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"Beating" up on Israel?

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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: "Beating" up on Israel?
    Posted: 09-Feb-2009 at 20:52
Originally posted by edgewaters

Originally posted by gcle2003

Of course it's mythical. However the point is that it is essentially a racial/ethnic/tribal myth. Israel wasn't actually the father of all the 'children of Israel' but they believed him to be. And that's an ethnic/tribal/racial - i.e. ancestry-based - belief.


Yes ... but it's also, at the same time, a religious belief.

One might even say ... an ethno-religious belief.
 
The belief in the covenant is the important thing, not the actuality of it.


A belief in a covenant with God ...
A belief that God singled out a special tribe and gave them and their descendants specific obligations in return for benefits that would accrue to those descendants. It was only their obligation and only their benefit. No-one else could get in on the benefits (seen as earthly ones at that time anyway) and no-one else could take on the obligations.

I quoted you Spinoza from the Netherlands as an example. He's one of the few people before the contemporary/modern world we can be certain (a) did not believe in Judaism and (b) was regarded as Jewish by the people around him, including the Jews, and indeed by everyone who has ever written about him since.


No, we can hardly be certain of that at all, considering Spinoza was a practicing member of the religion until he was excommunicated! He did not voluntarily abandon the religion, he had to be forced out.
Of course he voluntarily abandoned his religion. It was his works and their content that led to his being excommunicated. You don't excommunicate someone from a religion for practising it.
 
Marx is a different example, in that his parents converted to Christianity, but they and he continued to be viewed as Jews. I could go on for ages.

Like Disraeli, another example but a bit more modern.


Yes, he's 19th century and thus serves as a very poor example of a secular Jewish identity occuring prior to the 19th century.
I didn't even suggest he was an example of a secular Jewish identity prior to the 19th century. In fact he wasn't even secular, but a Christian. But still a Jew. As was, for instance, Georg Cantor.
 
I never denied, in fact IIRC I first pointed out, that the non-observant Jew became more and more common after the enlightenment, as happened with many other religions, which is how so most of the original Zionists came to be non-observant.
 
How come I can keep providing these examples if I'm wrong? No-one seems to be providing counter-examples.


It's kind of difficult to provide an instance of a thing that didn't exist.
It's kind of difficult to justify your case for blurring two different categorisations and trying to combine them into one.


He doesn't in Israel. He is respondible for determining the facts, but the fact that someone has a Jewish mother makes that person a Jew. It's not a religious test even if the person applying the test is a cleric.


That's not all there is to the test. You've just singled out the one element that is (partially) ethnic,
What on earth do you mean 'partially' ethnic. How can descent be anything else but ethnic? (In the common contemporary sense of the word anyway.)
 ignoring the fact that the Chief Rabbinate grants Jewish nationality to converts$
You have an example? Or is that something else that doesn't exist?
 
That's a rare situation, and is somewhat like a Catholic becoming a priest. It requires in effect proof that the individual has been accepted by God as a sharer in the covenant. It has very little indeed to do with the normal use of the word 'Jew'. Not everyone pays attention to what Chief Rabbis assert.
 and has refused it to the children of Jewish fathers.
On the grounds that the ethnic descent is questionable.
 Besides, what is a religious office doing making any decisions about the status of citizens in a purely secular state? Obviously this is a logical contradiction.
Personally I never claimed Israel was a purely secular state: IIRC I said it was essentially racist. It's not terribly material because Israel is not Jewry, and Jewry is not Israel. The question is the preferred meaning of the word 'Jew' not anything about the type of state Israel is.
 
Britain is certainly not a purely secular state: neither is Denmark or Sweden or Luxembourg, to take a quick few examples. Even the USA is not de facto secular, whatever the de jure situation.

No need to, yes, but that's what happens. People will probably always generalise from the particular to the general.


What people do with the facts is one thing, what the facts are is another matter entirely.
 
