position to protect Romania but it was recognised that Poland would refuse to accept Russian influence within its borders, so effectively Romania cannot be adequately protected. The advice to Chamberlain was that the ‘best bet’ was to safeguard Poland and create an association that will help protect Romania. In the process of trying to develop this ‘eastern front’, the German and Polish situation erupts. At the end of March 1939, Ian Colvin, a newsman in Berlin, heard rumours that Poland not Romania was going to be the next point of crisis, and that the Nazi’s would invade over the Danzig issue. Chamberlain had by now switched his attention to Poland instead of Romania (not Danzig however, but Poland the country). The Anglo French guarantee now comes about, but not over Danzig, but Poland. On the 13th April, a guarantee is given to Greece, and in May 1939, a guarantee is given to Turkey, perhaps as a part of the eastern front policy? It now looks like that appeasement has been effectively compromised as Chamberlain was willing to negotiate away Danzig but would not let Poland go?…

 

….Although here is a rational and logical reason for this action, it is a  bit cynical. The problem that remained was how to support Poland. As there was no difference between Poland and Czechoslovakia, there is nothing practical to do, so Britain did not offer military or economic resources to Poland, and this aspect has brought Chamberlain much criticism.  However, there is logic in these actions. Firstly, why waste valuable British resources when Britain can preserve its hardware to defend or attack Germany in the future. Secondly, a cynical view is that Chamberlain believed that he had to take the initiative by stating to the world and Germany that Britain will be active in ‘drawing the line’ in Poland. Thirdly, there is the idea that Hitler would have to respond to Britain’s threat and take Poland where there would be border disputes with USSR that would hopefully weaken Germany in any later conflict with Britain. (use of the USSR again, but not a freehold wish to allow Hitler to destroy the Soviet union, just real-politic). However, for the time being Poland was seen as the best place to make a stand. As far as chamberlain was concerned, it was choice between ‘two devils?’ Chamberlain may have still been looking for a negotiated settlement, but by now, was most likely ‘hoping for the best, but preparing for the worst’. however, as we all know, Hitler attacked Poland and Britain went to war….the attack on Poland was against British economic interests in that Romania was believed to be next. On the 1st September 1939, Hitler invaded Poland, but the declaration of war from the British came on the 3rd September. the delay in declaring war was Partly because the French refused to declare immediately before they had fully mobilised and Britain was waiting to synchronise. This most definitely is not appeasement…….

 

..appeasement had nothing to do with forcing Hitler and Stalin together in mutual defeat….by now appeasement had been grounded and there were pragmatic and self-interested reasons why Britain gave up the policy and went to war. Economic considerations meant that in 1938, Britain could not have entered into a long drawn out war, (as was usual with British tactics to starve the enemy into defeat), as the economy was not strong enough. However, in 1939, the situation appeared different to Chamberlain. Intelligence reports from Germany indicated that the German economy was in a poor state due to rearmament, and could not sustain the growth, and there appeared to be some resistance to the Nazi’s from the working class. Chamberlain was by now receiving advice that the British economy was improving and that it was now possible for Britain to fight a long term conflict as well as in the short-term. However, the economy was believed to be at the peak of its performance and if there was any delay in action, the situation could worsen, ‘this was the optimum moment to act’…..with regards to Allies, France was now better prepared militarily and more confident in its position. The USA were on the fringe providing economic supplies and they appeared more inclined to deal with the Japanese, thus removing the ‘tripartite alliance’ problem solely from Britain’s shoulders (that meant there was less threat to the Empire). For Britain, there was now only Germany to deal with. Italy was showing no signs of entering into a conflict and Japan was facing pressure from the USA…..the imperial dominions were generally appeasers (apart from New Zealand, South Africa, Australia,) but in 1939, the view had changed and they were expressing the opinion that if London was prepared to go to war, then the Empire would follow….

 

..while there are several criticisms to be aimed at Chamberlain’s actions, using appeasement as a policy to induce Hitler and Stalin to wipe each other out was not one of them.  Perhaps if Britain knew that Poland could not be saved, there should have been firmer negotiations with the USSR? There were indeed talks, but there remained a fear of Communism infiltrating into Europe and Britain’s half-hearted negotiation techniques caused a collapse of talks with the USSR. Besides, the Pole’s did not want to deal with the USSR and certainly did not want Soviet troops in Polish territory, they might not leave at a later date. (Later Proven to be a true). In addition, Hitler was very much aware of the USSR and in the summer of 1939, he was approaching the Russian’s to do a deal through diplomatic talks and the offer of possible treaties and pacts. A pragmatic Stalin does not want to deal with the Soviet’s ideological enemies, but he ‘shrugs shoulders’ and does do a deal. Stalin realises that by siding with the west will only bring war (an event he to wished to avoid until a future date), and Hitler is offering territorial gains as part of the deal. The August 1939 ‘pact’ contained a hidden agenda that Poland would be divided between Germany and Russia. (This deal was not a shock to Britain who had received intelligence reports noting the proposed deal, but Chamberlain believed that it would come to nothing, in this respect Chamberlain was short-sighted in not bringing in the Russians at an earlier opportunity)…..

 

….If there was going to be war, then this was the best time to enter into a conflict. It was not wanted but now there appeared to be no choice…..at no time did the British government and Chamberlain entertain the idea of aiding Hitler in his eastern policy….some may have thought such things, but this was most certainly not the intention of appeasement policy…some may have thought that is what was happening, but they were on the fringes of government, critics and opponents of Chamberlain both personally and professionally, and not directly involved in the planning and execution, this was Chamberlain’s ‘baby’…and he wanted a total peace in Europe and did what he could to try and achieve this…

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Posted By: Sarmat
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2008 at 03:08
Originally posted by gcle2003

No it isn't. See above. Once appeasement failed, Britain OPPOSED Germany moving east. The worldwide Communist movement publicly opposed Britain and France going to war against Germany at all, and approved Stalin's alliance with Hitler.
 
Apart from short term considerations, this conformed to then current Marxist predictions that capitalism would lead to some form of right-wing tyranny like Nazism or Fascism in order to grease the path to world revolution. (A contemporary parallel would be the the religious ultra-right seeking Israeli domination of Palestine as a prelude to the second coming of Christ.)
 
Those are the FACTS.
 
Britain ignored all the USSR attempts to conclude alliance against Germany.
Britain sold Czechoslovakia to Nazi Germany.
Britain didn't express any meaningful will to conclude the defence alliance with the USSR in the summer of 1939, British represantatvie on the negotiations didn't even have enough power to sign any agreement or give any assurances (see Churchill).
Britain didn't provide any military aid to its Polish ally despite all the "guarantees."
Britain for half a year after Polish defeat didn't make any serious attempt to military threaten Germany (Phoney War).
 
Those are facts.
 
And honestly I think its strange not to recognize that the best scenario for the British foreign policy would be to stay neutral in the confrontation between Germany and the USSR. IMO it was a very wise policy complitely in the interests of Britain. And nobody really knew at this time how "bad" Nazist were. But what for sure is that the Nazist were viewed as more "civil" than the Soviets.


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Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2008 at 03:27
Originally posted by Sarmat12

  
It's just a poster. Not a scientific research on  exact European foreign policy before WWII.
 
But it's funny, however, when one tries to argue how good and wise was the "Munich treason," in fact, the same animal with the "Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact."
 
I am curious as to who exactly tries to argue that the Munich was good and wise from the Allies' perspective (I assume that is what you meant).  I would be quite happy to enthusiastically argue against that view of it.  As far as I'm concerned, the Munich agreement was an unmitigated disaster for the Allies.  That was probably their last chance to stop Hitler early on at relatively little cost.  It was 'thrown away' for nothing more than Hitler's worthless 'promise' that he would behave.  I could certainly go on, but that would be diverging ever further from the original point of discussion of this thread.  Bottomline is that I agree that Munich was much 'the same animal' as the M-R Pact.  Only I would say that Munich was worse.


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"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2008 at 04:09
Originally posted by Sarmat12

Britain ignored all the USSR attempts to conclude alliance against Germany.
Britain sold Czechoslovakia to Nazi Germany.
Britain didn't express any meaningful will to conclude the defence alliance with the USSR in the summer of 1939, British represantatvie on the negotiations didn't even have enough power to sign any agreement or give any assurances (see Churchill).
Britain didn't provide any military aid to its Polish ally despite all the "guarantees."
Britain for half a year after Polish defeat didn't make any serious attempt to military threaten Germany (Phoney War).
 
Those are facts.
 
And honestly I think its strange not to recognize that the best scenario for the British foreign policy would be to stay neutral in the confrontation between Germany and the USSR. IMO it was a very wise policy complitely in the interests of Britain. And nobody really knew at this time how "bad" Nazist were. But what for sure is that the Nazist were viewed as more "civil" than the Soviets.
 
Not quite true that Britain ignored all such attempts by the Soviets, but it is true that Chamberlain initially did 'freeze out' the Soviets from the Munich negotiations.  Later, after Hitler had violated Munich, Chamberlain was in an awkward position with respect to the Soviets.  Although he was willing at that point (finally) to cooperate with them in an anti-Nazi alliance, Poland was adamant that the Red Army would not be allowed on Polish soil (nor even to overfly it) under any circumstances.
 
Recall that Churchill was both writing after the fact, and from the perspective of an 'outsider' who was highly critical of the government at the time.   Even with as much respect as I have for Mr. Churchill and his role in history, I'm not sure I would simply accept everything he has to say on this without question.
 
I tend to agree with you regarding the lack of practical assistance for Poland.  The fact is that Chamberlain was only in a position to 'guarantee' that Britain would declare war on Germany if Germany attacked Poland.  Britain was not in a position to prevent Germany from doing pretty much what they wanted for 6 months or 1 year.  That being said, it was really France who let down Poland the most.  France had the 'original' treaty with Poland and was obligated to assist given the circumstances - and France at least had the army in a position to do something (unlike Britain).  However, perhaps all of that is a topic for another thread.
 
As for Britain remaining neutral in a conflict between Germany and the Soviet Union - that was difficult.  First, as I previously mentioned, Britain had created circumstances under which it was practically impossible for Germany to 'get at' the Soviet Union without finding themselves at war with Britain.  If Britain had 'stood aside' while Germany and the Soviet Union fought it out, there was perhaps a greater risk that the Nazi's might win.  Finally, if the Soviet Union had defeated Germany 'single-handedly' in such a scenario, there was a risk of even more of Europe ending up on the 'wrong' side of the 'Iron Curtain'.   Britain fighting against Germany was probably the 'best' way to 'salvage' some sort of balance after the war, although the 'destruction' of Germany was of course extremely disruptive to the 'status quo' and the best possible 'solution' from Britain's perpsective was to attempt to avoid such a war entirely (which they tried, but not very effectively).


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"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2008 at 05:50
Originally posted by Bankotsu


deadkenny's interpretation of history is mostly the british propagandist version, which is not accurate.

It takes time to unlearn the british propagandist version and learn the more factual and accurate interpretation of history....

Britain turn Germany east is true, british propagandist version is false.

That is completely true....
 
No, that is simply not true.  In fact the 'British propaganda version' would go something like - the British were 'forced' to 'sell out' Czechoslovakia because they needed to 'buy time' in order to rearm.  The Germans had gained a considerable head start in building up their airforce, and British cities were wide open to a bombardment that could knock Britain out of the war right at the start.
 
