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Komnenos
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Topic: Was the Byzantine Empire mainly a Hellenic Empire? Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 16:32 |
Originally posted by Belisarius
True it was that the Byzantines in their devotion to Christianity destroyed many monuments from ancient Greece because of their pagan history. |
As discussed before, without Christianity as the one stable and unifying factor in their long history, the Byzantine Empire would have succumbed much earlier than 1453 to one of many attacks on its existence, and thus even less of the heritage of Greek antiquity would have survived and eventuall disseminated to the West.
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Belisarius
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Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 16:04 |
No, it was actually a very good analogy.
True it was that the Byzantines in their devotion to Christianity destroyed many monuments from ancient Greece because of their pagan history.
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Guests
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Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 14:19 |
Byzantine state was a multiethnical empire and "Orthodoxy" was the
connecting element within the population;and the dividing element
between the Greeks who were distinguished as "Hellenes"-those who
remained attached to their traditions and finally destroyed-and those
who identified themselves as "Romans" and assimilated to the eastern
christian melting pot.
However-especially after Justinian-Byzantine Empire was established in
lands that were in the sphere of influence of Greek culture for
centuries,from Magna Gracea to modern Syria, and the population was
either hellenic or hellenized.
In a modern parallel we would say that Greeks were for Byzantine Empire
what Russians were for the Soviet one.Byzantines called Romans
themselves but they were the Greeks for all the others,just like
Soviets were the "Russians" for the rest of the world as they were the
dominating population in the state.Communism would be the "Orthodoxy"
of USSR...
In my opinion Byzantine Empire was heir of the ancient Greek states but
the destroyer of Greek civilazation and culture the same time.
Complicated,eh?
Edited by Polemidas
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Menander
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Posted: 17-Oct-2005 at 17:49 |
Oh god. Quick, someone jump onto it before it explodes into saying Alexander was Slavic.
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"No one saves us but ourselves. No one can and no one may. We ourselves must walk the path." -Siddhartha Gautama
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Alkiviades
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Posted: 17-Oct-2005 at 17:22 |
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Posted: 17-Oct-2005 at 16:56 |
One thing is certain.. Byzantines are distinct from the Greeks, they just used their language... thats all.. Same with the Ancient Macedonians (the inhabitants of today's Republic of Macedonia) - they just used the greek language and culture, and btw the greek language was second, an ancient macedonian language was the first spoken one.
greetings
Edited by azwhoopin
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ArmenianSurvival
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Posted: 16-Oct-2005 at 22:34 |
What you said is agreed by some historians to be one of the key causes
of the downfall of the Byzantine Empire. While the Byzantines were
concentrating efforts on encorporating the Armenian church as part of
the Greek Orthodoxy, and while they were trying to subdue Armenian
leaders and undermining their efforts against Muslim invaders, the
Byznatines lost their buffer-zone, and eventually, their empire.
You would think they would learn something after the Bagraduni Dynasty
of Armenia fell to the Seljuks. But when the Rubenian Dynasty
established an Armenian kingdom in Cilicia the Byzantines pulled the
same act, allowing the Egyptian Mameluks to topple the kingdom in 1375.
Again, no more buffer-zone, and their eastern flank was left wide open.
You know what happened after
Edited by ArmenianSurvival
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Constantine XI
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Posted: 16-Oct-2005 at 21:58 |
Now there is an interesting point, they often were agressive towards
their place of origin. The more intelligent Emperors retained Armenia
as an autonomous buffer state. One of the greatest causes of decline
IMO was that Constantine X Ducas abolished the right of the Armenians
to maintain 50,000 men under arms in preference of them simply paying
tribute to Byzantium instead. Soon enough the Turkish raids began, and
would soon encroach on Byzantine Anatolia itself.......
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ArmenianSurvival
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Posted: 16-Oct-2005 at 06:50 |
Ya, all rulers of the Byzantines were culturally Greek with a few
exceptions. I would imagine he was part of the Greek Orthodox church as
you said (Armenians had/have a completely different form of
Christianity). The Byzantines ignored pleas from Armenia against Muslim
invaders, all because the Armenians refused to place their church under
the authority of the Greek Orthodoxy. This fact is proof enough to me,
that all Armenian rulers of Byzantium were most probably nominal to the
Greek Orthodox Church (they were probably crowned by Greek bishops
too). Also, Armenian rulers of Byzantium were very agressive towards
Armenia, trying to incorporate Armenia into the Byzantine Empire,
levying heavy taxes towards them, and ignoring their pleas against
Muslim invaders.
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Constantine XI
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Posted: 15-Oct-2005 at 21:10 |
With regard to his links to Armenia itself,that is a bit shadowy. We know that he was actually brought up in Bulgarian territory after a Bulgarian raid captured him as a boy. If memory serves I think it was his family which came from Armenia, yet he himself was born in the Greek-speaking Thrace, was transported to a Slavic country, then later managed to make it to Constantinople. In that case he must be considered as probably being bi-lingual in Bulgar and Greek, though being better at Greek in all probability. He did not carry monophysitism with him, had he been a monphysite like virtually all Armenians we would definitely have heard of it. So it seems that in terms of basic bloodlines he had a strong Armenian heritage, though was culturally Greek enough to make an acceptable Emperor for the Byzantines. All in all it hardly matters what ethnicity he was, what is important is that he inaugerated a dynasty which would lead a vanguard in the resurgence of his civilization.
