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"Moors" and southwestern Europe.

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  Quote cavalry4ever Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: "Moors" and southwestern Europe.
    Posted: 23-Oct-2009 at 05:45
The name Al-Andalus used to be connected to Vandals. However linguistics made  some progress since then, and newest studies suggest that it may predate Romans in Spain. It is worth mentioning that linguistics are "soft" science so other explanations may be valid too.



Edited by cavalry4ever - 23-Oct-2009 at 05:46
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Oct-2009 at 13:55
Cav.., So we might also say that the idea I presented is not "dead" but merely disputed? Heck almost everything is disputed! chuckle! What we really mean is the fact that most everything we think we know about the past is "subjective", and not really "objective!" It is all then, and now mostly "opinion", yours, mine and theirs!

I contend that there exists no real proof about anything thought to have happend before the existance and mass use of the printing press! Before that time (whenever it actually was) there was the "opionion of the Church", of "The King", or the Royal or Church "Experts!", and in most of those times the "Royal and the Church" were connected at the hip!

Regards,

Edited by opuslola - 24-Oct-2009 at 16:22
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  Quote cavalry4ever Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Oct-2009 at 09:56
By following this thread, we will end at creation of Western Caliphate. Which is the only empire created by invitation. I think that if Vandals and their followers were a bit nicer, it would never happen.

Edited by cavalry4ever - 24-Oct-2009 at 09:57
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Oct-2009 at 16:24
Yes, maybe so? But, it seems to me that the Vandal empire or state became the predecessor, in some weird way, of the Barbary Pirates? Because, pirates would be one of the best way to descibe the Vandals, eh?

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  Quote cavalry4ever Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Oct-2009 at 10:59
Originally posted by opuslola

Yes, maybe so? But, it seems to me that the Vandal empire or state became the predecessor, in some weird way, of the Barbary Pirates? Because, pirates would be one of the best way to descibe the Vandals, eh?

Regards,

Different periods and totally unrelated, except for geographical location. There were  many people that espoused Vandal model.
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Oct-2009 at 14:57
Cavalry.., wrote; "Different periods and totally unrelated, except for geographical location. There were many people that espoused Vandal model."

Maybe? Just what was so great about the "geographical location?" Why was it continually used by "pirates" for centuries? Why were the early admirals, etc. of the "Barbary Pirates" from Holland, etc.?
Just how did the Vandal / Alan nation, after many years of being a land wandering enterprise suddenly become a great sea-faring nation?

The Dutch were always known as one!

Just why did Carthage, a great sea-faring nation, only attack Rome via an overland attack? Heck, even the Arabs reportedly led a successful sea-born attack of and sack of Rome! It seems earily similar to the Vandal attack?

It even seems that the Goths, took over N. Africa from the Vandals / Alans?, and then the Franks? / Normans (whom ever they were) took their place! Here is another case whereby a nation mostly noted for very short sea voyages, like across the English Channel, were able to mount a great sea escapade through the Straights, and into the Med., with out having an outlet to the Med. available! Just how did they avoid all of the enemy ships surrounding Portugal, Spain, N. Africa, etc.?

Essentially, just what is the biggest difference between the words "Berbers", and "Barbarians?" / "Barbary Pirates/ coast?"
From what point was the Arab attack upon Rome taken from?
Lots of questions, no matter what period of consensual time we consider!

I believe even the Franks / Normans? also took Rome?

Lots of similar action(s) in the same area!

Edited by opuslola - 28-Oct-2009 at 11:40
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  Quote cavalry4ever Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Oct-2009 at 15:25
The difference between pirates and colonial powers was that pirates interfered with the "legal" pillage of the planet by colonial powers. The smaller countries with less resources needed more loot than big ones and had  lot more of seamen willing to take chances (Holland). In your post you are missing the greatest pillagers of them all: Vikings

Edited by cavalry4ever - 25-Oct-2009 at 15:26
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  Quote fernao Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Oct-2009 at 09:48
Originally posted by calvo


I disagree here.
Moorish influence here is MUCH greater than Germanic influence; judging by the pure fact that the Moors have left the Alhambra, the great Mosque of Córdoba, and the old city centres of many cities in Andalucía, Murcia, Extremadura, and Aragón. What about the 4000-5000 Arabic words in modern Spanish? Anything that begins with Al- has Arabic origin. Madrid was founded by Arabs.
What have the Goths and Visgoths left here? Most of them were assimilated into the Hispano-Roman population and did not leave any cultural influence of their own.

