A small question about the inquisition?

It seems that about 350 CE, a series of commands were instituted by the various Christian churches designed to remove any remains of "pagan" or blasphemous temples or writings. If we conclude that the FG (the Fomenko Group) is correct when it denotes a 1053 artificial set-back of historical events, then we have to add 1053 years to the alleged date of circa 350 CE, thus we arrive at the date 1403 CE! IE, the beginning of the fifteenth century CE!

But, we are also told of other inquisitions such as this described in Wikipedia;

"The Medieval Inquisition is a term historians use to describe the various inquisitions that started around 1184, including the Episcopal inquisition (1184-1230s) and later the Papal inquisition (1230s) by the Roman Catholic Church ("The Church"). It was in response to large popular movements throughout Europe considered apostate or heretical to Christianity, in particular Catharism and Waldensians in southern France and northern Italy. These were the first inquisition movements of many that would follow."

Here, we are left with the dates 1184, which I will round off to 1185 CE, and another beginning (or ending?) in 1230 CE! The difference in years between the 350 CE date and the 1185 CE date is 835 years! If my memory is correct the FG also has a 778 year setback, as well as numerous other periods of time whereby they (the FG) have found relationships. Thus, I believe, there was even a 333 year setback, and a 1000 to 1078 year setback, etc.

Other inquisitions happened in the reported year 1492, which was the end of the 15th century and the beginning of the 16th century. The 1492 event, which was called "the Spanish Inquisition", as well as "the Roman Inquisition, was begun by pope Sixtus V, in 1588.

In other words almost exactly 100 years separated these two events (if they were not indeed, merely a continuation of the 1492 event?)

The last event, the so called "Roman Inquisition" lasted until the middle of the 18th century CE! (IE, the 1750's)

Thus if we consider that in reality the entire time period of the inquisitions began in 1492 and finally ended in about 1750, then these acts lasted for 250 continuous years!

Note, both the Franciscan and Dominican Order's were founded, reportedly, about 1210 CE! Note also that the Dominican order was the one who "reportedly" ran the Inquisition, the Franciscan Order seems to have run into many problems during this period of time.

Now is the time to discuss another religious order; From;

http://www.christianchronicler.com/history1/counter_reformation.html

" II. The Society of Jesus
The Society of Jesus, better known as the Jesuits, stands as one of the church's most outstanding expressions of the Catholic Reformation. Ignatius Loyola, a former Spanish soldier of fortune, founded this order as a reforming society.

Loyola (1491-1556) served his King and Queen well as a soldier. He read widely of the romance of chivalry but as a soldier was a typical rough, crude man. During a military campaign a cannonball struck him, severely wounding him. One leg ended up shorter than the other ending his military career. Since he had no access to romantic literature in hospital, he read religious material. So entranced was he that he decided to serve the 'queen of heaven' since he could no longer serve his earthly queen.

After his release from the hospital, Loyola went to Paris where he entered the famous University of Paris. Because of his age he felt somewhat out of place among the younger men on campus. His devotion and leadership skills soon caused a group to gather around him. Among them was Francis Xavier. This small 'campus ministry' became the nucleus for the Jesuit order.

The Pope approved the order's formation in 1540 and made responsible only to himself. No Bishop or Archbishop could supervise Jesuits, they answered only to the Pope. Jesuits became the church's militia for recovering Europe from heresy. Jesuits formed the backbone of the Inquisition. Contemporaries described them as fanatics who beheaded kings if it furthered the church's cause. They're probably right!

Loyola instituted innovations which made their work highly effective. He did away with a number of medieval practices. For example, he discarded the Mendicant Orders' habits and uniform dress. He completely restructured the liturgy. He abandoned democratic government by organizing his society into a militaristic regime. Loyola's followers maintained a fierce loyalty to him, as general of the Order, and Loyola answered only to the Pope. He also introduced "simple" vows which a recruit could drop should one decide to leave the order. His order required a strict training period to acquaint the new Jesuit with the order's spirit. An inductee first went through "first probation" which served as an orientation period. The novice then served two years in 'noviceship' which was devoted to self-denial. The Candidate then entered "tertianship," another period of self-denial after which he was a full member of the order."

I offer that this training was essentially one of a military group, IE, trained warrior knights, etc.

"The Jesuit order was successful by any standard. When Loyola died in 1556 over 1,000 Jesuit missionaries" (Mercenaries?) "worked throughout the world. Canisius labored in Germany and reclaimed southern Germany for Catholicism. Xavier worked in Asia, India and as far east as Japan. Jesuits even followed the Conquistadores into America. Working out of encomiendas, a large estate centered around a school and a church, the Jesuits reached (enslaved) thousands of Indians. Catholic missionaries, some of whom were Jesuits, traveled throughout North America. Jesuits even had influential missionary works in Canada."

So here we see a date that is closely connected to the activity of the church in Germany, Asia, and the Americas! A military group who only answered to the pope! And notice that Galileo was pursued by the Jesuits and basically cleared by them, it seems the Dominicans were the ones who successfully had Galileo silenced and condemned!

So, just who/whom is correct?

Regards,

Ron

Let us say this is right!Those two questions will follow after:
  1.Why did they do this forgery?
  2.Who were they?(in the name of what?)
  All my efforts to make bigger collection of demotic texts were wasted in communication gaps!?!5000 scrolls of papyrus were found in the desert but they have not been published in original since now!?!Other text's replicas are selling as souvenirs without usable value!People from Middle East and others that were contacted by me,have spoken to me,that even first scripts of the Bible were in demotic!
    Therefore I have claimed:that religions and there purposes were:someones identity to be hidden or erased?!?Here comes again:Whom from?Why?



Edited by medenaywe - 06-Mar-2011 at 10:27