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eaglecap
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Topic: India - why didnt Islam convert all of India... Posted: 09-Mar-2005 at 20:53 |
to Islam????? Hinduism would be considered pagan by Muslims!
??????????
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Cywr
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Posted: 10-Mar-2005 at 00:11 |
Because Islam Never ruled all of India for starters, there were
powerfull Hindu Kingdoms in the south whop remained independant from
the Moghuls (although some paid tribute for a while IIRC). Before the
Mughuls muslim powers only ruled parts of the North.
Muslim rulers havn't always been intrested in conversian, though, so
theres no reason to assume that they would have even if technicly they
could, and ultimatly its down to what the people there think, if Islam
doesn't intrest them, then its a bit of a no go.
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Arrrgh!!"
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Turk
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Posted: 10-Mar-2005 at 18:37 |
Originally posted by eaglecap
to Islam????? Hinduism would be considered pagan by Muslims!
??????????
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...by Muslims only?
Most rulers did not insist upon conversion, and the ones that pressed
the issue too hard were probably burnt in one way or another by Hindu
backlash (Hindus outnumbered Muslims remember).
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Jagatai Khan
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Posted: 12-Mar-2005 at 12:56 |
The Greatest emperor of Ghaznid Sultanate,Mahmud of Ghazni made 17 rushes to convert India.He wasn't very successfull,but he converted great amount of people into Islam in Northern India.
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ihsan
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Posted: 18-Mar-2005 at 11:27 |
I doubt his famous 17 Indian Campaigns were made to convert the Indians.
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Tobodai
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Posted: 18-Mar-2005 at 14:03 |
because the greatest muslim rulers of India where the ones that realized they would have less rebeliions if they left the Hindus alone.
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"the people are nothing but a great beast...
I have learned to hold popular opinion of no value."
-Alexander Hamilton
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 18-Mar-2005 at 15:03 |
Amir Khosrow, one of the greatest Persian-speaking poets of India, says "Islam and Hinduism are your two eyes, they appear different but their vision is one".
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Bosnjo
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Posted: 18-Mar-2005 at 19:11 |
Like the Balkan, the Turks occupated the Balkan for 500 Years (South-East-Europe) but only 10% of Balkanians are Muslims.
One reason was money:
From Non-Muslims you can get more taxes, Muslims have only to pay 2,5% according to Kuran.
The other power:
Muslims must have citizen-rights, all others were threated like slaves, in Feudal System should all be slaves of the King.
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I am heavely armed, entirely sick and extremly nationalistic.
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azimuth
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Posted: 20-Mar-2005 at 01:34 |
Originally posted by Bosnjo
Like the Balkan, the Turks occupated the Balkan for 500 Years (South-East-Europe) but only 10% of Balkanians are Muslims.
One reason was money:
From Non-Muslims you can get more taxes, Muslims have only to pay 2,5% according to Kuran. |
what are you talking about ?
Non muslims payed money for their own Protections that the Islamic Armies will defend them and that called Jezzyah
what muslims pay is called Zakka and that is not for the Ruler or any other power, Zakkah was Paid to the Poor and people who are in need.
Originally posted by Bosnjo
The other power:
Muslims must have citizen-rights, all others were threated like slaves, in Feudal System should all be slaves of the King.
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not true
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ihsan
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Posted: 20-Mar-2005 at 16:40 |
Azimuth, he says that the pre-Ottoman Balkan peninsula was run by feudal systems which threated the common people like slaves, so Ottoman rule removed them.
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azimuth
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Posted: 23-Mar-2005 at 10:49 |
Originally posted by ihsan
Azimuth, he says that the pre-Ottoman Balkan peninsula was run by feudal systems which threated the common people like slaves, so Ottoman rule removed them. |
and that was one of the reasons that there are 10% of muslims in the Balkan??
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Seko
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Posted: 23-Mar-2005 at 23:59 |
Originally posted by azimuth
Originally posted by ihsan
Azimuth, he says that the pre-Ottoman Balkan peninsula was run by feudal systems which threated the common people like slaves, so Ottoman rule removed them. |
and that was one of the reasons that there are 10% of muslims in the Balkan??
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It looks like what Bosnjo is saying is that there was not any forced conversion, therefore only the 10% number. The tax on minorities was for protection, since conscription into the armed service was not allowed. However, Ihsan is correct in rephrasing that before the Ottomans, Balkan serfs had very little rights.
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ihsan
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Posted: 24-Mar-2005 at 17:14 |
And there were still Christian soldiers in the Ottoman army.
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eaglecap
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Posted: 24-Mar-2005 at 17:33 |
Originally posted by Bosnjo
Like the Balkan, the Turks occupated the Balkan for 500 Years (South-East-Europe) but only 10% of Balkanians are Muslims.
One reason was money/P]
From Non-Muslims you can get more taxes, Muslims have only to pay 2,5% according to Kuran.
The other power/P]
Muslims must have citizen-rights, all others were threated like slaves, in Feudal System should all be slaves of the King. |
The difference is the the people of the Balkans, being Christains, were people of the Book so they were given the choice of paying the poll tax, convert, or die. Hindus are Pagan and pagans were not generally given the first two choices. I imagine it was the sheers numbers that prevented a wholesale conversion to Islam in India. Many converted to Islam to escape the Hindu cast system. I was reading about a movement in India for untouchables to convert to the Protestant faith to escape the corrupt caste system.
I do not know which is worse but it would be good to see oppressed people move up the social ladder.
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