Now that version I would say is false because it appears to me that Chamberlain sincerely believed that he had won 'peace' at Munich.  Furthermore, the truth is that the British didn't get really serious about rearmament until after the Germans had violated the Munich agreement in March 1939.  So what I would say the truth is as follows:
 
Hitler publically claimed that he wanted to 'save' the Sudetenland Germans from Czech domination by including the predominantly German areas in the Reich.  Of course, that was not his true objective, he wanted to occupy all of Czechoslovakia and was only using the Sudetenland issues as a plausible pretext for acting against the Czechs.  However, Chamberlain took Hitler at his word (foolishly) and attempted to avoid a war by getting Hitler what he wanted (or at least what Hitler publically claimed that he wanted) by negotiation.  THAT was what 'appeasement' was about - avoiding war by granting concessions in negotiated settlements.  When Germany violated the Munich agreement only a few months afterwards, the policy of appeasement was at an end. However, British policy had never been about 'forcing Hitler east', as has been claimed.  It had been about avoiding war by making concessions to (apparently) reasonable demands in the course of negotiations.  Once Hitler demonstrated that he would not live up to his agreements, British policy actually become the exact opposite of 'forcing Hitler east' - it became trying to avoid war by making it clear that Germany would have to fight Britain (and France) if Germany attacked any other small country.  This 'forcing Hitler east' theory is nothing but an attempt to 'excuse' Stalin for making a deal with Hitler himself.  If Britain was in fact trying to 'force Hitler east', then Stalin 'forcing Hitler west' simply becomes a case of 'turn about is fair play'.  If on the other hand one admits that Britain was simply trying to avoid a war entirely by a couple of ill-conceived and failed policies, then one will tend to see Stalin's deal with Hitler as the cynical self-serving deal that it in fact was.  


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"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: Sarmat
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2008 at 06:01

Deadkenny, I want to clarify my position. I don't think that Britain was "forcing" Hitler to the East. I actully think that British didn't apply any "force" to Germany although they should have done that. But I do think that British thought that directing the German aggression (if such happen) to the East would be the more favorable scenario.

And I aslo think that Munich and Molotov Ribbentrop pact were equally cynnically self-serving deals.

But do you really think that Hitler and Stalin view the pact as something more meaningful than tactical temporary gain and buying some time before the final confrontation?

Apparently, they didn't.


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Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2008 at 06:52
Originally posted by Sarmat12

Deadkenny, I want to clarify my position. I don't think that Britain was "forcing" Hitler to the East. I actully think that British didn't apply any "force" to Germany although they should have done that. But I do think that British thought that directing the German aggression (if such happen) to the East would be the more favorable scenario.

And I aslo think that Munich and Molotov Ribbentrop pact were equally cynnically self-serving deals.

But do you really think that Hitler and Stalin view the pact as something more meaningful than tactical temporary gain and buying some time before the final confrontation?

Apparently, they didn't.
 
We've had a similar debate previously regarding our differing views of the M-R Pact.  However, in this thread I was trying to focus more on the original 'theory' being put forward. 
 
Regarding the 'directing' of German aggression east, again I will just point to the guarantee to Poland which was, IMHO, intended to try to prevent German aggression and certainly operated in the 'opposite' sense of 'directing' German aggression east - i.e. by forcing Germany to fight France and Britain before they could possibly 'get at' the Soviet Union.
 
Regarding Hitler's and Stalin's own views of the pact - Hitler's is completely clear.  Yes, it was a short term expediency 'forced' on him by Britain.  Hitler wanted to go east in the first place.  He was temporarily frustrated in that by the British guarantee to Poland.  He even hoped that Britain and France were bluffing and might end the 'war' after Poland was destroyed.  When they refused, Hitler was 'forced' to go west first.  With France defeated but Britain still defiant, Hitler was faced with something of a dilemma.  There was no major 'western front' in France, so he decided to go east then rather than fight a prolonged war against Britain before going east. 
 
With Stalin, it is less clear.  Certainly Hitler broke the deal first, and clearly achieved a significant measure of 'surprize'.  So clearly Stalin was not expecting to have to fight as early as summer 1941.  In fact, Stalin probably expected the fighting in France to drag on for a number of years, as it had in WWI.  He probably also expected Germany to be weakened after a drawn out battle of attrition.  The quick collapse of France probably 'shocked' Stalin as much as anyone.  However, Stalin's reaction was his own version of 'appeasement'.  Molotov was sent to Berlin to 'complain' about various German 'transgressions' of their agreement - Finland and Rumania were supposed to be in the Soviet 'sphere of influence' and yet Germany had sent troops to both and had 'guaranteed' Rumanian territory in the wake of the Soviet annexation of Bessarabia and Bukovina and the 'Vienna Award' (the settlement of the Hungarian / Rumanian dispute over Transylvania).  However, as Hitler started to take a harder line and mass troops in the east, Stalin backed off and started to ensure that Soviet deliveries of raw materials were maintained on time, even when German payments lagged.  However, I do not believe that Stalin hoped to avoid a conflict with Germany indefinitely at that point.  The Red Army was in the middle of a major re-org and re-equipment effort.  I believe that Stalin was desperate to avoid a conflict in 1941, however with the re-org complete and the new equipment deployed (e.g. T-34's) I believe the Soviets would have been ready in 1942.  Stalin also viewed the deal as 'short term', especially in the wake of the collapse of France.  He just hoped / expected to have one more year than he got. 


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"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2008 at 06:59
One important fact that is usually not pointed out in english history books when discussing Munich agreement was that Hitler in 1938 did not want to annex sudetenland region of Czechoslovakia.

I must repeat this fact.

Hitler original intent in 1938 was not to annex sudetenland region of Czechoslovakia.

Hitler intent in 1938 was to use the crisis between the Czech government and the Sudeten German Party as a pretext to unleash a war against Czechoslovakia and split it up into smaller states.

Here is Hitler's directive for "Operation Green":

It is my unalterable decision to smash Czechoslovakia by military action in the near future. It is the business of the political leadership to await or bring about the suitable moment from a political and military point of view...

http://www.st-andrews.ac.uk/%7Epv/munich/czdoc05.html - http://www.st-andrews.ac.uk/~pv/munich/czdoc05.html

Hitler's intent was to liquidate off Czechoslovakia and end its existence as a state.

Annex sudetenland region and thus leave Czechoslovakia alive was not his original intent.


... The details do not concern us here, but it should be mentioned that the dispute arose over the position of the Sudeten Germans within the Czechoslovak state, and as late as 15 September 1938 was still being expressed in those terms. 


Up to that day, Hitler had made no demand to annex the Sudeten area, although on 12 September he had for the first time asked for “self-determination” for the Sudetens.

Konrad Henlein, Hitler’s agent in Czechoslovakia and leader of the Sudeten Germans, expressed no desire “to go back to the Reich” until after 12 September. 

Who, then, first demanded frontier rectification in favor of Germany?

Chamberlain did so privately on 10 May 1938, and the Milner Group did so publicly on 7 September 1938. 

The Chamberlain suggestion was made by one of those “calculated indiscretions” of which he was so fond, at an “off-the-record” meeting with certain Canadian and American newspaper reporters at a luncheon arranged by Lady Astor and held at her London house.  On this occasion Chamberlain spoke of his plans for a four-power pact to exclude Russia from Europe and the possibility of frontier revisions in favor of Germany to settle the Sudeten issue. 

When the news leaked out, as it was bound to do, Chamberlain was questioned in Commons by Geoffrey Mander on 20 June but refused to answer, calling his questioner a troublemaker.

This answer was criticized by Sir Archibald Sinclair the following day, but he received no better treatment.  Lady Astor, however, interjected, “I would like to say that there is not a word of truth in it.” 

By 27 June, however, she had a change of heart and stated:  “I never had any intention of denying that the Prime Minister had attended a luncheon at my house.  The Prime Minister did so attend, the object being to enable some American journalists who had not previously met him to do so privately and informally, and thus to make his acquaintance.”

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html

Neville Chamberlain intervened in the Czech crisis of 1938 in order to stop Hitler's plans to invade Czechoslovakia.

He did so because if Hitler attacked Czechoslovakia, there might be a risk that a european war might break out. France and USSR were bound by treaty to come and assist Czechoslovakia if it was attacked.

Chamberlain's plan was to hand over Sudetenland region to Hitler and avoid war.

When Hitler met Chamberlain on 15 September 1938, he changed his mind and instead asked for sudetenland region. Chamberlain accepted this plan because he was the one who pushed for it in the first place, not Hitler.


...It is worthy to note that no public demand was made by either Henlein or Germany to detach the Sudetenland from Czechoslovakia until after September 12, 1938, although influential persons in the British government were advocating this, both in public and private, for months before this date.

...In the meantime the British had been working out a plan of their own. It involved, as we have said, (1) separation of the Sudetenland from Czechoslovakia, probably through the use of a plebiscite or even by outright partition; (2) neutralization of the rest of Czechoslovakia by revising her treaties with Russia and France, and ( 3 ) guarantee of this rump of Czechoslovakia (but not by Britain). This plan was outlined to the Czech ambassador in London by Lord Halifax on May 25th, and was worked out in some detail by one of Lord Halifax's subordinates, William (now Lord) Strang, during a visit to Prague and to Berlin in the following week. This was the plan which was picked up by Lord Runciman and presented as his recommendation in his report of September 21, 938.

    It is worthy of note that on September 2nd Lord Runciman sent a personal message by Henlein to Hitler in which he said that he would have a settlement drawn up by September 15th.

What is, perhaps, surprising is that Lord Runciman made no use whatever of the Karlsbad Demands or the extensive concessions to meet them which the Czechs had made during these negotiations, but instead recommended to the British Cabinet on September 16th, and in his written report five days later, the same melange of partition, plebiscites, neutralization, and guarantee which had been in the mind of the British Foreign Office for weeks.

It was this plan which was imposed on the Czechs by the Four-Power Conference at Munich on September 30th.

http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/13.html#45 - http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/13.html#45



Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2008 at 07:08
And why did Chamberlain wanted Hitler to devour Sudetenland region?

Why did he insist on it?

Here is the real reason, which cannot be found in any english history textbook:


Beijing, February 18, 1973, 2:43–7:15 p.m.

Talks between Chou En-lai, Premier of China and Dr. Henry A. Kissinger, Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs:

PM Chou: Originally Western Europe had hoped that Germany would go eastwards.

Dr. Kissinger: Western Europe.

PM Chou: At Munich.

Dr. Kissinger: Yes, at Munich. Western Europe had very superficial leaders. They didn’t have the courage to pursue any policy towards a conclusion. Once they had done Munich it made no sense to fight for Poland. But that is a different issue. And I don’t blame Stalin, because from his point of view he gained himself the essential time...

http://www.state.gov/documents/organization/100320.pdf - http://www.state.gov/documents/organization/100320.pdf
http://www.state.gov/r/pa/ho/frus/nixon/xviii/ - http://www.state.gov/r/pa/ho/frus/nixon/xviii/


We are told sometimes that the criminal plot of the two dictatorships –  Stalin’s and Hitler’s – was legitimate under the international law of the time. What’s more, it constituted a justified or even essential defense in view of the Munich Agreement concluded in September 1938 among Nazi Germany, Italy, the United Kingdom and France.