 So too are Jew and Judaist, even though there is one country (in which only a minority of the world's Jews live) that is both largely Jewish in population and has religious courts


I've never even heard the word "Judaist" before. Can you tell me its etymology and the earliest known occurence of such a distinction?
The etymology is obvious. Webster only gives it as a noun derved from Judaism, which is reasonable, with no date. That's a 1970 edition of Webster, so it's certainly been around for a while. I remember it being the word for a follower of Judaism when I was an undergraduate 50-odd years ago, and studying such stuff.

As far as I can tell, "Judaism" didn't even enter the English language until the 13th century,
There wasn't any English language until the 13th century. The term is older than that in the languages English derives from. Judaist is such an obvious extension, asking for its etymology is like having the etymology for 'look' and asking for the etymology for 'looker'.
 and in that case, it was part of a text defining a tax on all Jews ...
Who were almost certainly identified racially at that time. Even though secular Jews at that time would have been no more common than secular Englishmen.
and Judaist, I cannot find any sort of etymological information on at all, other than that it (obviously) comes from Judaism. Probably quite recently.
Why 'probably'? If you have an '-ism' can an '-ist' be far away? In fact yba you have an 'ism' without an 'ist' to believe in it?

It strikes me that if there has historically been a distinction between 'Jew' and 'Judaist', then there would be distinct terms dating back alot further than the last few years ... it's no coincedence that Jew refers both to an ethnic and religious identity, because Jew is an ethno-religious identity!
IIRC the Byzantines referred to Western (Roman) Christians as Franks. Similarly the West referred to the Byzantine religion as 'Greek'. In a period of history when religious and racial identities tended to run in parallel, confusion of ethnic and religious designations was likely to be common. cf also Albigensian for a territorial designation used as a religious one, or Moravian.
 
There is no question that some people use 'Jewish' both as a religious designation and as an ethnic one. The question is whether this is justifiable and desirable. Using 'Judaism' and 'Judaist' (and 'Judaic', which goes back to the Latin) helps clarify the position.


Edited by gcle2003 - 09-Feb-2009 at 20:58
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 09-Feb-2009 at 21:12
Originally posted by Chilbudios

Originally posted by gcle2003

I quoted you Spinoza from the Netherlands as an example. He's one of the few people before the contemporary/modern world we can be certain (a) did not believe in Judaism and (b) was regarded as Jewish by the people around him, including the Jews, and indeed by everyone who has ever written about him since.
Oh really? First, 17th century is modern world by all accounts. Second, read
 
Which quite clearly and specifically states he is "rightly considered a Jewish philosopher."
 
Of course his beliefs were anything but Judaic. That's entirely the point.
 
which says nothing of the kind you indicate. This I can copy from (the other I coudln't):
Soon after the establishment of the State of Israel, Prime Minister David Ben Gurion, a
secular Jew, urged the Chief Rabbi of the new Jewish state to lift the excommunication or herem on Spinoza. The answer was negative. Instead of being lifted, the ban imposed in 1654 was reaffirmed. Nothing has changed since then. Spinoza remains the ultimate Jewish heretic and many other similar materials
Note: Nothing has changed since then. He was viewed as a Jewsh heretic then and he is viewed as a Jewish heretic now. At least according to the author you quoted. More:
But can he be properly described as the founder of Jewish secularism?

If we relied only on the testimony of leaders of the secular Jewish movement, as it emerged in Eastern Europe in the second half of the 19th century, the answer would be a resounding "yes." They praised Spinoza for freeing Judaism from the shackles of religion and proving that the Bible was a human creation, full of contradictions and prejudices. They also honoured Spinoza as a victim of rabbinic persecution. Indeed, today's secular Jewish movement can also profit from his critique of the Jewish doctrine of the "Chosen People," his analysis of the origins of the Bible, and his conclusion as to its ultimate purpose.

You'll have to do a bit better than that to substantiate your case.
 
- in his writings he did not consider himself to be a Jew
I don't think he says that anywhere.
- after banning him, the contemporary Jewish community did not consider him a Jew
They did according to the authority you quoted.
- moreover Spinoza characterized the Jews as a religion-bound community, obviously one he was not (anymore) part of
Obviously he wasn't part of the religion bound community, he had been excommunicated from it (like several others) and was happy to be free of it. He was still recognised as Jewish and still is, even officially by the State of Israel apparently.
 