Culturally speaking, I reckon that the external influences (from strongest to weakest), come like this:
- Roman (obviously)
- Arabic
- Celtic
- Iberian and Celti-Iberian
- Germanic
- all the rest.... (Tartessios, Carthaginians etc)

Genetically speaking, I probably would agree that most Iberian genes are native; because in the case of any migration or colonization; the foreign settlers are always far smaller in number than the indigenous population.
This applies even to the Romans; who left the most profound cultural legacy. The population of the Iberian peninsula at the time of the Roman conquest was estimated at 4-5 million; and Italy had an estimated population of 6-7 million.
I very much doubt that the Romans had sent half the Italian population to colonise Spain!

Even within north Africans, whom many consider to be "Arabs", most of the genes are native rather than from the Arabia
 
I have to disagree with you here. Iberian substrate was always the most important plus the romanization.
 
Then the rest depends of the region.
 
Where are you from? You are posting a vision of the Peninsula that is very much biased towards Andaluzia and South Spain...
 
you talk about Spanish language and spanish music, etc.. but what is that really? Sevillanas and flamenco? I can assure you that the traditional music of most of the peninsula has nothing to do with Flamenco.
 
other traditional parties, traditions, handcraft, etc, have nothing to do with moors but instead with celtic, germanic, roman or "undetermined" origins, possibly iberians, and many later medieval influences from all over, etc..
 
even about the languages you only talk about castillian. Mind that even nowadays 20% of the people in Iberian Peninsula do not speak castillian at all and before uniformization in Spain, vast populations would speak also Galician, Leonese, Catalan, etc not Castillian.
 
The reality is a lot more complex than what you say, since different regions were occupied in a very different manner for very different periods...
 
First moorish invasion was 711 and moorish rule was present until 1492 in Granada, which makes 781 years in a region just accross the sea.
 
But, the Asturias, Navarra were never conquered by moors, Galicia and North Portugal was raided by moors but no effective control was ever made, so influence is minimal.
 
Even Barcelona was reconquered in 801, only 90 years after the moors entered the peninsula... In Portugal, for instance, Porto was already a christian city in 868... this gives you a maximum of 150 years of possible moorish influence... these were major towns but the countryside probably did not see much of moorish influence anyways.. it was really far away from North Africa and many of these places probably did not have any moors migrating there, except for those ruling the place in the major towns..
 
Certainly, the germanic influence is a lot more important in North Peninsula than in the south. A close analysis of names and toponimia will reveal this, im sure.
 
Coimbra was first reconquered in 871 and this is already half waty through Portugal.. and then again in 1064, Toledo were reconquered by 1060-1070, and this is already half way through the Peninsula, giving them maximum 300 years of moorish influence
 
versus the 781 years of effective control of Granada, for instance... These are just examples but as you can imagine the picture is very different from what you describe depending on the region.
 
Many words in Portuguese and Spanish, etc, do have moorish influence but in my opinion this does not certifies an effective occupation and migration from North Africa. Moors were advanced people in many arts, culture, agriculture and many words were derived from these innovations. However, we also derived the words "futebol" from "football", etc, without a drop of english blood in us, for instance. The same is true for much of the roman influence, which was probably not much based on migrations from Italy.
 
I am not denying any influence, but i think everything needs to be taken with care and perspective, and it is important to base our ideas on reliable information, documents, monuments, etc. and mind time and space.
 