That treaty was designed to channel German aggression eastward.

True, it was a shameful Agreement conceived to appease the aggressor at the expense of Czechoslovakia.

-
Statement by His Excellency Mr. Adam Daniel ROTFELD, Minister for Foreign Affairs of the Republic of Poland. Fifty-ninth session of the General Assembly of the United Nations.

http://www.polandun.org/templates/statementRotfeld09may.html - http://www.polandun.org/templates/statementRotfeld09may.html


...But why the assumption that Chamberlain's concessions at Munich, and Canberraís involvement in those concessions, were a disaster for the West? Seen from other directions, the conventional view of Munich as weak-kneed appeasement can easily be turned on its head.

In Japan, for example, Munich is seen a stroke of hard-headed realpolitik and perfidious British diplomatic genius. In 1938 Hitler was torn between go-West and go- East strategies. The Munich concessions were crucial in persuading him to look East, the Japanese believe, which led him eventually to the attack on the Soviet Union. But for that attack, Germany would easily have won out against the West, and Japan would then have been able to consolidate its victories in Asia.

The Soviets used to be even more critical. They too saw the Munich concessions and Moscow's exclusion from the September 1938 Munich Conference as part of a clever conspiracy by Western anti-communists to encourage Hitler to attack East...

http://www.gregoryclark.net/mun.html%20 - http://www.gregoryclark.net/mun.html


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2008 at 07:20
Two weeks after Munich Baldwin said in a conversation with Lord Hinchingbrooke: "Can't we turn Hitler East? Napoleon broke himself against the Russians. Hitler might do the same".

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stanley_Baldwin#Later_life - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stanley_Baldwin#Later_life

The notion of "avoiding another Munich" means something wholly different when we understand that Chamberlain was not trying to prevent war at all costs but was, in fact, promoting a war against the hated Soviet Union.

http://www.h-net.org/%7Ehns/articles/1998/090998a.html - http://www.h-net.org/~hns/articles/1998/090998a.html

In Our Time: The Chamberlain-Hitler Collusion

http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0853459991/qid=1150459458/sr=1-1/ref=sr_1_1/104-6008468-7455949?s=books&v=glance&n=283155 - http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0853459991/qid=1150459458/


...A very important book, Hitler’s Spy Chief: The Wilhelm Canaris Mystety, was published in November, 2005. It received very little attention but it contained some very interesting new information about the relationship between the British government and Nazi Germany.

The author, Richard Bassett, found some very interesting documents that helps to explain the peace negotiations that went on between the two governments.

Bassett shows that in July, 1938, a powerful group from within Nazi Germany that included Canaris, were on the verge of overthrowing Hitler because they feared war with Britain and France.

The British government became aware of this plot. However, they were determined that Hitler should not be removed from power. The reason, they were expecting Hitler to destroy communism in the Soviet Union...

http://educationforum.ipbhost.com/index.php?showtopic=7149%20 - http://educationforum.ipbhost.com/index.php?showtopic=7149
http://www.amazon.ca/Hitlers-Spy-Chief-Wilhelm-Canaris/dp/0304367184 - http://www.amazon.ca/Hitlers-Spy-Chief-Wilhelm-Canaris/dp/0304367184


The British strategy for dealing with Germany found initial expression in Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain's 'appeasement' policy. The purpose of Chamberlain's 1938 Munich agreement to give the Sudetenland to Germany was, in fact, to push the Germans to the east and into confrontation with the Soviet Union.

http://rwor.org/a/076/ww2-en.html - http://rwor.org/a/076/ww2-en.html



Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2008 at 07:37
Originally posted by Bankotsu

One important fact that is usually not pointed out in english history books when discussing Munich agreement was that Hitler in 1938 did not want to annex sudetenland region of Czechoslovakia.

I must repeat this fact.

Hitler original intent in 1938 was not to annex sudetenland region of Czechoslovakia.

Hitler intent in 1938 was to use the crisis between the Czech government and the Sudeten German Party as a pretext to unleash a war against Czechoslovakia and split it up into smaller states....
 
You are wrong in so far as 'English' history books (or at least history books in English) do not claim that it was Hitler's aim to only annex the Sudetenland.  In fact, as I posted previously, it was Hitler's intent to occupy at least all of Moravia and Bohemia.  However, what Hitler wanted and planned in private, and what he said publically were two different things.  Publically he was only interested in the predominantly German populated areas of the Sudetenland.  Hitler was clearly trying to use what appeared on the surface to be a 'reasonable' demand in order to justify a conflict with Czechoslovakia.  However, Chamberlain took Hitler at his word and attempted to broker a deal that would give Hitler what he had publically said he wanted.  Privately, far from being pleased, Hitler was frustrated at the Munich agreement, as it had eliminated any legitimate pretext for war with Czechoslovakia. 
 
However, again, none of this supports the theory that Britain wanted to 'push' or 'force' Germany east.  It simply points to the fact that Britain was willing to see a chunk of territory, largely populated by Germans, taken from Czechoslovakia and given to Germany in order to 'appease' Germany and thereby avoid a war.  Germany was only supposed to get the Sudetenland, and the remainder of Czecho-Slovak territory was to have been 'guaranteed' by the signatory powers.  Later Hitler 'stage managed' the separation of Slovakia in order to claim that the Czecho-Slovak state had 'disintegrated' and therefore the previous agreement was null and void.  Although Chamberlain 'accepted' this rationale (there wasn't much he could do at that point in any case) to justify failing to fullfill his own guarantee to the Czechs, it did cause Chamberlain to realize that his policy of 'appeasement' was a failure, and therefore resulted in the switch to the policy of 'guarantees' to other small countries against German aggression.  That change in policy is the key point that refutes your theory regarding the 'forcing of Germany eastward'.  If your theory is correct, then Britain's policy was working, as Germany occupied the remaining Czech territory and started to 'target' Poland next.  So all Britain had to do was wait for Germany to take Poland next and then attack the Soviet Union afterwards.  Yet Britain then guaranteed Poland against German aggression, which was a total 180 degree turn from what they should have done if your theory is correct.  The Polish guarantee ensured that Germany in fact could not go east without also fighting France and Britain.  You can post all of the irrelevant Chou / Kissenger transcripts that you want, but unless you address the key issue of the British guarantee to Poland you are consistently missing the mark and failing to support your own claim.


-------------
"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: Sarmat
Date Posted: 12-Jun-2008 at 15:18
Originally posted by deadkenny

I believe that Stalin was desperate to avoid a conflict in 1941, however with the re-org complete and the new equipment deployed (e.g. T-34's) I believe the Soviets would have been ready in 1942.  Stalin also viewed the deal as 'short term', especially in the wake of the collapse of France.  He just hoped / expected to have one more year than he got. 
 
That is true. Stalin simply expected the war to start in 1942, the which was set as the deadline for the complete technical and organizational upgrade of the Red Army.


-------------
Σαυρομάτης


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 13-Jun-2008 at 19:36
Originally posted by Bankotsu

A lot of that is in error gcle2003.

'Appeasement' only became a fixed policy with the demand on the Sudetenland later that year, resulting in the Munich agreement of September 1938.


What about this:

On 26 November 1937, one week after Halifax’s conversation with Hitler, Chamberlain wrote to his sister that he hoped to satisfy German colonial demands by giving them the Belgian Congo and Angola in place of Tanganyika.  He then added:  “I don’t see why we shouldn’t say to Germany, ‘Give us satisfactory assurances that you won’t use force to deal with the Austrians and Czechoslovakians, and we will give you similar assurances that we won’t use force to prevent the changes you want if you can get them by peaceful means.' ”

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html

The evidence shows that policy of appeasement was from 1937 onwards to 1939.
 
No it doesn't. It shows that making offers to Hitler to appease him was something Chamberlain was considering in November 1937. But thinking of possibly doing something is not adopting a policy. No appeasement policy was adopted until submission to Hitler's demand on the Sudetenland, as I said.
 
From 1938 on Chamberlain was already thinking of going to war against Hitler, if necessary: that's not the same as adopting a policy of guaranteeing making war in support of the eastern European countries, which didn't happen until 1939.
 
You have to learn to recognise what policy actually is, rather than wool-gather around speculations by politicians on what they might do in the future.


-------------


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 06:37
But thinking of possibly doing something is not adopting a policy. No appeasement policy was adopted until submission to Hitler's demand on the Sudetenland, as I said.


Your statement is in error.

The evidence clearly shows that the policy was adopted and diplomacy executed to carry out the british plan of appeasing Hitler:


...It might be noted that when John W. Wheeler-Bennett, of Chatham House and the Milner Group, wrote his book on Munich:  Prologue to Tragedy, published in 1948, he relegated the last quotation to a footnote and suppressed the references to the Belgian Congo and Angola.

This, however, was an essential part of the appeasement program of the Chamberlain group. 

On 3 March 1938, the British Ambassador in Berlin, Nevile Henderson, one of the Chamberlain group, tried to persuade Hitler to begin negotiations to carry out this plan but did not succeed. 

He repeated Lord Halifax’s statement that changes in Europe were acceptable to Britain if accomplished without “the free play of forces,” and stated that he personally “had often expressed himself in favour of the Anschluss.” 

In the colonial field, he tried to interest Hitler in an area in Africa between the 5th parallel and the Zambezi River, but the Fuhrer insisted that his interest was restricted to restoration of Germany’s 1914 colonies in Africa...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 11:11
From 1938 on Chamberlain was already thinking of going to war against Hitler, if necessary:


The above statement also seems to be wrong.

According to Carroll Quigley's analysis:

There is no evidence whatever that the Chamberlain government intended to fight over Czechoslovakia unless this was the only alternative to falling from office. 
Even at the height of the crisis, when all ways out without war seemed closed (27 September), Chamberlain showed what he thought of the case by telling the British people over the BBC that the issue was “a quarrel in a far-away country between people of whom we know nothing.”

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html


Chamberlain's speech on 27 Sep 1938 to british public:

...However much we may sympathise with a small nation confronted by a big and powerful neighbour, we cannot in all circumstances undertake to involve the whole British Empire in war simply on her account. If we have to fight it must be on larger issues than that...

http://www.st-andrews.ac.uk/%7Epv/munich/czdoc09.html - http://www.st-andrews.ac.uk/%7Epv/munich/czdoc09.html





Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 12:56
Originally posted by Sarmat12

Originally posted by gcle2003

No it isn't. See above. Once appeasement failed, Britain OPPOSED Germany moving east. The worldwide Communist movement publicly opposed Britain and France going to war against Germany at all, and approved Stalin's alliance with Hitler.
 
Apart from short term considerations, this conformed to then current Marxist predictions that capitalism would lead to some form of right-wing tyranny like Nazism or Fascism in order to grease the path to world revolution. (A contemporary parallel would be the the religious ultra-right seeking Israeli domination of Palestine as a prelude to the second coming of Christ.)
 
Those are the FACTS.
 
