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Komnenos
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Topic: Byzantine or Roman? Posted: 09-Dec-2005 at 01:44 |
Originally posted by Alkiviades
So, are we all agreed that Byzantium is Rome and move on?
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I don't think there was ever any serious doubt in the first place.
How can you argue with a people that understood themselves as Romans till the better end, and were understood by all, save the barbarian upstarts in the West, as the only rightful successors of the concept of a Roman Empire.
Where to go next? Where was the "New Byzantium"? Was it the old one in a new Turkish guise or was it Moscow, the heir of the Imperial Orthodox tradition?
Answers in many old threads, or on postcards please!
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[IMG]http://i71.photobucket.com/albums/i137/komnenos/crosses1.jpg">
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Maju
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Posted: 09-Dec-2005 at 02:10 |
Well, I don't agree that Byzantium is Rome like that. Rome is the city
of Rome and, while this belonged to Byzantium for some time, it was
longer the time that it belonged to other (Western) entities.
Also, you can just ignore the huge remaining influence, able even to
transform Germans and other barbarians, and say that Rome vanished in
the West. Culturally it didn't and that is probably the most important
fact.
And this is not because I personally feel related to Rome or I think
that my nation is. No. In fact my nation is one of the exceptions: one
of the few countries that do not have a Roman legal tradition, one of
the few in which Romance was a foreign language, in which the legacy of
Rome was basically supressed by the anti-feudal Bagauda... But I know
what is around me and they are damn Romans: call them Spaniards, call
them French, call them Italians... they are all Neo-Romans speaking
Neo-Latin and having a Neo-Roman law in cities that were often founded
or by Romans and following (often) a religion that is centered in Rome
and which was the oficial religion of the late Roman Empire.
There are no Frankish roads nor Visigothic bridges nor Lombard aqueducts nor Burgundian theatres. Got the idea?
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NO GOD, NO MASTER!
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Raider
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Posted: 12-Dec-2005 at 04:17 |
In my opinion the Byzantine Empire was technically the same state than the ancient Roman Empire. On the other hand it was gradually changed. I think it is natural during a 1000 years.
The western empire ceased to exist in 476. Naturally it has an tremendous impact and has many heirs, but the Roman state vanquished.
I usually called the empire Eastern Roman Empire before Heraclius and Byzantine Empire after him.
Edited by Raider
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Constantine XI
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Posted: 12-Dec-2005 at 05:34 |
Byzantium is the true heir of Rome. To say that it is not because
certain characterists were different is not satisfactor, the Roman
state was always adapting to the circumstances in which it found itself
and Byzantium was the logical continuation of the evolution. As an
autocratic state whose territories encompased some of Rome's richest
and most defensible territories, Byzantium was the only state in the
world which could claim an unbroken succession of Emperors dating back
to Augustus himself.
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Raider
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Posted: 12-Dec-2005 at 08:08 |
Constantine XI.
I disagree with the word heir. The Byzantine Empire as a state was the same as the Roman Empire. The Holy Roman Empire or the Papacy would be the heir of the western empire, but I think the Byzantine empire was the Roman Empire itself (or herself ???).
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tadamson
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Posted: 12-Dec-2005 at 08:35 |
Originally posted by Maju
Well, I don't agree that Byzantium is Rome like that. Rome is the city
of Rome and, while this belonged to Byzantium for some time, it was
longer the time that it belonged to other (Western) entities.
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Remember, whilst we might call them Byzantines, they always
called themselves Romans, and the city (Constantinople) was officialy
'New Rome'.
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rgds.
Tom..
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Heraclius
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Posted: 12-Dec-2005 at 08:36 |
I look at Byzantium more as a continuation more than an heir, at the death of the western empire the entire eastern empire was intact, just as it had always been. Byzantium was one half of the Roman world when the western half was alive so why cant it be THE whole Roman world when the western half died?
There isnt really an inheritance just a continuation, it was Roman when the empire was united, it was Roman when the empire was split and it continued to be Roman until the empire itself was destroyed, regardless of how different it looked, how big it was or what language it spoke IMO.
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A tomb now suffices him for whom the world was not enough.
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Maju
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Posted: 12-Dec-2005 at 10:54 |
Originally posted by Heraclius
I look at Byzantium more as a continuation
more than an heir, at the death of the western empire the entire
eastern empire was intact, just as it had always been. Byzantium was
one half of the Roman world when the western half was alive so why cant
it be THE whole Roman world when the western half died?