That some people call him a Jewish philosopher today is of absolutely no relevance of how he was perceived back then, in his own time.
Then why quote someone who does just that?
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  Quote edgewaters Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 09-Feb-2009 at 21:47

Originally posted by gcle2003

That's a rare situation, and is somewhat like a Catholic becoming a priest. It requires in effect proof that the individual has been accepted by God as a sharer in the covenant. It has very little indeed to do with the normal use of the word 'Jew'. Not everyone pays attention to what Chief Rabbis assert.

The Israeli immigration officers do.

 and has refused it to the children of Jewish fathers.
On the grounds that the ethnic descent is questionable.
No! On the grounds that it doesn't fit the halakhic definition of a Jew. That's the law in Israel - a Jew is defined by the halakhic definition. 
Law of Return, section 4 B - "For the purposes of this Law, "Jew" means a person who was born of a Jewish mother or has become converted to Judaism and who is not a member of another religion."
That's the law as written in Israel about who is a Jew. The children of mothers only or converts, and only if they do not belong to "another" religion!! This is in plain language, and crystal clear!
And it's not just Israeli law, either:
Who is a Jew?
A Jew is any person whose mother was a Jew or any person who has gone through the formal process of conversion to Judaism. 

It is important to note that being a Jew has nothing to do with what you believe or what you do. A person born to non-Jewish parents who has not undergone the formal process of conversion but who believes everything that Orthodox Jews believe and observes every law and custom of Judaism is still a non-Jew, even in the eyes of the most liberal movements of Judaism, and a person born to a Jewish mother who is an atheist and never practices the Jewish religion is still a Jew, even in the eyes of the ultra-Orthodox. In this sense, Judaism is more like a nationality than like other religions, and being Jewish is like a citizenship. See What Is Judaism? 

This has been established since the earliest days of Judaism. In the Torah, you will see many references to "the strangers who dwell among you" or "righteous proselytes" or "righteous strangers." These are various classifications of non-Jews who lived among Jews, adopting some or all of the beliefs and practices of Judaism without going through the formal process of conversion and becoming Jews. Once a person has converted to Judaism, he is not referred to by any special term; he is as much a Jew as anyone born Jewish.
And another:
Rabbi Gurkow: Welcome to the Rabbi's one on one chat room, how can I help you today?

curious and confused: Is there a difference between a religious Jew and an ethnic Jew?

Rabbi Gurkow: that depends on what you mean by those terms

Rabbi Gurkow: if by religous jew you men a jew who practices and an ethnic jew you mean a Jew who does not than there is a difference -- one pracitces and one does not

Rabbi Gurkow: but on the fundemental level they are both Jewish, and in that way they are similar

curious and confused: If I am am of Irish decent, can I still be Jewish?

Rabbi Gurkow: if your mother was Jewish you are Jewish too

Rabbi Gurkow: if not than it is possible for you to convert into Judaism and become a Jew but there is no need (to the Jewish way of thinking) for non Jewish people to become Jewish

Rabbi Gurkow: G-d loves people just the way he made them

curious and confused: Well my husband and I have this discussion all the time. A person can be Jewish by birth (by blood) but not in their beliefs. During WWII, Hitler was trying to eliminate Jews in order to create the 'perfect race'. But that has nothing to do with an individual's religious beliefs. Correct?

Rabbi Gurkow: correct

curious and confused: So then, a person can be Jewish by birth but not necessarily in his beliefs. Does that mean that being Jewish can merely be an ethnicity? Or what is the word I'm looking for?