Britain ignored all the USSR attempts to conclude alliance against Germany.
Britain sold Czechoslovakia to Nazi Germany.
Britain didn't express any meaningful will to conclude the defence alliance with the USSR in the summer of 1939, British represantatvie on the negotiations didn't even have enough power to sign any agreement or give any assurances (see Churchill).
Britain didn't provide any military aid to its Polish ally despite all the "guarantees."
Britain for half a year after Polish defeat didn't make any serious attempt to military threaten Germany (Phoney War).
 
Those are facts.
Not all of them, they are distortions. Czechoslovakia wasn't 'sold'. That's a silly expression to use. 'Let down', possibly. That there was a policy of appeasement for a short while isn't denied by anyone. That didn't go as far as training the German air force however, which is what Stalin did.
 
Stalin's alliance with Hitler included parcelling out between them the countries of north-eastern Europe. Stalin if you like sold western Poland and Czechoslovakia to Germany, and what he sold them for was eastern Poland, Latvia, Estonia and Lithuania.  Are you really suggesting that Britain should have sold those countries to the Soviet Union?
 
Now Britain can be criticised for not doing enough to help the Finns against the Soviets. In fact there was considerable popular feeling we weren't doing enough. But support the Soviets against the Finns and the Baltics? Never.
 
There were two wannabe empires in Europe in the thirties, bent on territorial aggrandisement: Germany and the Soviet Union. They both invaded and conquered their neighbours. Britain and France did not ally themselves with either side, though they did try to keep them at bay.
 
I fail entirely to see how you can criticise Britain for not doing enough to stop the Soviet-German alliance from conquering Poland without mentioning Finland. The problems were much the same in both cases: no access, and no time. The Soviets and the Germans conquered Poland in a month - how was Britain supposed to mount a serious attack in that time? As for coming to the aid of the invaded countries against the Soviet Union, how could Britain have got serious forces into action against Russia? Where would you suggest Britain would attack them?
 
And honestly I think its strange not to recognize that the best scenario for the British foreign policy would be to stay neutral in the confrontation between Germany and the USSR. IMO it was a very wise policy complitely in the interests of Britain. And nobody really knew at this time how "bad" Nazist were. But what for sure is that the Nazist were viewed as more "civil" than the Soviets.
 
 
There was no conflict between Germany and the Soviet Union in the thirties. Moreover if you think Britain only acts or acted 'completely in the interests of Britain' you are wrong.
 
As for the last comment, some people preferred the Nazis, some people preferred the Soviets, most people disliked both of them. Read Orwell's Homage to Catalonia for an accurate view of British feelings in general towards both of the monstrous tyrannies.


-------------


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 13:12
Originally posted by Bankotsu

From 1938 on Chamberlain was already thinking of going to war against Hitler, if necessary:


The above statement also seems to be wrong.

According to Carroll Quigley's analysis:

There is no evidence whatever that the Chamberlain government intended to fight over Czechoslovakia unless this was the only alternative to falling from office. 
Even at the height of the crisis, when all ways out without war seemed closed (27 September), Chamberlain showed what he thought of the case by telling the British people over the BBC that the issue was “a quarrel in a far-away country between people of whom we know nothing.”

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html


Chamberlain's speech on 27 Sep 1938 to british public:

...However much we may sympathise with a small nation confronted by a big and powerful neighbour, we cannot in all circumstances undertake to involve the whole British Empire in war simply on her account. If we have to fight it must be on larger issues than that...

http://www.st-andrews.ac.uk/%7Epv/munich/czdoc09.html - http://www.st-andrews.ac.uk/%7Epv/munich/czdoc09.html
 
Can you really not see the difference between considering possibilities and adopting a  policy? In any case the point was not that he considered going to war over Czechoslovakia, but going to war eventually. The British rearmament program began in 1935, around the time Hitler occupied the Rhineland. In 1937 Chamberlain (then Chancellor of the Exchequer) raised profits taxes on industry to further rearmament, calling the tax the 'National Defence Contribution', which is pretty plain talk.
 
Remember Britain had suffered badly from the Depression. But the government started its 'rationalisation programme', buying up old factories and mines, and building new ones in their place - one of the things that gave Britain a big boost in preparing for the war.
 
In 1938 five new battleships were building for the Royal Navy, part of the rearmament scheme. From 1918 to 1938 only two had been built. The five new ones weren't laid down because Chamberlain had no idea of fighting a war: they were laid down in preparation for it.
 
Chamberlain's  appeasement bought Britain valuable time that it needed to catch up, but it's childish to think he wasn't already considering the necessity of war (and ignorant of the facts to claim he wasn't doing that).


-------------


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 14:07
Chamberlain's  appeasement bought Britain valuable time that it needed to catch up, but it's childish to think he wasn't already considering the necessity of war (and ignorant of the facts to claim he wasn't doing that).


Chamberlain would consider declaring war on Germany if Germany used force to get its demands.

Chamberlain had no objections whatever to Germany getting Austria, Sudetenland, Danzig or polish corridor through negotiations.

But if Hitler used force to get these areas, public opinion in Britain would force him to respond to German aggression.

If Germany made war, Chamberlain must either respond by declaring war or resign from office.

Chamberlain chose to declare war on Germany on 3 September 1939 rather than resign as Prime minister.


...On September 1, 1939, several German armies attacked Poland from the West, North and South-West. To justify this aggression, German propaganda faked a Polish "attack" on the radio station in the Upper Silesian town of Gleiwitz (now Gliwice, Poland) , and this was broadcast to the world. (After the war ended, it was found that the SS - Security Police - had used German convicts dressed in Polish uniforms, and murdered them after the "attack" to eliminate witnesses. The wooden radio tower still stands in Gliwice today).

The French and British governments delivered warning notes in Berlin on September 1, stating that if the German army did not withdraw from Poland, they would immediately fulfill their obligations to that country.

At the same time, however, the British government encouraged Mussolini to propose a great power conference, this time including Poland, and the French government supported this move.

On September 2, Mussolini informed the British that he was trying to get Hitler's consent, but thought  he was unlikely to withdraw his forces from Poland unless he first got what he wanted. Hitler asked for time until midnight September 3, to answer Mussolini’s proposal. Meanwhile, German armed forces continued their attack on Poland.

The British Cabinet met at 4 p.m. September 2. Halifax reported Mussolini’s information and proposed  the deadline for Hitler’s answer to the British and French notes be set at midnight September 3. The Cabinet preferred midnight the same day, Sept. 2, but left the "coordination" of French and British action to Halifax.

That evening, September 2, Chamberlain spoke in the House of Commons and Halifax in the House of Lords. They stated that if German forces withdrew from Poland, then the British government would treat the situation as if nothing had happened, and would support Polish-German negotiations, or a wider conference. They did not give a deadline for Hitler’s answer to the British note.

The staid House of Lords heard Halifax in silence, but there was uproar in the House of Commons. Chamberlain was told that he must report to the House the next day by 11 a.m. There was a revolt in the Cabinet too.

Therefore, on the night of September 2, Chamberlain told the French government that Britain had to act, and instructed Ambassador Henderson to deliver a note to Ribbentrop the next day at 9 a.m. demanding an answer by 11 a.m. Henderson did so, and the French ambassador delivered a note demanding an answer by 5 p.m.

When there was no answer from Hitler by 11 a.m. Chamberlain spoke on the radio stating that Britain was at war with Germany...
http:// -
http://web.ku.edu/~eceurope/hist557/lect16.htm

On 1 September 1939, Germany invaded Poland. Many in the United Kingdom expected war, but the government did not wish to make a formal declaration unless it had the support of France. France's intentions were unclear at that point, and the government could only give Germany an ultimatum: if Hitler withdrew his troops within two days, Britain would help to open talks between Germany and Poland.

When Chamberlain announced this in the House on September 2, there was a massive outcry.

The prominent Conservative former minister Leo Amery, believing that Chamberlain had failed in his responsibilities, famously called on the acting Leader of the Opposition Arthur Greenwood to "Speak for England, Arthur!" Chief Whip David Margesson told Chamberlain that he believed the government would fall if war was not declared.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neville_Chamberlain#Outbreak_of_war - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neville_Chamberlain#Outbreak_of_war



This was nothing but the appeasement program of Chamberlain and Halifax—that concessions should be made to Germany to strengthen her on the Continent and in Eastern Europe, while Britain should remain strong enough on the sea and in the air to prevent Hitler from using war to obtain these concessions.

The fear of Hitler’s using war was based not so much on a dislike of force (neither Lothian nor Halifax was a pacifist in that sense) but on the realization that if Hitler made war against Austria, Czechoslovakia, or Poland, public opinion in France and England might force their governments to declare war in spite of their desire to yield these areas to Germany. 

This, of course, is what finally happened...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html


Ambassador von Dirksen reported that British public opinion thought war inevitable and had taken the initiative from the government. ("The feeling is gaining ground among the people that they must not put up with anything further, that their honor is at stake, that they would have to fight, and that the Govern*ment must not, give in again. . . However unfounded and dangerous this attitude of the British public may be, it is real and must be taken seriously, all the more so in a country in which public opinion plays such a decisive role as it does in England."

http://www.ibiblio.org/pha/events/1939.html - http://www.ibiblio.org/pha/events/1939.html


Neville Chamberlain held a Cabinet meeting on 24th September 1938. Duff Cooper , First Lord of the Admiralty, wrote about it in his autobiography, Old Men Forget (1953):

...I said that from what the Prime Minister had told us it appeared to me that the Germans were still convinced that under no circumstances would we fight, that there still existed one method, and one method only, of persuading them to the contrary, and that was by instantly declaring full mobilisation.

I said that I was sure popular opinion would eventually compel us to go to the assistance of the Czechs; that hitherto we had been faced with the unpleasant alternatives of peace with dishonour or war.

I now saw a third possibility, namely war with dishonour, by which I meant being kicked into the war by the boot of public opinion when those for whom we were fighting had already been defeated...

http://www.spartacus.schoolnet.co.uk/2WWmunich.htm - http://www.spartacus.schoolnet.co.uk/2WWmunich.htm


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 15:05
Originally posted by Bankotsu

But thinking of possibly doing something is not adopting a policy. No appeasement policy was adopted until submission to Hitler's demand on the Sudetenland, as I said.


Your statement is in error.
No it isn't. You obviously know so little about what went on in this period I don't know how you can say that.
 
Apart from that, all the statements you quote after after Hitler made his demands on the Sudetenland.


The evidence clearly shows that the policy was adopted and diplomacy executed to carry out the british plan of appeasing Hitler:


...It might be noted that when John W. Wheeler-Bennett, of Chatham House and the Milner Group, wrote his book on Munich:  Prologue to Tragedy, published in 1948, he relegated the last quotation to a footnote and suppressed the references to the Belgian Congo and Angola.

This, however, was an essential part of the appeasement program of the Chamberlain group. 

On 3 March 1938, the British Ambassador in Berlin, Nevile Henderson, one of the Chamberlain group, tried to persuade Hitler to begin negotiations to carry out this plan but did not succeed. 

He repeated Lord Halifax’s statement that changes in Europe were acceptable to Britain if accomplished without “the free play of forces,” and stated that he personally “had often expressed himself in favour of the Anschluss.” 