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The western Roman world didn't die. That's my point. The only thing
that died were the state institutions, the concept of empire. But
Romanity was alive and kicking in the streets and fields of Western
Europe. We talk of Gallo-Romans of Ibero-Romans of Britano-Romans...
who were they if they weren't Romans? The transitions to new
nationalities would take still many centuries... that's why the Empire
was resurrected: because it was an element of shared identity.
Here maybe more important than language or religion it was the feeling
that the remaining Roman Empire wasn't there and wasn't theirs anymore.
I don't care how legitimate was Byzantium... it was bussy in the east
and was near to powerless and disinterested in the west. It wasn't the
empire of Western Romans but just a distant cousin. The only Roman
authority in the west was that of the Germanic kings and the Church of
Rome.
But the people were Romans.
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NO GOD, NO MASTER!
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Imperator Invictus
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Posted: 12-Dec-2005 at 11:34 |
That would be saying that the Britishness didn't die in the U.S.,
Australia, Canada, India, etc., which is true, but doesn't have a lot
of real meaning. In fact, when Byzantium was losing its territories,
the concept of Roman was also passed on to the Turks. This same concept
also traveled into Russia and Moscow was known as the Third Rome. So
Medieval Western Europe was not the only one who took the concept of
"Roman". So in this case, by self-proclaimed identity, the Romanovs were as Roman as the Germanics.
Also as for the Germanic Kings, the Holy Roman Empire was for the most part, not Holy, not Roman, and not an Empire.
Edited by Imperator Invictus
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Maju
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Posted: 12-Dec-2005 at 12:03 |
I never said that Rome belongs only to Western Europe. Obviously its
influence is much lager. But one can't deny that Western Europe,
particularly Romance-speaking countries are natural heirs of Rome, at
least as much as Byzantium.
People tend to emphasize the political structure when talking about
this issue and it's clear that's not the most important thing: culture
and identity are much more important.
And you are right in comparing with the British colonies: they are
heirs of the British Empire as much as Britain itself is. The same can
be said about other empires' offsprings. Yet, in the case of Rome is
even more obvious, as Italy (the Imperial motherland, comparable to
England in your example) wasn't but temporarily part of the Eastern
Empire and in any case not anymore its center.
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NO GOD, NO MASTER!
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Imperator Invictus
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Posted: 12-Dec-2005 at 12:25 |
I guess that mainly comes down to an opinion, but there are two points I want to raise.
1. Then by that logic, the United States is just as much of an "heir"
to the British Empire as is modern Britian. If you might say that
modern Britian was the heart of the British Empire and that
Constantinople was not the heart of the Roman Empire - I must disagree because starting at
Constantine's reign, Byzantium was the real heart of the Roman Empire.
2. The problem with cultural heirs is not that its wrong, but that it
becomes too "diluted" for a significance. Then by the same argument,
the Sultanate of Rum and the Russian Romanov dynasty are natural heirs
of the Roman Empire at least as much as Byzantium and the HRE. Why not
just say that the whole mediterranean and Europe are heirs of the Roman
Empire.
Edited by Imperator Invictus
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Alkiviades
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Posted: 13-Dec-2005 at 00:10 |
OK, here is a nice compromise:
- Byzantium was the Roman Empire. No "heir" or anything.
- The whole mediterranean and Euerope are "heirs" to the Roman Empire
Leg one should keep all of us minus Maju satisfied.
And leg two is there for Maju's sake
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Guests
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Posted: 13-Dec-2005 at 01:00 |
For me without Rome there is no Byzantines and mind you for me the Roman Empire actually died in 1453 AD and not 476 AD as history says. the west part of the empire just decayed but the eastern part is still flourishing during the Dark Ages..
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Imperator Invictus
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Posted: 14-Dec-2005 at 00:33 |
the Roman Empire actually died in 1453 AD and not 476 AD |
I don't know. One day, a bunch of Trebizond fans might pop up in these forums.
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Maju
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Posted: 14-Dec-2005 at 03:12 |
Originally posted by Alkiviades
OK, here is a nice compromise:
- Byzantium was the Roman Empire. No "heir" or anything.
- The whole mediterranean and Euerope are "heirs" to the Roman Empire
Leg one should keep all of us minus Maju satisfied.
And leg two is there for Maju's sake
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Yes I'm not totally satisfied: Byz was the Eastern Roman Empire, that's
half of the original Roman Empire. Therefore it can't be THE Roman
Empire, just the EASTERN Roman Empire, with all its particularities.
The Western half (the Latin one, btw) was diluted in several kingdoms.
That is satisfactory.