Rabbi Gurkow: a Jew has a soul that is unique to Jews. this soul enters into the Jewish body either at birth or at conversion. observance of the Jewish laws or lack thereof do not impact the presence of the soul

Rabbi Gurkow: that is what we mean when we say that someone is Jewish even if he does not practice it

Rabbi Gurkow: it is not an issue of ethinicity or race, it is a spiritual question
The problem, the way I see it, isn't that people have a problem when they are defined as a religion, or defined as a race. The problem is that they don't fit neatly into the kinds of categories other groups do, and people have a really hard time accepting that. They want to pigeonhole them into categories they don't belong in and don't identify with, like ramming a square peg into a round hole ... they're not strictly an ethnic group nor strictly a religious group, as indicated by their own views on the matter (views which have been adopted as law in the Jewish state). Ethno-religious is a nice compromise and is in accord with how they describe their own identity.


Edited by edgewaters - 10-Feb-2009 at 00:00
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 09-Feb-2009 at 22:38
Originally posted by gcle2003

Which quite clearly and specifically states he is "rightly considered a Jewish philosopher."
 
Of course his beliefs were anything but Judaic. That's entirely the point.
If you're not dyslexic, you have no other excuse because that text says clearly: "While he may no longer have thought of himself as a Jew, and while he even had great contempt for Judaism and other organized sectarian religions, it cannot be denied that Jewish texts, history, and thought continued to play an important role in Spinoza’s thinking – so much so that Spinoza can rightly be called a Jewish philosopher, both because his ideas were deeply influenced by earlier Jewish philosophy and because in his major works he philosophized about Judaism." so he did not consider himself to be a Jew and the author calls him Jewish philosopher because the influence of Jewish philosophy in his work and his comments of Judaism, none requiring to have a Jewish ethnic identity. Moreover, the author puts it as clearly as it can be: "In July of 1656, however, Spinoza was expelled from the Portuguese community with the harshest writ of herem (ostracism) ever issued by its leaders. The only extant documentation of this event refers to his ‘abominable heresies’ and ‘monstrous deeds’, but it still remains something of a mystery why exactly Spinoza was punished with such extreme prejudice. The order was never rescinded, and Spinoza lived the rest of his life outside any Jewish context. In fact, he seems not to have had any residual sense of Jewish identity. In his writings, he seems to go out of his way to distance himself from Judaism, and always refers to the Jews in the third person – as ‘them’; nor does he exhibit any fundamental sympathy with Jewish history or culture."
 
which says nothing of the kind you indicate. This I can copy from (the other I coudln't):
Probably the same symptom as above, the text says:
"After his excommunication, Spinoza no longer considered himself a Jew." but even more important to this case "Spinoza cannot be viewed as the first  secular Jew. The essence of secular Judaism, in all its varieties, is that Jews are a people with a shared history and cultures that can sustain a viable Jewish identity independent of religion. For Spinoza, Judaism was purely a religion that he rejected." ( I copied all these texts in italics using ctrl+C, ctrl+V )
 
You'll have to do a bit better than that to substantiate your case.
I did enough, all what is required is the basic ability to read simple texts in English language. I cannot be accounted for your failures.
 
I don't think he says that anywhere.
Which means your assertion that he was a Jew rests on no evidence. Moreover both the materials I invoke stress that he didn't think of himself as a Jew (based on indirect evidence from his texts).
 
They did according to the authority you quoted.
None of them says that. They only say the Jewish community excommunicated him and he lost contacts with virtually all Jews (with few exceptions like Prado).
 
Obviously he wasn't part of the religion bound community, he had been excommunicated from it (like several others) and was happy to be free of it. He was still recognised as Jewish and still is, even officially by the State of Israel apparently.
That State of Israel recognizes him to be a Jew is like Hitler recognizing Siegfried or Theodoric the Great to be (ethnic) Germans. Whatever identity Spinoza had must be proved with evidence from his time. Anything else is just ethnocentric fantasy.
 
Then why quote someone who does just that?
Usually I assume good faith and a minimal level of intelligence.


Edited by Chilbudios - 09-Feb-2009 at 22:55
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  Quote Al Jassas Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Mar-2009 at 17:31
Hello to you all
 
Here is an interesting story buried as usual by international media about the last war on Gaza:
 
 
Now reading this story which wasn't reported at all by any of the major media outlets I wonder why do people still insist that the media is with the Palestinians?
 
Al-Jassas
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