In the colonial field, he tried to interest Hitler in an area in Africa between the 5th parallel and the Zambezi River, but the Fuhrer insisted that his interest was restricted to restoration of Germany’s 1914 colonies in Africa...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html
 
Why don't you quote some independent source? Or at least someone other than a conspiracy theorist? Incidentally how come you aren't blaming all this on the Round Table, the Bilderbergers or the Trilateral Commission? How about the freemasons?
 


-------------


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 15:20
Originally posted by Bankotsu

Chamberlain's  appeasement bought Britain valuable time that it needed to catch up, but it's childish to think he wasn't already considering the necessity of war (and ignorant of the facts to claim he wasn't doing that).


Chamberlain would consider declaring war on Germany if Germany used force to get its demands.
Hey, you got something right for a change!

Chamberlain had no objections whatever to Germany getting Austria, Sudetenland, Danzig or polish corridor through negotiations.
Neither did anyone else. What would be wrong with that? It was in fact restricted to areas with ethnic German minorities. Under the Wilson program of self-determination post-Versailles they might well have voted to go with Germany, given the chance.
 
Anyway the key there is 'through negotiations'.


But if Hitler used force to get these areas, public opinion in Britain would force him to respond to German aggression.

If Germany made war, Chamberlain must either respond by declaring war or resign from office.

Chamberlain chose to declare war on Germany on 3 September 1939 rather than resign as Prime minister.
My, correct again! You problem is that flatly contradicts everything you have said earlier. It would have been impossible for the British government to have adopted a policy of 'pushing Hitler eastwards' because British sympathy was always with the small countries of eastern Europe. And, contrary to what you claimed earler, Chamberlain was indeed considering war with Germany.
 
When you abandon a totally untenable position and retreat to another one, you might at least acknowledge it. You lose face otherwise.

...On September 1, 1939, several German armies attacked Poland from the West, North and South-West. To justify this aggression, German propaganda faked a Polish "attack" on the radio station in the Upper Silesian town of Gleiwitz (now Gliwice, Poland) , and this was broadcast to the world. (After the war ended, it was found that the SS - Security Police - had used German convicts dressed in Polish uniforms, and murdered them after the "attack" to eliminate witnesses. The wooden radio tower still stands in Gliwice today).

The French and British governments delivered warning notes in Berlin on September 1, stating that if the German army did not withdraw from Poland, they would immediately fulfill their obligations to that country.

At the same time, however, the British government encouraged Mussolini to propose a great power conference, this time including Poland, and the French government supported this move.
What on earth is wrong with doing that? If a war is started then you try and get people together to talk to stop it. You're sounding like a Bushite idiot refusing to talk to Iran.

On September 2, Mussolini informed the British that he was trying to get Hitler's consent, but thought  he was unlikely to withdraw his forces from Poland unless he first got what he wanted. Hitler asked for time until midnight September 3, to answer Mussolini’s proposal. Meanwhile, German armed forces continued their attack on Poland.

The British Cabinet met at 4 p.m. September 2. Halifax reported Mussolini’s information and proposed  the deadline for Hitler’s answer to the British and French notes be set at midnight September 3. The Cabinet preferred midnight the same day, Sept. 2, but left the "coordination" of French and British action to Halifax.

That evening, September 2, Chamberlain spoke in the House of Commons and Halifax in the House of Lords. They stated that if German forces withdrew from Poland, then the British government would treat the situation as if nothing had happened, and would support Polish-German negotiations, or a wider conference. They did not give a deadline for Hitler’s answer to the British note.

The staid House of Lords heard Halifax in silence, but there was uproar in the House of Commons. Chamberlain was told that he must report to the House the next day by 11 a.m. There was a revolt in the Cabinet too.

Therefore, on the night of September 2, Chamberlain told the French government that Britain had to act, and instructed Ambassador Henderson to deliver a note to Ribbentrop the next day at 9 a.m. demanding an answer by 11 a.m. Henderson did so, and the French ambassador delivered a note demanding an answer by 5 p.m.

When there was no answer from Hitler by 11 a.m. Chamberlain spoke on the radio stating that Britain was at war with Germany...
http:// -
http://web.ku.edu/~eceurope/hist557/lect16.htm - http://web.ku.edu/~eceurope/hist557/lect16.htm
You don't have to tell me (or anyone else I expect) any of this. What are you trying to do - bore everyone to death with irrelevancies?
I listened to that broadcast. I remember it. It is totall pointless to bring it in at this point of the discussion - do you really think there are people who do not believe that Britain declared war on Germany on September 3 1939?
 
What you singularly fail to mention is that on September 17th the Soviet Union also moved its troops into Poland, not to support Poland, but to grab half of it for itself. Then, in agreement with the Germans, it turned its attention to Finland, Latvia, Lithuania and Estonia.
 
50-odd years ago 'historians' who wrote like you do were being paid to do so. I don't think that happens any more so I wonder about your motivation.
 
[


-------------


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 15:20
No it isn't. You obviously know so little about what went on in this period I don't know how you can say that.


???


Why don't you quote some independent source? Or at least someone other than a conspiracy theorist? Incidentally how come you aren't blaming all this on the Round Table, the Bilderbergers or the Trilateral Commission? How about the freemasons?


March 1938 Memorandum of a Meeting between Hitler and the British Ambassador 

The offer did not mean a commercial transaction, but an attempt to establish the basis for a genuine and cordial friendship with Germany beginning with an improvement of the atmosphere and ending with the creation of a new spirit of friendly understanding.... [Henderson] stressed the importance of German collaboration in the pacification of Europe, to which he had already referred in previous conversations with Herr von Neurath and Herr von Ribbentrop. This pacification could be furthered by limitation of armaments and by appeasement in Czechoslovakia and Austria.....[And Henderson then briefly sketched out the idea of some territorial adjustments in Africa.]

Henderson later wrote that he found Hitler in a bad temper and not impressed by the British offer. Obviously, he was not ready to restrain himself in South-Eastern Europe just for the sake of gaining a few minor overseas pieces of territory. Hitler's response was clear.

He personally was known as one of the warmest friends of England, but he had been ill-rewarded for this friendship. Perhaps nobody had been oftener and more grievously offended by England than he. It was, therefore, understandable that he had now withdrawn into a certain isolation, which still seemed to him more respectable than to make advances toward someone who did not want him and persistently snubbed him.... 

Concerning Central Europe, it should be noted that Germany would not tolerate any interference by third powers in the settlement of her relations with kindred countries or with countries having large German elements in their population. just as Germany would never think of interfering in the settlement of relations between England and Ireland. It was a question of preventing the continuance or the renewal of an injustice to millions of Germans. In this attempt at a settlement Germany would have to declare most seriously that she was not willing to be influenced in any way by other parties in this settlement....

 [As to the colonial question], the Führer replied that Germany was of course primarily interested in the question of the disposition of her former colonies. Instead of establishing a new and complicated system, why not solve the colonial question in the simplest and most natural way, namely by returning the former German colonies? He. the Führer, must openly admit. however, that he did not consider the colonial problem ripe for settlement as yet, since Paris and London had declared themselves much too firmly opposed to their return. Therefore, neither did he wish to press the issue. One could wait quietly for four, six, eight or ten years. Perhaps by that time a change of mind would have taken place in Paris and London. and they would understand that the best solution was to return to Germany her rightful property acquired by purchase and Treaty....

http://www2.bc.edu/%7Eheineman/roadii.html - http://www2.bc.edu/~heineman/roadii.html

http://www2.bc.edu/%7Eheineman/origins.html - http://www2.bc.edu/~heineman/origins.html



Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 15:31
It would have been impossible for the British government to have adopted a policy of 'pushing Hitler eastwards' because British sympathy was always with the small countries of eastern Europe.


British public opinion maybe, but not british government.


...The German Foreign Ministry memorandum on this conversation makes it perfectly clear that the Germans did not misunderstand Halifax except, possibly, on the last point.

There they failed to see that if Germany made war, the British Government would be forced into the war against Germany by public opinion in England. 

The German diplomatic agents in London, especially the Ambassador, Dirksen, saw this clearly, but the Government in Berlin listened only to the blind and conceited ignorance of Ribbentrop. 

As dictators themselves, unfamiliar with the British social or constitutional systems, the German rulers assumed that the willingness of the British Government to accept the liquidation of Austria, Czechoslovakia, and Poland implied that the British Government would never go to war to prevent this liquidation. 

They did not see that the British Government might have to declare war to stay in office if public opinion in Britain were sufficiently aroused.

The British Government saw this difficulty and as a last resort were prepared to declare war but not to wage war on Germany.  This distinction was not clear to the Germans and was not accepted by the inner core of the Milner Group.  It was, however, accepted by the other elements in the government, like Chamberlain himself, and by much of the second circle of the Milner Group, including Simon, Hoare, and probably Halifax.

It was this which resulted in the “phony war” from September 1939 to April 1940...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 18:25
Originally posted by Bankotsu

No it isn't. You obviously know so little about what went on in this period I don't know how you can say that.


???
You don't even appear to know when the appeasement policy started. You seem completely unaware of the fact that at the critical period the Soviet Union and Germany were allies. You quote Soviet propagandists like Hobsbawm and right-wing conspiracy theorists like Quigley as though they were reliable authorities. You think that considering the possibility of something is the same as adopting it as a policy.
 
In general you show abysmal ignorance in the whole area.
 
Incidentally, if I consider five options, A through D when I have a decision to make, and I tell yomeone Iam considering them, and I then adopt option D, so you really think anyone sane will think that is ground for saying I adopted policy A?

Why don't you quote some independent source? Or at least someone other than a conspiracy theorist? Incidentally how come you aren't blaming all this on the Round Table, the Bilderbergers or the Trilateral Commission? How about the freemasons?
 
So you agree Quigley was wrong to blame it all on the Round Table?
 
I already said the appeasement policy was adopted in 1938 in response to Hitler's demands re the Sudetenland.
 
You said that was an incorrect statement.
 
Since what you quote here shows that I was correct, why on earth do you bore everyone silly with a report that shows I was right? Why not just say 'sorry, I withdraw the remark?


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Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 18:37
Originally posted by Bankotsu

It would have been impossible for the British government to have adopted a policy of 'pushing Hitler eastwards' because British sympathy was always with the small countries of eastern Europe.


British public opinion maybe, but not british government.
Yes it was. That's the reason they were determined it would not fall under Soviet occupation. It's true they weren't successful in that, and the Soviet Union was allowed to swallow up its small neighbours, but that basically was because Britain was in no position to stop it, as it was in no position to stop the virtually simultaneous German invasion of Poland.
 
The difficult trick to pull off, given the only weapon actually available, pre-1939, was diplomacy, was stopping the aggrandisement in Europe of both the Soviet Union and Germany (and Italy, when it turned on Albania, but by April '39 it was too late to do much).
 
The British government failed in that task (as did the French) but it wasn't for want of trying.
 
What you quote below is of course yet more right-wing US conspiracy theory (which linbes up with Soviet propaganda on this point). There was no all-powerful Milner Round Table conspiracy. If there had been, Britain would not have re-armed as effectively as it did, a process that started well before Munich.
 
Incidentally your unawareness of the fact that Britain was busy re-arming from 1935 onwards, and it was the German threat they were re-arming against, not the Bolshevik one, which had been around for nearly 20 years already, is yet another indicator of your basic ignorance in this whole area.
 
