Why invincible Mongol Empire was defeated?

Originally posted by Omar al Hashim Originally posted by Drunt Ba'adur Originally posted by Omar al Hashim The Mongol Empire, broke up because of infighting after Genghis Khans death. The various mongol Khanates, were often never defeated but gradually blended into the conqured populations. The last fragment of the mongol empire, the Mughal Empire was overthrown in 1857 by the British. I think the last 'mongol heir'(and that would be very doubtful) died a few time later. It was a sovereign of Bukhara or some city near there and I think that we shouldn't consider Babur dynasty a heir of Mongol Empire When did the Russians get control of Central asia? Oh, wait, Bukhara was a dependency until soviet times so your probably right. Babur and his decendents always considered themselves Mongols, and at the time of conquest Indians considered Babur to be a mongol. I just put a big post on the thread about the maps about it.

Actually I beg to differ. The word Mogul is actually a misnomer. It is simply Persian for Mongol and the Moguls always considered themselves Turks. Although to us they are both the same, in those days a sharp distinction was made between them. The Turks always considered themselves more civilized and spoke a different dialect from Mongols proper. Babar himself belonged to the Turkish Barlas tribe.

Mameluke

Originally posted by Mameluke Originally posted by Omar al Hashim Originally posted by Drunt Ba'adur Originally posted by Omar al Hashim The Mongol Empire, broke up because of infighting after Genghis Khans death. The various mongol Khanates, were often never defeated but gradually blended into the conqured populations. The last fragment of the mongol empire, the Mughal Empire was overthrown in 1857 by the British. I think the last 'mongol heir'(and that would be very doubtful) died a few time later. It was a sovereign of Bukhara or some city near there and I think that we shouldn't consider Babur dynasty a heir of Mongol Empire When did the Russians get control of Central asia? Oh, wait, Bukhara was a dependency until soviet times so your probably right. Babur and his decendents always considered themselves Mongols, and at the time of conquest Indians considered Babur to be a mongol. I just put a big post on the thread about the maps about it. Actually I beg to differ. The word Mogul is actually a misnomer. It is simply Persian for Mongol and the Moguls always considered themselves Turks. Although to us they are both the same, in those days a sharp distinction was made between them. The Turks always considered themselves more civilized and spoke a different dialect from Mongols proper. Babar himself belonged to the Turkish Barlas tribe. Mameluke

Babur wanted to reconquer timurs empire and rule from samarkand. Thats pretty Mongol. The truth is probably more along the lines he was both a turk and a mongol. I don't think the distinction could have been that sharp after 300 years of intermixing.

Maybe because it never existed? Ghengis did conquer the nomadic areas and had begun the attack on China, but all later expasions were of his sons and grandsons who had khanates of their own.

Maybe because it never existed? Ghengis did conquer the nomadic areas and had begun the attack on China, but all later expasions were of his sons and grandsons who had khanates of their own.

The Mongol Empire was a single empire under a single Great Khan until 1259. At that time, almost all of the conquests had been completed, except for Song China.