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NO GOD, NO MASTER!
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Nagyfejedelem
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Posted: 14-Dec-2005 at 15:36 |
Hungarian hystorians called Byzantium Later-Roman Empire.
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Heraclius
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Posted: 14-Dec-2005 at 15:59 |
Originally posted by Maju
Originally posted by Alkiviades
OK, here is a nice compromise:
- Byzantium was the Roman Empire. No "heir" or anything. - The whole mediterranean and Euerope are "heirs" to the Roman Empire
Leg one should keep all of us minus Maju satisfied. And leg two is there for Maju's sake
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Yes I'm not totally satisfied: Byz was the Eastern Roman Empire, that's half of the original Roman Empire. Therefore it can't be THE Roman Empire, just the EASTERN Roman Empire, with all its particularities. The Western half (the Latin one, btw) was diluted in several kingdoms. That is satisfactory.
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I'm so confused it'll always just come down to opinion in the end and interpretation.
II is right what if a bunch of Trebizond fans come along and start saying 1461 is the most important date and not 1453 and the true end of the Roman empire argh!
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A tomb now suffices him for whom the world was not enough.
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Constantine XI
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Posted: 14-Dec-2005 at 19:46 |
Originally posted by Heraclius
Originally posted by Maju
Originally posted by Alkiviades
OK, here is a nice compromise:
- Byzantium was the Roman Empire. No "heir" or anything. - The whole mediterranean and Euerope are "heirs" to the Roman Empire
Leg one should keep all of us minus Maju satisfied. And leg two is there for Maju's sake
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Yes I'm not totally satisfied: Byz was the Eastern Roman Empire, that's half of the original Roman Empire. Therefore it can't be THE Roman Empire, just the EASTERN Roman Empire, with all its particularities. The Western half (the Latin one, btw) was diluted in several kingdoms. That is satisfactory.
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I'm so confused it'll always just come down to opinion in the end and interpretation.
II is right what if a bunch of Trebizond fans come along and start saying 1461 is the most important date and not 1453 and the true end of the Roman empire argh!
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Stuff it, I'll just ban them all!
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Alkiviades
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Posted: 15-Dec-2005 at 03:17 |
Originally posted by Constantine XI
Originally posted by Heraclius
Originally posted by Maju
Originally posted by Alkiviades
OK, here is a nice compromise:
- Byzantium was the Roman Empire. No "heir" or anything. - The whole mediterranean and Euerope are "heirs" to the Roman Empire
Leg one should keep all of us minus Maju satisfied. And leg two is there for Maju's sake
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Yes I'm not totally satisfied: Byz was the Eastern Roman Empire, that's half of the original Roman Empire. Therefore it can't be THE Roman Empire, just the EASTERN Roman Empire, with all its particularities. The Western half (the Latin one, btw) was diluted in several kingdoms. That is satisfactory.
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I'm so confused it'll always just come down to opinion in the end and interpretation.
II is right what if a bunch of Trebizond fans come along and start saying 1461 is the most important date and not 1453 and the true end of the Roman empire argh!
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Stuff it, I'll just ban them all!
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Damn, you people have a case against Trebizond! I protest!
Are there no Pontians here to defend their homeland?
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Heraclius
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Posted: 15-Dec-2005 at 08:37 |
Originally posted by Alkiviades
Originally posted by Constantine XI
Originally posted by Heraclius
Originally posted by Maju
Originally posted by Alkiviades
OK, here is a nice compromise:
- Byzantium was the Roman Empire. No "heir" or anything. - The whole mediterranean and Euerope are "heirs" to the Roman Empire
Leg one should keep all of us minus Maju satisfied. And leg two is there for Maju's sake
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Yes I'm not totally satisfied: Byz was the Eastern Roman Empire, that's half of the original Roman Empire. Therefore it can't be THE Roman Empire, just the EASTERN Roman Empire, with all its particularities. The Western half (the Latin one, btw) was diluted in several kingdoms. That is satisfactory.
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I'm so confused it'll always just come down to opinion in the end and interpretation.
II is right what if a bunch of Trebizond fans come along and start saying 1461 is the most important date and not 1453 and the true end of the Roman empire argh!
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Stuff it, I'll just ban them all!
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Damn, you people have a case against Trebizond! I protest!
Are there no Pontians here to defend their homeland?
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@ Con
This is outrageously complicated, have barely included the existance of the 3rd Rome/Moscow or the supposed inheritance by the Ottomans. *brain melts*
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A tomb now suffices him for whom the world was not enough.
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