What, as a matter of interest, are you suggesting Britain or France should have actually done between September 1939 and April 1940?
 


...The German Foreign Ministry memorandum on this conversation makes it perfectly clear that the Germans did not misunderstand Halifax except, possibly, on the last point.

There they failed to see that if Germany made war, the British Government would be forced into the war against Germany by public opinion in England. 

The German diplomatic agents in London, especially the Ambassador, Dirksen, saw this clearly, but the Government in Berlin listened only to the blind and conceited ignorance of Ribbentrop. 

As dictators themselves, unfamiliar with the British social or constitutional systems, the German rulers assumed that the willingness of the British Government to accept the liquidation of Austria, Czechoslovakia, and Poland implied that the British Government would never go to war to prevent this liquidation. 

They did not see that the British Government might have to declare war to stay in office if public opinion in Britain were sufficiently aroused.

The British Government saw this difficulty and as a last resort were prepared to declare war but not to wage war on Germany.  This distinction was not clear to the Germans and was not accepted by the inner core of the Milner Group.  It was, however, accepted by the other elements in the government, like Chamberlain himself, and by much of the second circle of the Milner Group, including Simon, Hoare, and probably Halifax.

It was this which resulted in the “phony war” from September 1939 to April 1940...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html


-------------


Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 20:36
Originally posted by gcle2003

....Stalin's alliance with Hitler included parcelling out between them the countries of north-eastern Europe. Stalin if you like sold western Poland and Czechoslovakia to Germany, and what he sold them for was eastern Poland, Latvia, Estonia and Lithuania.  Are you really suggesting that Britain should have sold those countries to the Soviet Union?....
 
Yes, good point - and don't forget Finland and Rumania as well.  Germany gave up any 'interest' in those countries, and Bessarabia was explicitly mentioned in the Pact.  So, of course the Soviets attacked and/or annexed territory from both of them as well.  In fact, there is good reason to believe that Stalin wasn't necessarily finished with them either.  The Soviets had made noises about 'replacing' the Finnish government with a more 'friendly' government (the 'Terijoki Government' under Kuusinen).  However, the embarassingly poor performance by the Red Army in the Winter War ultimately undermined the implementation of the change in government as Stalin was more concerned about getting the war over with asap at that point.  Similarly with Rumania - the Soviets clearly had more ambitions in the Balkans than just annexing Bukovina and Bessarabia.  It was just Hitler's 'intervention' in Rumania that caused the Soviets to 'back off' at that time.  It is interesting that the Soviets occupied Bulgaria towards the end of the war, when Bulgaria had not even been at war with the Soviet Union previously.
 
 


-------------
"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 20:58
Bankotsu, just a general comment echoing a point gcle2003 made previously:  in many of your posts of 'evidence' supporting your claims, you don't seem to be differentiating between what some politician 'said' at some point vs. what the government policy was.  Chamberlain wasn't an 'absolute dictator' either - so even if Chamberlain said something himself, that didn't automatically make it government policy either.  At a minimum he had to have the support of his cabinet.  Britain was a parliamentary democracy, which means that parliament could 'remove' Chamberlain at any time, if he tried to do something that was universally opposed. 
 
Having said that, yes 'appeasement' was official government policy at one point.  It had sufficient (although not universal) support, and was implemented (e.g. Munich).  However, 'appeasement' was not 'pushing' Germany east.  As you've noted, there was discussion of return of colonies in Africa.  How is that consistent with pushing Germany east?  Even Czechoslovakia was south, not east of Germany (certainly the Sudetenland anyway) and provided Germany with no common border with the Soviet Union.  So Munich did not really advance the 'push Germany east' strategy that you claim was Britain's aim.  Munich only gave Germany the Sudetenland, and the German occupation of the rest of Czecho-Slovakia was a violation of the agreement, and resulted in a change in British policy.  At that point, Britiain's actions were in fact exactly the opposite of what a 'push Germany east' policy would have demanded.  The guarantee to Poland ensured that Germany could not go east without fighting France and Britain.  In spite of allowing a rather long time for negotiation even after the German attack on Poland, the fact is that Britain did ultimately declare war on Germany and refused to accept the German conquest of Poland and instead continued the war.  Again, all of those ACTIONS (not words) are exactly the opposite of what Britain should have done if 'pushing Germany east' had actually been their policy. 
 
To summarize what I stated previously, Britain's policy was 'appeasement', which meant making concessions to Germany in negotiations in order to avoid war.  When Germany violated the Munich agreement, that policy ended and the new British policy was 'deterrence', i.e. to guarantee small countries against German aggression, in order to avoid war or, failing that, contain Germany.  In neither case was British policy to encourage German aggression, either to the east, or in any other direction.  British policy was in fact to avoid war, by first granting what seemed like 'reasonable' concessions and later by 'deterrence', i.e. making it clear that Germany could not attack small countries without provoking a wider war in Europe. 


-------------
"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 21:57
It's worth a mention too that, rightly or wrongly, the areas where Britain was willing to accept annexation by Germany through negotiation were areas primarily ethnically German. The idea that 'German territories' - i.e. areas inhabited primarily by Germans - should be returned to Germany - wasn't too shocking.

-------------


Posted By: Sarmat
Date Posted: 14-Jun-2008 at 22:07
Originally posted by gcle2003

Yes it was. That's the reason they were determined it would not fall under Soviet occupation. It's true they weren't successful in that, and the Soviet Union was allowed to swallow up its small neighbours, but that basically was because Britain was in no position to stop it, as it was in no position to stop the virtually simultaneous German invasion of Poland.
 
The difficult trick to pull off, given the only weapon actually available, pre-1939, was diplomacy, was stopping the aggrandisement in Europe of both the Soviet Union and Germany (and Italy, when it turned on Albania, but by April '39 it was too late to do much).
 
The British government failed in that task (as did the French) but it wasn't for want of trying.
 
What you quote below is of course yet more right-wing US conspiracy theory (which linbes up with Soviet propaganda on this point). There was no all-powerful Milner Round Table conspiracy. If there had been, Britain would not have re-armed as effectively as it did, a process that started well before Munich.
 
Incidentally your unawareness of the fact that Britain was busy re-arming from 1935 onwards, and it was the German threat they were re-arming against, not the Bolshevik one, which had been around for nearly 20 years already, is yet another indicator of your basic ignorance in this whole area.
 
What, as a matter of interest, are you suggesting Britain or France should have actually done between September 1939 and April 1940?
 
 
It's just a biased anti-Soviet propaganda. Stalin occupied the Baltic states, only because he can easily do it due to the carte blanche from Hitler. There was actually a good practical reason for that either. I.e. if USSR doesn't occupy them they would be eventually ocupied by the Germans which will make the position of the USSR in case of war with Germany much more difficulat.
 
If there was no Munich in 1938, if the USSR wasn't ignored by France and England. If instead of Munich they concluded defence alliance with the USSR, Stalin would never dare to touch the Baltic states.
 
It's just easier to blame Stalin in all the sins, then to recognize the simple truth that the root of all this was Munich.
 
If there was no Munich, never would Stalin occupy the Baltic states.
 
You also don't pay any attention that in fact all the Baltic states regimes and especially Poland were very hostile towards the USSR; and Poland even was seriously considering "its interests" in the USSR, even going as far as the restoration of the Polish rule as far as the shores of the Black Sea.
 


-------------
Σαυρομάτης


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 15-Jun-2008 at 05:40
Thanks moderators for moving this thread to "alternative history" section.

Other moderators at other forums would had locked the thread and kicked me out long ago!

This is how much british people despise and hate this view of history.

They cannot accept it at all.

This is the first forum where I am not ban for propagating this view.

The strongest resistance always come from the british camp.

To others, this view is obvious and clear.

Anyway I am very grateful for not being banned and I thank the moderators, they are very kind.

Since for some unknown reason, british people can never accept this fact that "Britain turn Germany eastwards to destroy Soviet Union", I will stop postings on this topic.

Thanks for not banning me!



...This society has been known at various times as Milner’s Kindergarten, as the Round Table Group, as the Rhodes crowd, as The Times crowd, as the All Souls group, and as the Cliveden set.  All of these terms are unsatisfactory, for one reason or another, and I have chosen to call it the Milner Group.  Those persons who have used the other terms, or heard them used, have not generally been aware that all these various terms referred to the same Group...

http://www.yamaguchy.netfirms.com/7897401/quigley/anglo_index.html - http://www.yamaguchy.netfirms.com/7897401/quigley/anglo_index.html

...
If Neville Chamberlain and the "Cliveden group"— the title is taken from Lord Astor's country house—have their way, it will not be long before Hitler is the master of the European continent...

http://newdeal.feri.org/nation/na38146p292.htm - http://newdeal.feri.org/nation/na38146p292.htm

...To Britons, Cliveden is part of their country's history, from the distant past up to the present day. All good Englishmen recognize the date, 1668, cut into one lawn and remember how the "witty and wicked" George Villiers, second Duke of Buckingham, for whom Cliveden was built, abducted Lady Shrewsbury and then killed her pursuing husband while the Lady held the horses. They remember, too, the role of Cliveden in the appeasement years of Prime Ministers Baldwin and Chamberlain, when the "Cliveden set" met there on weekends planning how to circumvent the war...

http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,886012,00.html - http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,886012,00.html



...And by this date, certain members of the Milner Group[Cliveden Set] and of the British Conservative government had reached the fantastic idea that they could kill two birds with one stone by setting Germany and Russia against one another in Eastern Europe.

In this way they felt that the two enemies would stalemate one another, or that Germany would become satisfied with the oil of Rumania and the wheat of the Ukraine. 


It never occurred to anyone in a responsible position that Germany and Russia might make common cause, even temporarily, against the West.  Even less did it occur to them that Russia might beat Germany and thus open all Central Europe to Bolshevism.

This idea of bringing Germany into a collision with Russia was not to be found, so far as the evidence shows, among any members of the inner circle of the Milner Group.

Rather it was to be found among the personal associates of Neville Chamberlain, including several members of the second circle of the Milner Group.

The two policies followed parallel courses until March 1939.  After that date the Milner Group’s disintegration became very evident, and part of it took the form of the movement of several persons (like Hoare and Simon) from the second circle of the Milner Group to the inner circle of the new group rotating around Chamberlain.

This process was concealed by the fact that this new group was following, in public at least, the policy desired by the Milner Group;  their own policy, which was really the continuation of appeasement for another year after March 1939, was necessarily secret, so that the contrast between the Chamberlain group and the inner circle of the Milner Group in the period after March 1939 was not as obvious as it might have been.

In order to carry out this plan of allowing Germany to drive eastward against Russia, it was necessary to do three things: 

(1) to liquidate all the countries standing between Germany and Russia;
(2) to prevent France from honoring her alliances with these countries;  and
(3) to hoodwink the English people into accepting this as a necessary, indeed, the only solution to the international problem.