Edited by fernao - 26-Oct-2009 at 10:11
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  Quote cavalry4ever Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Oct-2009 at 10:51
You got your facts slightly wrong. I am not biased against northern christian kingdoms, but these were backwater fiefdoms, really backward. They were independent because of topology and were under Caliphates's political control. The civilization was being built in the Western Caliphate (751 -1031) not in those fiefdoms. The civil wars destroyed Western Caliphate but translations of some of books in the largest library in the world of that time (400,000 books), were propagated  all across Western Europe. Science, literature, medicine and architecture flourished to an unprecedented level. You can see to this day the Arab influence in architecture of southern France (cathedral in Puy de Dome). There was good series about this by BBC but I don't remember the name. If you ever visit Spain, see ruins of Medina al-Zahara and old part of Cordoba. It is interesting that when historians tried to estimate the level of living of people in that Caliphate, they came to conclusion that it is still unmatched in Europe.
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  Quote fernao Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Oct-2009 at 04:31
Originally posted by cavalry4ever

You got your facts slightly wrong. I am not biased against northern christian kingdoms, but these were backwater fiefdoms, really backward. They were independent because of topology and were under Caliphates's political control. The civilization was being built in the Western Caliphate (751 -1031) not in those fiefdoms. The civil wars destroyed Western Caliphate but translations of some of books in the largest library in the world of that time (400,000 books), were propagated  all across Western Europe. Science, literature, medicine and architecture flourished to an unprecedented level. You can see to this day the Arab influence in architecture of southern France (cathedral in Puy de Dome). There was good series about this by BBC but I don't remember the name. If you ever visit Spain, see ruins of Medina al-Zahara and old part of Cordoba. It is interesting that when historians tried to estimate the level of living of people in that Caliphate, they came to conclusion that it is still unmatched in Europe.
 
What facts did I get wrong?
 
Man, I have been to Spain hundreds of times  and I am from Portugal
 
No doubt Moor organization was more advance in many aspects, for instance agriculture, literature, medicine, etc, but the idea of barbarian christian kingdoms is completely wrong.
 
This might be difficult for someone in the current days Americas to understand, since America is huge and very uniform, and we have cars and flights that take you everywhere in matters of hours, but in the past the distances were big in a Peninsula like Iberian, even now the regional differences are huge between North and South, East and West.
 
You mention Medina Al-zahara and Cordoba, which are in Andalusia. As I said before, Andalusia was just accross the straight of Gibraltar and some parts were effectively ruled and "colonized" by moors for 781 years.
 
This is a complete opposition to what happened in the North, where some areas were never conquered, some were raided by moorish troops but no effective control was achieved, whereas some others were controlled for short periods, the examples I have gave you, Barcelona less than 100 years, North or Porutgal pretty much the same, etc...
 
In these regions, you can find a lot more Visigothic architecture, etc, than Arabian influences.
 
The point is, the Iberian Peninsula was not all the same. The differences range from 0 years of moor government to 781 years. That makes a lot of difference, dont you think?
 
People keep talking about the Alhambra, Granada, etc, as an example, but it has little to do with what happened in a good chunk of the Peninsula... for me, from the North of Portugal, Flamenco, and many of these South Spain tradition sound just as exotic as for an English or a French.
 
If you have the chance take the opportunity to visit Porto, Santiago, Coruna, Oviedo, Leon, Basque Country, etc and you will understand what I mean.
 
The second point is about the words from Arab.
 
I am not 100% sure but it seems to me that in Portuguese, mostly a latin language, there are at least as many words derived from germanic languages as there are from arabic, but I am not an expert. The thing is, the borrowing of words does not mean that the place was conquered and ruled, etc, as it is shown by the borrowing of words from English or French that happened later in history and is happening today..
 
Anyways, all of this is kind of superfluous... the fact is Moors were here 1000 years ago! That is a long time back.. it is not like 200 or 500 years ago.. after that many peoples came to live in the Iberian Peninsula coming from Europe.. also the world discoveries and colonies completely changed this substrate.. many people leaving and arriving.. certainly the biggest influences through medieval times were from Central Europe and after that many others, political, society, etc.. French in the XIX, English/American in the XX, etc
 
And recent immigrations to Portugal and Spain will impact a lot more on what is Portugal and Spain than immingrations 1000 years ago... Portugal has 8-10% of foreign born population, mostly from Africa, Brazil and Eastern Europe... Spain has 11% of foreign born population, mostly from Morocco, Romania and former colonies, Bolivia, Ecuador, Colombia, etc, and these are much faster than any immigrations that could have happened in the past :)
 
