Alarabiya: All peoples were originally Arabs!

Today I read this thing in the Alarabiya's Persian service: http://www.alarabiya.net/articles/2012/02/07/193243.html I couldn't find any similar text in neither Arabic nor English versions of this site, I searched and didn't find anything in other websites too!

Edited by Cyrus Shahmiri - 12-Feb-2012 at 15:10

We had shared same religion:Mother Earth,Goddess.Two main religions today,Christianity and Islam,had had the same predecessor as it looks Cyrus!

After the first Homo Sapience left Africa they went to the Arabian peninsula, and spread from there everywhere - but they were not Arabs by any means, no more than they were Black Africans; necne were are not "Arabs" fer se. AFAIK, the first reference to "Arabs" came from a 9th century BC Akkadian text, about people from the Arabian peninsula. Arabic is supposed to have emerged in 4th century AD, being the youngest language from the Semitic family.http://www.indiana.edu/~arabic/arabic_history.htm

Which means that the Arabic identity as such emerged in 4th century BC, before this whoever lived in the area that now is considered Arabic cultural oecumene, whatever they were, they weren't Arabs. The peoples of Anatolia weren't Arabs in any way, and the Sumenians etc were Semitic, but not Arabic.

Some theorise the Romans and Spanish were descended from Arab settlers. It's not implausible Semitic explorers settled in Italy while others headed west to found Carthage

Originally posted by Arab  Arabic existed as a language in north Arabia long before it had its own script, as far back as the fifth century BC. It was written in Nabatean script which eventually evolved into the Arabic script as we know it today.   I agree though, Arabia in ancient times was inhabited by many peoples. There was no unified "Arab" ethnicity; they were divided into South Arabians and North Arabians, which both had distinct cultures and languages. Today's Arabic language is the language of the Quran.

OK, I can use that - 5th century BC it is for Arabic, but which Semitic variety, do you know? The link I used states that before 4th century AD there were in existence Sabaik /Southern/  and Mudari /Northern/ Semitic, which went mute for practical purposes after Arabic proper appeared in 6th cent, AD; and that those languages weren't Arabic proper, but related to it in the same way as English and German are related:

"...Though the major southern language, Sabaic, and Arabic are closely related to one another, they are definitely separate languages, as different as modern-day English and German, and probably just as often mutually unintelligible as not. Sabaic is almost certainly the older of the two languages, being used for inscriptions as early as 600 B.C.E., while the first evidence we have of Arabic as a written language occurs 900 years later, in an inscription dating to 328 C.E. When the two languages mixed and met after the rise of Islam, however, Northern (Mudari) Arabic--backed by the religious authority of the Qur’an--supplanted its older cousin completely as a language of high culture. Sabaic survives today only in isolated pockets of territory where various dialectical versions continue on a purely spoken level. Written communication in the south is all in Mudari Arabic. The relationship between Mudari and Sabean--as well as the relationships among the other Semitic languages can be seen in the following chart : ..."
http://www.indiana.edu/~arabic/arabic_history.htm

Which one of the above 2 was written with Nabatean script in 4th century BC?

Originally posted by Don Quixote Originally posted by Arab  Arabic existed as a language in north Arabia long before it had its own script, as far back as the fifth century BC. It was written in Nabatean script which eventually evolved into the Arabic script as we know it today.   I agree though, Arabia in ancient times was inhabited by many peoples. There was no unified "Arab" ethnicity; they were divided into South Arabians and North Arabians, which both had distinct cultures and languages. Today's Arabic language is the language of the Quran. OK, I can use that - 5th century BC it is for Arabic, but which Semitic variety, do you know? The link I used states that before 4th century AD there were in existence Sabaik /Southern/  and Mudari /Northern/ Semitic, which went mute for practical purposes after Arabic proper appeared in 6th cent, AD; and that those languages weren't Arabic proper, but related to it in the same way as English and German are related: "...Though the major southern language, Sabaic, and Arabic are closely related to one another, they are definitely separate languages, as different as modern-day English and German, and probably just as often mutually unintelligible as not. Sabaic is almost certainly the older of the two languages, being used for inscriptions as early as 600 B.C.E., while the first evidence we have of Arabic as a written language occurs 900 years later, in an inscription dating to 328 C.E. When the two languages mixed and met after the rise of Islam, however, Northern (Mudari) Arabic--backed by the religious authority of the Qur’an--supplanted its older cousin completely as a language of high culture. Sabaic survives today only in isolated pockets of territory where various dialectical versions continue on a purely spoken level. Written communication in the south is all in Mudari Arabic. The relationship between Mudari and Sabean--as well as the relationships among the other Semitic languages can be seen in the following chart : ..." http://www.indiana.edu/~arabic/arabic_history.htm Which one of the above 2 was written with Nabatean script in 4th century BC?

Edited by Arab - 12-Feb-2012 at 22:24

Language and genetics are two different things, the article doesn't say we were all Arabic-speaking people but our original land was Arabia where Arabs live, it is really possible Arabs spoke a non-Arabic language in the very ancient times.

the article is bogus, yes you can say outside africa, humans came to arabia first and from there spread too all over the world, but this happened before any arab even existed. Arab themselves are mixed

In fact there is a argument that south asia actually populated rest of the world

What happened was when humans came from africa, they went in to southern arabia then went to south asia and settled there for thousands and thousands of years before moving to other parts of the world