The Chamberlain group were so successful in all three of these things that they came within an ace of succeeding, and failed only because of the obstinacy of the Poles, the unseemly haste of Hitler, and the fact that at the eleventh hour the Milner Group realized the implications of their policy and tried to reverse it...

http://www.yamaguchy.netfirms.com/7897401/quigley/anglo_12b.html - http://www.yamaguchy.netfirms.com/7897401/quigley/anglo_12b.html


Eden noted in his diary after talks with Hitler:"Only thing Hitler wants is Air Pact without limitation. Simon much inclined to bite at this....I had to protest and he gave up the idea.... Simon toys with the idea of letting Germany expand eastwards. I am strongly against. Apart from dishonesty it would be out turn next"(cited in Dutton 1994, 50).


http://books.google.com.sg/books?id=UyMXon0JmBsC&pg=PA107&lpg=PA107&dq=edens+diary+1935+hitler+simon+&source=web&ots=A58iIH7xr6&sig=IChZUDHy4vJ-mJ8C112mq56Mfks&hl=en - http://books.google.com.sg/books?id=UyMXon0JmBsC&pg=PA107&lpg=PA107&dq=eden's+diary+1935+hitler+simon+&source=web&ots=A58iIH7xr6&sig=IChZUDHy4vJ-mJ8C112mq56Mfks&hl=en


...Two weeks after Munich Baldwin said in a conversation with Lord Hinchingbrooke:

"Can't we turn Hitler East? Napoleon broke himself against the Russians. Hitler might do the same"...

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stanley_Baldwin#Later_life - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stanley_Baldwin#Later_life


Any analysis of the motivations of Britain in 1938-1939 is bound to be difficult because different people had different motives, motives changed in the course of time, the motives of the government were clearly not the same as the motives of the people, and in no country has secrecy and anonymity been carried so far or been so well preserved as in Britain.

In general, motives become vaguer and less secret as we move our attention from the innermost circles of the government outward. As if we were looking at the layers of an onion, we may discern four points of view:

(1) the anti-Bolsheviks at the center,

(2) the "three-bloc-world" supporters close to the center,

(3) the supporters of "appeasement," and

(4) the "peace at any price" group in a peripheral position.

The "anti-Bolsheviks," who were also anti-French, were extremely important from 1919 to 1926, but then decreased to little more than a lunatic fringe, rising again in numbers and influence after 1934 to dominate the real policy of the government in 1939.

In the earlier period the chief figures in this group were Lord Curzon, Lord D'Abernon, and General Smuts. They did what they could to destroy reparations, permit German rearmament, and tear down what they called "French militarism."

This point of view was supported by the second group, which was known in those days as the Round Table Group, and came later to be called, somewhat inaccurately, the Cliveden Set, after the country estate of Lord and Lady Astor...

The anti-Bolsheviks, including D'Abernon, Smuts, Sir John Simon, and H. A. L. Fisher (Warden of All Souls College), were willing to go to any extreme to tear down France and build up Germany. Their point of view can be found in many places, and most emphatically in a letter of August I l, 1920, from D'Abernon to Sir Maurice (later Lord) Hankey, a prot้g้ of Lord Esher who wielded great influence in the inter-war period as secretary to the Cabinet and secretary to almost every international conference on reparations from Genoa (1922) to Lausanne (1932). D'Abernon advocated a secret alliance of Britain "with the German military leaders in cooperating against the Soviet." As ambassador of Great Britain in Berlin in 1920-1926, D'Abernon carried on this policy and blocked all efforts by the Disarmament Commission to disarm, or even inspect, Germany (according to Brigadier J. H. Morgan of the commission)...

http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/12.html#42 - http://real-world-news.org/bk-quigley/12.html#42


...British policy had only one aim: to cajole, wheedle, guide and direct Germany against Soviet Russia...

http://www.columbia.edu/%7Elnp3/mark_jones/appeasement.htm - http://www.columbia.edu/~lnp3/mark_jones/appeasement.htm


...On September 1, Hitler  attacked Poland. Britain and France were caught in their own trap. These two countries assisted in all of Hitler's  adventures, hoping to use him against the Soviet Union...

... Unable to see through their dream of seeing the Nazi army charge through Poland to attack the Soviet Union, France and Britain were forced to declare war on Germany. But on the Western Front, not a single bomb would bother Nazi tranquility. However, a real internal political war was launched against the French Communists: On September 26, the French Communist Party was banned and thousands of its members were thrown into prison...

http://www.plp.org/books/Stalin/node131.html - http://www.plp.org/books/Stalin/node131.html


...German Foreign Office documents captured by the Soviet troops after Germany’s defeat reveal the true purport of Great Britain’s and France’s policy at that period. They show that, essentially, British and French policy was not to unite the forces of the peace-loving states for a common struggle against aggression, but to isolate the U.S.S.R. and direct Hitler aggression toward the East, against the Soviet Union using Hitler as a tool for their own ends...

http://www.agitprop.org.au/lefthistory/1948_falsifiers_of_history.php - http://www.agitprop.org.au/lefthistory/1948_falsifiers_of_history.php


Question: Some people do not realize yet that the Soviet-German non-aggression treaty is the result of the breakdown of the Anglo-French-Soviet talks, but think that the Soviet-German treaty caused the breakdown. Will you please explain why the Anglo-French-Soviet talks failed?

Answer: The talks failed purely because the British and French governments were insincere.

In recent years the reactionary international bourgeoisie, and primarily that of Britain and France, have consistently pursued the reactionary policy of "non-intervention" towards aggression by fascist Germany, Italy and Japan.

Their purpose is to connive at wars of aggression and to profit by them. Thus Britain and France flatly rejected the Soviet Union's repeated proposals for a genuine front against aggression; standing on the side-lines, they took a "non-interventionist" position and connived at German, Italian and Japanese aggression.

Their aim was to step forward and intervene when the belligerents had worn each other out. In pursuit of this reactionary policy they sacrificed half of China to Japan, and the whole of Abyssinia, Spain, Austria and Czechoslovakia to Italy and Germany.

Then they wanted to sacrifice the Soviet Union. This plot was clearly revealed in the recent Anglo-French-Soviet talks. They lasted for more than four months, from April 15 to August 23, during which the Soviet Union exercised the utmost patience. But, from start to finish, Britain and France rejected the principle of equality and reciprocity; they demanded that the Soviet Union provide safeguards for their security, but refused to do likewise for the Soviet Union and the small Baltic states, so as to leave a gap through which Germany could attack, and they also refused to allow the passage of Soviet troops through Poland to fight the aggressor. That is why the talks broke down.

In the meantime, Germany indicated her willingness to stop her activities against the Soviet Union and abandon the so-called Agreement Against the Communist International and recognized the inviolability of the Soviet frontiers; hence the conclusion of the Soviet-German non-aggression treaty.

The policy of "non-intervention" pursued by international and primarily Anglo-French reaction is a policy of "sitting on top of the mountain to watch the tigers fight", a downright imperialist policy of profiting at others' expense.

This policy was initiated when Chamberlain took office, reached its climax in the Munich agreement of September last year and finally collapsed in the recent Anglo-French-Soviet talks. From now on the situation will inevitably develop into one of direct conflict between the two big imperialist blocs, the Anglo-French bloc and the German-Italian bloc.

As I said in October 1938 at the Sixth Plenary Session of the Sixth Central Committee of our Party, "The inevitable result of Chamberlain's policy will be like 'lifting a rock only to drop it on one's own toes'." Chamberlain started with the aim of injuring others only to end up by ruining himself. This is the law of development which governs all reactionary policies.

http://marxists.org/reference/archive/mao/selected-works/volume-2/mswv2_17.htm - http://marxists.org/reference/archive/mao/selected-works/volume-2/mswv2_17.htm


...These crafty politicians were not the least bit interested in checking aggression against Spain, against China, or against Austria and Czechoslovakia, on the contrary, they connived at aggression and instigated war, playing the proverbial role of the fisherman who set the snipe and clam at each other and then took advantage of both.

They euphemistically described their actions as "non-intervention", but what they actually did was to "sit on top of the mountain to watch the tigers fight".

Quite a number of people throughout the world have been fooled by the honeyed words of Chamberlain and his partners, failing to see the murderous intent behind their smiles, or to understand that the Soviet-German non-aggression treaty was concluded only after Chamberlain and Daladier had made up their minds to reject the Soviet Union and bring about the imperialist war. It is time for these people to wake up...

http://marxists.org/reference/archive/mao/selected-works/volume-2/mswv2_19.htm - http://marxists.org/reference/archive/mao/selected-works/volume-2/mswv2_19.htm



Heath: I think the Soviet Union has a lot of troubles. They are facing domestic economic difficulties and agricultural predicament, and there are also differences within the leadership, over questions of tactics and timing, not over long-term strategy.

Mao: I think the Soviet Union is busy with its own affairs and unable to deal with Europe, the Middle East, South Asia, China and the Pacific. I think it will lose.

Heath: However, its military strength is continually augmented. Although the Soviet Union has encountered troubles at many places in the world, its strength is continuing to grow. Therefore, we deem this to be the principal threat. Does the Chairman think the Soviet Union constitutes a menace to China?

Mao: We are prepared for it to come, but it will collapse if it comes. It has only a handful of troops, and you Europeans are so frightened of it! Some people in the West are always trying to direct this calamity toward China. Your senior, Chamberlain, and also Daladier of France were the ones who pushed Germany eastward.

Heath: I opposed Mr. Chamberlain then.

http://english.pladaily.com.cn/special/mao/txt/w24.htm - http://english.pladaily.com.cn/special/mao/txt/w24.htm


PM Chou: Originally Western Europe had hoped that Germany would go eastwards.

Dr. Kissinger: Western Europe.

PM Chou: At Munich.

Dr. Kissinger: Yes, at Munich. Western Europe had very superficial leaders. They didn’t have the courage to pursue any policy towards a conclusion. Once they had done Munich it made no sense to fight for Poland. But that is a different issue. And I don’t blame Stalin, because from his point of view he gained himself the essential time...

http://www.state.gov/documents/organization/100320.pdf - http://www.state.gov/documents/organization/100320.pdf
http://www.state.gov/r/pa/ho/frus/nixon/xviii/ - http://www.state.gov/r/pa/ho/frus/nixon/xviii/


...However, influential leaders of the capitalist powers believed that German fascism was the only bulwark against Bolshevism. They confidently expected that a re-armed Germany would sweep to the East and destroy the centre of the Red contagion — the USSR...

http://www.cpa.org.au/garchve05/1226ww2.html - http://www.cpa.org.au/garchve05/1226ww2.html

Date: 04 Aug 1936
Scope/content:

Letter from Major-General Sir Hugh Tudor, St John's Newfoundland, Canada to WSC, on the European situation. Commenting that Britain should make a strong western pact with France and Germany, and allow Germany to "settle" the Soviet Union and Bolshevism "in her own way". Stating that Germany would eventually be stronger after defeating Russia, and it would take years before her to be in a position to make war again. "Russia deserves what is coming to her as she will never stop undermining capitalistic governments in every way she can." Commenting that if left alone Russia would be the stongest power on earth in 10 years, and may be a more dangerous enemy than Germany. Praising WSC for "bradawling" the Government over re-armament.

http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1171884;sort_by=Dscore;index=50 - http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1171884;sort_by=Dscore;index=50


Date: 16 Aug 1936
Scope/content:

Letter from WSC to Major-General Sir Hugh Tudor, thanks for letter on the European political situation. Commenting that a strong and growing section of Conservative opinion agreed with Tudor that Britain should form a strong Western Alliance with France and Germany, leaving Germany free to deal with the Soviet Union.

http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1171884;sort_by=Dscore;index=6 - http://www-archives.chu.cam.ac.uk/perl/node?search_id=1171884;sort_by=Dscore;index=6



Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 15-Jun-2008 at 13:32
Bankotsu, no-one denies there was a segment of British society that admired Hitler and would have liked to see a (British nationalist) fascist regime in Britain. There was even an official British fascist party under Oswald Mosley. So there's absolutely no point in continuing to produce things that prove this.
 