 
 


Edited by fernao - 27-Oct-2009 at 04:39
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  Quote cavalry4ever Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Oct-2009 at 09:08
All Christian Kings from kingdoms bordering Caliphate became vassals of Moorish sultans by X century. 
Caliphate was turned more toward North Africa and its most important enemy was Fatimid dynasty.
I don't think increasing land possessions on Iberian peninsula was their main objective. The proximity to the Caliphate helped Portugal and Spain in their later development. 
Two religiously fanatical kings in Spain destroyed a lot of potential for Spain to become a great cultural center in Europe. 
As it happened the rest of Europe benefitted more than Spain itself. The latin translation of books imported from Spain can be found at Sorbonne and in German universities. This provided the basis for all subsequent scientific achievements. 
As a matter of fact both Spain and Portugal will be irrelevant  for many centuries and are known, historically, more for destroying books than learning from them.

About influence of German in Portuguese language:
All Western Europe was invaded by germanic tribes and influenced by them and all European languages have german influences and this includes latin languages such as Portuguese. Only Celts and Basques predate germanic  invasions ( by Vandals, Goths, Visigoths, Longobards etc.). Part of Central and Eastern Europe was subjected to the same kind of invasion by Slavic tribes. There Albanians survived as a distinct group.
All this happened a thousand of years ago, yet it influenced the next thousand years of European development and effects are still visible in the local culture. 
Each time you use toothpaste think of Western Caliphate. Flamenco, Fado all have roots in there. Anyone playing guitar should think about it too.

There is also mythology about Reconquista. Caliphate was destroyed from within and what was left was being slowly picked up by Castilians. This was beneficial for spreading the knowledge through Europe. Al-Andalous Arabs had a habit of making thousands of copies of all kind of books, which were in high demand by population. This was possible because they had mastered producing paper in large quantities (paper mills). This also made these books easy to transport.

Philosophers such as St. Thomas d'Aquinas or Albertus Magnus were inspired by Arab philosopher such as Averroes and Jewish philosopher (from the same region) such as Maimonides. Which is kind of ironic that they had influenced even Christianity itself. Just think about the reach of that culture.

fernao - the end of your post about immigrants is a bit xenophobic. Maybe Portugal will be better of with a heterogeneous society. It is interesting to see a hostility toward immigrants from a country that was providing cheap labor for the rest of Europe, for many years and was able to improve itself with a heavy help from EU.

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  Quote fernao Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Oct-2009 at 14:06
Originally posted by cavalry4ever


fernao - the end of your post about immigrants is a bit xenophobic. Maybe Portugal will be better of with a heterogeneous society. It is interesting to see a hostility toward immigrants from a country that was providing cheap labor for the rest of Europe, for many years and was able to improve itself with a heavy help from EU.
 
No it is not xenophobic, dont be ridiculous.
 
What I say there, go read it again, is that in both Portugal and Spain there was a lot of immigration after the moors had left, from many places all around the world, and at this very moment there are ~10% of the population that was born outside the Peninsula. This means that a migration that happened 1000 years ago has very little influence compared to those ones much more recent..
 
Why is this xenophobic?
 
Well, I will think of the caliphate when I use toothbrush for the same reasons that you think of the caliphate and a chinese thinks of the caliphate, not because I am portuguese.. what is the point here?
 
Those sentences are absolutely ridiculous to say the least:
 
"Two religiously fanatical kings in Spain destroyed a lot of potential for Spain to become a great cultural center in Europe. 
As it happened the rest of Europe benefitted more than Spain itself. The latin translation of books imported from Spain can be found at Sorbonne and in German universities. This provided the basis for all subsequent scientific achievements. 
As a matter of fact both Spain and Portugal will be irrelevant  for many centuries and are known, historically, more for destroying books than learning from them."
 