We all know that.
 
There's no point in continuing to assert that the British and French governments tried in 1938 to appease Hitler. Everyone accepts that. What would be good would be if you were to suggest what else they could have done that would simultaneously helped keep the Soviet Union in check.
 
In 1935 Britain started to re-arm to prepare for war with Germany. You haven't produced one smidgeon of a slight indication that that is not true. That rearmament program accelerated over the next four years, until Britain was finally in some sort of shape to take military action even if they could not stop the Soviet/German conquest of Poland or the Soviet takeover, under their deal with Hitler, of territory further south.
 
Meanwhile every effort was made to stop war breaking out before Britain and France were ready for it. Even then it was a close-run thing for Britain, and too late for France.
 
What else would you have done to save the small countries of Europe from conquest by Germany and/or the Soviet Union?
 
 


-------------


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 15-Jun-2008 at 13:49
Originally posted by Sarmat12

It's just a biased anti-Soviet propaganda. Stalin occupied the Baltic states, only because he can easily do it due to the carte blanche from Hitler.
That's not 'biassed anti-Soviet propaganda'. You have it exactly right. The Soviet Union occupied the Baltic states because their alliance with Hitler made it easy.
There was actually a good practical reason for that either. I.e. if USSR doesn't occupy them they would be eventually ocupied by the Germans which will make the position of the USSR in case of war with Germany much more difficulat.
Yes there are always good reasons for occupying other countries. Germany had a good practical reason for overruning Western Europe. The point is that the Soviet union swallowed up those states and did not let them go free after the Nazi menace had been defeated.
 If there was no Munich in 1938, if the USSR wasn't ignored by France and England. If instead of Munich they concluded defence alliance with the USSR, Stalin would never dare to touch the Baltic states.
Stalin's terms for such an agreement would have included allowing him to take possession of the Baltic States and part at least of Finland. I don't see why appeasing the Soviet Union should be seen as better than appeasing Germany.  I can understand that Nazis and Stalinists feel differently about that.
 
It's just easier to blame Stalin in all the sins, then to recognize the simple truth that the root of all this was Munich.
 
If there was no Munich, never would Stalin occupy the Baltic states.
Why on earth not? Did he or his successors set them free in 1945? Did the SU or did it not occupy the countries of eastern Europe as soon as the defeat of the Nazis gave them the chance?
 
The alternative to Munich (which allowed Germany to reclaim lands from the old Germanic empires) would have been a deal with Stalin which allowed Russia to reclaim lands from the old Tsarist empire. Which he did in 1939-40 and again post-1945, plus some more chunks of the old eastern European empires. (German, Austrian and Ottoman).
 
You also don't pay any attention that in fact all the Baltic states regimes and especially Poland were very hostile towards the USSR; and Poland even was seriously considering "its interests" in the USSR, even going as far as the restoration of the Polish rule as far as the shores of the Black Sea.
 
 
Poland was never 'seriously' considering any such thing. Certainly not in the 1930s: the heady aftermath of independence in 1918 was a different atmosphere.
 
Again, ambitious empire-builders never have any difficulty coming up with that sort of 'justification'. Reminds one a little of recent events in the Middle East, no?
 
How do you excuse the fact that the Soviet Union either annexed or took control of virtually the whole of Eastern Europe, post-1945? You really don't think that given half a chance Stalin would have done the same thing earlier?


-------------


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 15-Jun-2008 at 13:52
For another way of looking at what a deal with the Soviet Union (instead of Munich) would have meant, look at Yalta and Potsdam. 

-------------


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 15-Jun-2008 at 15:08
Yalta has the Russians knowcking on the gates of Berlin at the Oder, with the Allies not even on the Rhine yet, while Potsdam has the requirement to get them on board for the war againt Japan, which was expected to take the next year or two.
 
Different times. Not exactly the same, those two has the USSR in a position of strenght vis-a-via the W Allies, not something it was in 1938 at the height of the purges.


-------------


Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 15-Jun-2008 at 15:58
 

Originally posted by Bankotsu

Thanks moderators for moving this thread to "alternative history" section.

Other moderators at other forums would had locked the thread and kicked me out long ago!

This is how much British people despise and hate this view of history. They cannot accept it at all.

This is the first forum where I am not ban for propagating this view.

The strongest resistance always come from the British camp.

To others, this view is obvious and clear.

Anyway I am very grateful for not being banned and I thank the moderators, they are very kind.

Since for some unknown reason, British people can never accept this fact that "Britain turn Germany eastwards to destroy Soviet Union", I will stop postings on this topic.

Thanks for not banning me!

Well, if you can be 'faulted' for anything it is your 'debating' style, or lack thereof. You consistently fail to respond to any counterpoints posted by others, and simply subject us to another 'deluge' of copy / paste information. Often these are not even a direct reply in any sense to what others have posted. I find it most amusing that you appear to have lumped me into the 'British camp', since I have previously been lumped into the 'German camp'. Perhaps it is a good thing to have 'a foot' in as many camps as possible. ;)

Originally posted by Bankotsu

In order to carry out this plan of allowing Germany to drive eastward against Russia, it was necessary to do three things: 

(1) to liquidate all the countries standing between Germany and Russia;
(2) to prevent France from honoring her alliances with these countries;  and
(3) to hoodwink the English people into accepting this as a necessary, indeed, the only solution to the international problem.

The Chamberlain group were so successful in all three of these things that they came within an ace of succeeding, and failed only because of the obstinacy of the Poles, the unseemly haste of Hitler, and the fact that at the eleventh hour the Milner Group realized the implications of their policy and tried to reverse it...

Interesting that your terminology now appears to have changed, from 'forcing' or 'pushing' Germany east to 'allowing' Germany to 'drive eastward'. You say that Chamberlain('s group) was 'successful in all three of these things', and yet they actually failed in (2) and (3), and (1) only came about as a result of the Nazi-Soviet Pact, and in direct opposition to British policy!



Originally posted by Bankotsu

Eden noted in his diary after talks with Hitler:"Only thing Hitler wants is Air Pact without limitation. Simon much inclined to bite at this....I had to protest and he gave up the idea.... Simon toys with the idea of letting Germany expand eastwards. I am strongly against. Apart from dishonesty it would be our turn next"(cited in Dutton 1994, 50).



You do realize that this directly contradicts your theory, don't you? Simon was replaced as Foreign Secretary in 1935 by none other than Eden himself. So in 1935 Simon, who 'toyed' with the idea of letting (note, not pushing or forcing) Germany expand eastwards was replaced by Eden, who was dead set against the idea (fully realizing that Britain would be 'next', if Germany was victorious in the east). So what does that say about your theory that British government policy was to 'push' / 'force' / 'allow' Germany east?



Originally posted by Bankotsu

Question: Some people do not realize yet that the Soviet-German non-aggression treaty is the result of the breakdown of the Anglo-French-Soviet talks, but think that the Soviet-German treaty caused the breakdown. Will you please explain why the Anglo-French-Soviet talks failed?

Answer: The talks failed purely because the British and French governments were insincere.



There is some truth to this, however, it is a bit disingenuous as stated. Britain and France were in a bit of an awkward position. First, the purpose for any 'deal' with the Soviets was viewed as being to help deal with the 'current' crisis, which was Germany threatening Poland. Although Chamberlain at that point was willing to entertain the possibility of an alliance with the Soviets for that purpose, the Poles categorically refused any 'assistance' from the Soviets. Further, the Soviets were not willing to agree to a 'generic' alliance with 'vague' commitments about 'supporting' each other. They wanted specifics about the number of divisions that would be committed where, and when in various scenarios. Thus the British and French were in a position where the Poles were not willing to agree to any specific proposal dealing with the scenario where Germany invaded Poland and the Soviets were supposed to 'help'. Further, let us keep in mind that the Soviets were negotiating with the Germans at the same time as talks were proceeding with the French and British. So there is just as much reason to question the sincerity of the Soviets as there is that of the French and British.




-------------
"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 15-Jun-2008 at 16:04
You consistently fail to respond to any counterpoints posted by others,


List down the questions you want me to answer.


Posted By: Bankotsu
Date Posted: 15-Jun-2008 at 16:08

Interesting that your terminology now appears to have changed, from 'forcing' or 'pushing' Germany east to 'allowing' Germany to 'drive eastward'. You say that Chamberlain('s group) was 'successful in all three of these things', and yet they actually failed in (2) and (3), and (1) only came about as a result of the Nazi-Soviet Pact, and in direct opposition to British policy!


That is Carroll Quigley, not me.


...In order to carry out this plan of allowing Germany to drive eastward against Russia, it was necessary to do three things: 

(1) to liquidate all the countries standing between Germany and Russia; 
(2) to prevent France from honoring her alliances with these countries;  and
(3) to hoodwink the English people into accepting this as a necessary, indeed, the only solution to the international problem.

The Chamberlain group were so successful in all three of these things that they came within an ace of succeeding, and failed only because of the obstinacy of the Poles, the unseemly haste of Hitler, and the fact that at the eleventh hour the Milner Group realized the implications of their policy and tried to reverse it...

http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html - http://yamaguchy.netfirms.com/cikkek/anglo_12b.html



Posted By: deadkenny
Date Posted: 15-Jun-2008 at 16:18
Originally posted by Bankotsu


List down the questions you want me to answer.
 
Not so much 'questions' as 'points' that haven't been addressed. 
 
  1. Britain 'guaranteed'  Poland against German aggression.  They 'honoured' that commitment as far as declaring war on Germany when Germany invaded Poland.  Further they refused to come to any agreement with Germany even after Germany and the Soviets had 'partitioned' Poland between themselves.  This is in direct contradition to your theory that Britain wanted to 'push' / 'force' / 'allow' / 'encourage' German east.
  2. Much of what you've posted in 'support' of your theory amounts to nothing more than the 'musings' of those in Britain who were admittedly anti-communist and extremely right-wing (even to the extent of being fascists themselves).  None of that supports your theory regarding British government policy.  In a democracy there is a difference between what various people say, and what actually becomes official government policy.   The actions of Britian contradict your theory consistently.  The Sudetenland was south of Germany, not east.  Further, it gave Germany no common border with the Soviet Union.  That was the only territorial concession that Britain actually agreed to.  Britain viewed the occupation of the remainder of Czecho-Slovakia as a violation of the Munich agreement, and it led directly to a change in British policy - i.e. the end of 'appeasement' and the beginning of 'deterrence'.  The effect of the British guarantee to Poland was to 'force' Germany west, not east.  Further, Stalin's pact with the Nazi's also 'forced' Germany west.  So the next direction that Hitler went after the Nazi-Soviet 'dismemberment' of Poland was north (Denmark, Norway) and west (Netherlands, Belgium, Luxembourg, France) not east.
 
 


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"Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it." George Santayana



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