Spain was for centuries a great cultural centre in Europe and it is still is. The number of historic figures coming from Portugal and Spain is immense if you think about its size in the world.. please, understand that if you are ignorant about this it is your fault and probably of the English/German/French centered versions of History. You probably know everything about the Huguenots but mind that by then the Portuguese and Spanish had thousands of cities in America, West and East Africa, Turkish Empire, India, Indonesia, China, Japan, etc, but that never shows up in the "World History Books"..
 
So, ignore the more polemic politians, discoverers and military, probably the most relevant in World History, I suggest you start with the arts, Cervantes, Camões, Pessoa, Velazques, Picasso, Dali, Gaudi, Goya, etc, and their direct descendants cultures in Portuguese and Spanish speaking countries.
 
As a matter of relevance, you might not find much in the World History books that tell you all details about England, France and Germany, to have an idea of what was in fact going on in the world, the Peninsula has produced the 3rd and the 6th most widely spoken languages in the World, together Portuguese and Spanish are by far more widely spoken than English and second only to Chinese.. can you tell me what other part of the world with a size smaller than Texas has been more relevant? 
 
Also the remarks about Fado tell me you know nothing about what you are talking about. Fado is a much more recent type of music, nothing to do with Arabs, just listen to it. All the Eastern Europe music is much more "arabic" than Iberian music, listen to Greek or Balcan music for instance.
 
It seems to me that you have some problem with Portuguese and Spanish in the way depict the two biggest empires for centuries and imagine to "see hostility towards immigrants" bla bla bla
 
So stop being silly and try and learn from people that actually live in the place and probably have  a much informed vision of what happened there. Moorish roots can find in many Portuguese and Spanish traditions, but it is completely wrong to place them above Iberian, Celtic, Roman, Suevi/Gothic and other Christian influences. And the influence is very variable accross the Peninsula, as some of the regions were controlled by Moors for 780 years and other were never conquered by Moors.
 
 


Edited by fernao - 27-Oct-2009 at 14:13
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 09-Nov-2009 at 11:10
One must consider that Spain was well involved within Centrally Mediteranean affairs well into the 19th century, via its connections within Italy, and its nature towards France and the Pope, etc. This is mostly a remmant of its participation in the Latin Kingdoms of Asia Minor and the Balkan / Greek world after the fall of Constantinople to the Franks but it existed well into the conquests of the Ottoman Empire, and later.

Of course some of its participation is or was the result of its connection with the Austrian Empire, etc.

We must also consider that some history (mostly obscurred today) actually shows "Saracen" or "Moorish" occupation of other places in Europe. It seems that a good deal of what is now S. France, and parts of what is now Switzerland, as well as parts of Italy, mostly Southern Italy and adjacent islands were also settled in part by persons known to us today as Saracen or Moors. But, it seems that their religious affiliation is mostly considered as Moslem by later day writers, and not those of the period(s) in question.

I have read somewhere that the words Moslem or Mohammedan, and the respective differing spellings, were not apparent in literature until well after the time of Shakespeare! Thus it seems that they were alternately called either Moors or Saracens, and sometimes "barbarians?".

Thus, it seems that as regards their religion, they could well have been "Arians", as were the Goths and Vandals who supposedly preceeded them? Arianism was particularly strong in N. Africa, including Egypt!

But, of course, I could be wrong?

Edited by opuslola - 09-Nov-2009 at 13:51
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 10-Nov-2009 at 18:49
Lets see, various parts of N. Africa, with land and ports upon the Great Middle Sea, were:
Egyptians, Libyans, Greeks, Hyskos, Greeks, Persians, Berbers, Romans, Goths,Vandals, Arabs, Angevins or Franks, Ottomans, and the Barbary Pirates!
Note, I may well not have all of the proposed inhabitants in order of their appearance!

Can you name others?
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  Quote paulmarcw Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Nov-2009 at 05:57
.
.

Pictures of Moors of Medieval Europe:


http://www.beforebc.de/all_europe/02-16-800-41.html

.
.
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  Quote cavalry4ever Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Nov-2009 at 11:35
fernao - Just few facts:

Any music in Iberian Peninsula which uses guitar owes something to Arabs. 
This is a quote from Lisbon tourist guide (http://www.lisbon-guide.info/about/fado):

"The most commonly accepted explanation, at least when speaking about Lisbon Fado, is that it came from the songs of the Moors, which kept living near Lisbon even after the Christian take-over. The sadness and melancholy of those songs, that are so common in Fado, are a good base to explain the rhythms of Fado."

What is interesting about fado is that it uses western scale, unlike flamenco using arab scale.

For people interested in that music, Mariza has quite following and is my favorite.
Also Cabo Verde Mournas are related, with Cesaria Evora as best known performer.

I am using the simple reference of tourist guide to show what Portuguese themselves believe about that music. There are more in depth references, if you want to look at them, about history of fado and they all point to Moor influence, as well as African and Brazilian. 


Edited by cavalry4ever - 15-Nov-2009 at 12:01
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Nov-2009 at 09:48
paulmarcw, while I cannot deny the copies of portrayals of persons of obviously "African" (Negroid) descent, are found within the site you presented to us, I can say that the vast majority of recognized scholars do not accept the conclusions offered there, and, at other "pro-African" sites found within the inter-net!

The inter-mixing of people who have been seperated into various "races" by both the Ancients and others more closely identified with the "modern era", it can always be shown children who can be born with attributes related to both parents. Thus some children born to these unions can look like either one of the parents, or the other, or mostly a mixture. Curly hair, is not really an example one can used, nor is a flattened nose, or protruding lower lip!

Yes it is possible that genotype skulls might well be a arguable point? But dark features or skin could also designate some one who spent a great part of their time exposed to the sun? Thus, seamen, on sailing vessels, were quite likely to be darker than their land-locked cousins and indeed if some of the crew was of "mixed" ancestry, then they would also become darker, etc.! One could also point out that certain Italians are or have been variously catagorized as, "dark and swarthy!" While such a characterization might well be worthwile for certain families of Southern Italy and Sicily, etc., it would be mostly "out of place", or rare, in the Piedmont region!

All I am saying, is that the questions posed by the site you presented and other of a similar bent, have to await real scientific scruntity before making "great assumptions!"
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Nov-2009 at 11:58
Making a "giant step?", or guess, what would any of you think about the possibility that the term "Fais do do", which is a French American colloquialism. But, I see a possibility of a relationship to the Portuguese "Fado."
I base this belief upon the fact that the Acadians (Archadians) who were dismissed from the area around Nova Scotia and Quebec by the English. These thousands of people of French ancestory, had to leave this area quickly and it seems the only way for them to leave was via ship.

Now, can anyone speculate whereby these people who had their lands and economy seized by the British, had the means to secure berths or rent ships to take them to Louisiana? It is said that the possibility exists that no more than about one half of them lived thru the sea voyages to Louisiana. It seems storms and other disasters made this a very perilous voyage.
I have found no information indicating that British vessels were provided for this extrodinary deportation! But, it seems that various ports in the area served as summer resting places for the Portuguese fishing fleet, which was one of the most formidable fishing fleet of its day.
I there fore propose that many if not all of the deportees made passage in one way or another with the Portuguese fishing fleet! And thus left their "idyllic lands!", which was by the way, the main theme of the Portuguese Fado! It might well be that their destination was also considered to be a most "Idyllic" place also!, IE, a New Arcadia!
It would take little imagination to consider that entire families were crushed into these Portuguese vessels and were kept in close confinment with the Portuguese crew for weeks or months of the long voyage around Florida and into the Gulf of Mexico, to Mobile or New Orleans!

If indeed "Fado" music was a part of the life of these Portuguese seamen, then these French exiles would or could have expected to have been exposed to the music and receive a translation of the words during this long voyage. Ultimately I propose that the word they heard in Portuguese "Fado" was connected to a similar sounding word in French thus "fais" or "faison!", etc.!

And the ultimate creation of the "Fais do do!" which has become an important part of the Cajun lifestyle! Probably as a remembrance of the lost lands, the terrible trials of the sea voyage, and the glory of the arrival at their new home!

You are welcome to look it up!

Any takers?

Edited by opuslola - 16-Nov-2009 at 12:00
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