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ArmenianSurvival
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Posted: 15-Oct-2005 at 19:22 |
Well, I know Greek was probably their strongest language, seeing as
they ruled an empire that was more or less Greek. But I was saying that
in response to people that say "He wasnt Armenian because he probably
didnt speak the language". Unless it was documented, no one really
knows how well they actually knew Armenian, all we know is that they
are of Armenian origin. In Armenian culture family ties are everything,
in some cases it actually defines who the person is. Whether or not
they had these same family ties as rulers of an empire is not widely
known.
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Constantine XI
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Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 05:28 |
I have not encountered it, but the fact that they spoke Greek well and
used it regularly is something I am willing to assume. Had they not
done so it is extremely likely that the historians would have said
something about it. Procopius records of Justinian I, who was
originally a peasant from Dardania and bi-lingual in Thracian and
Latin, the he spoke terrible Greek throughout his life. If Basil was
similar we would probably have heard about it through the historians.
In Byzantium the upper classes would not even lower themselves to speak
like commoners, trying often to imitate classical Attic as best they
could. If Basil I could speak Armenian he definitely learnt Greek to a
high standard and made it his everyday tongue. Stuck in the upper
echelons of a Greek court, he would not have had many associates to
speak Armenian to compared to Greeks. With the running of a Greek
Empire in store for his sons, he would hardly have troubled himself
teaching them Armenian if he even retained a good grasp of it later in
life.
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ArmenianSurvival
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Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 04:01 |
Originally posted by Alkiviades
Heraclius was also Greek by blood |
His father was an Armenian, wasnt he? At least i know he was born in Armenia.
What you guys say is understandable, about them being aligned with the
Greek culture because of their duty to the state. But how would you
know if Basil II (or any Armenian emperor of Byzantium) didnt know how
to speak Armenian? Is it mentioned in a history book or something?
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Alkiviades
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Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 03:44 |
Indeed, Ingerina sounds Skandinavian (or Rus) but seing as her parents were known and she was born in Constantinoupolis, I don't know how she could be half-skandinavian.
But truly, the emperors had wives from all around the (known at the time) world, that wouldn't be a novelty. I mentioned her because she was not of "noble" descent and because she was Michael's Drunkard mistress, before becoming Basil's wife.
Also, there is even more controversy concerning Basil, as I've seen a couple of sources claiming he was of a "noble Greek family"... maybe he fabricated (or obscured) his past, to facilitate (via a Greek "noble" family) a more appropriate claim on the throne? I wouldn't know...
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Constantine XI
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Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 03:36 |
Ingerina is derived from Scandinavian, I have never heard a Greek name
similar to it. Now that I think about it the source I used (J. Norwich)
said she was half Scandinavian, and that apparently was the cause of
some consternation in the court.
The first foreign Empress that I recall off the top of my head was
another Eudocia, a Frankish girl who married Theodosius II. Clearly the
Empire did not suddenly turn Frankish on account of that .
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Alkiviades
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Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 03:20 |
Scandinavian? Now that's something I've never heard before... Her father was Theophilos, and her mother was Theodora of Paphlagonia, and she was born in Constantinoupolis in 835... how could she have been Skandinavian?
Though we certainly agree on the notion that ancestry by blood of some specific ethnic group, was definitely not seen as important back in those times. A rather large number of emperors married with various non-byzantine princesses (Rus, Bulgarian, Khazar are mentioned among many others in the sources) and their progeny ruled the empire.
Edited by Alkiviades
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Constantine XI
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Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 03:03 |
The only other Armenians in the Macedonian dynasty were John I and
Romanus I, the Armenians have obviously provided some very capable men
for the Byzantine army and throne. But Alkiviades is correct, people
identified themselves by language, religion and culture more than
blood-ethnicity more in those days. None of the Armenian Emperors ever
tried to impose monophysitism on Byzantium, were happy to speak Greek
and kept up court protocol.
Alkiviades, I should point out that the mother of Leo VI (Eudocia
Ingerina) was not Greek, she was Scandinavian. Eudocia Ingerina was an
import from the Rus princedoms. Like you mentioned, though, bloodlines
were less important than cultural alignment.
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Alkiviades
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Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 00:26 |
If we go by blood (which is extremely innacurate anyway and has nothing
to do with reality) the Macedonian dynasty minus Basil I was
purely Greek: Basil married to a Greek lady (the maitresse of
his good friend the emperor - Basil was ...ahem... doing a favor to his
friend, who needed to make his girlfriend a "lady" but couldn't marry
her himself). His son, Leo (called "the philosopher" later) was a
progeny of his benefactor, Michael III himself, and not of Basil's.
Several sources point out those facts, exclaiming that Basil had not
sexual contacts with his wife for as long as Micheal was still alive.
Basil took care of that, of course, by repaying his sponsor (and
co-emperor, after a point... seems like a really generous lad this
Michael, doesn't he?) and benefactor by the blade and taking the
throne for himself.
Michael was Greek, the child's mother was Greek... well, I guess the
line from there on (and since Leo married to a Greek lady as well) was
Greek by blood.
Heraclius was also Greek by blood, I really don't know why some people
prefer to call him Armenian, and Nikephoros Phokas was also Greek by
blood.
But the truth is, blood has nothing to do with it. Culture has
everything to do with it. How many Romans, after the 1st century AD,
could claim "pure blood"? How many people today, besides some very
isolated communities, can claim "pure blood"? Genetics tells us that
purity of blood is a myth. The Macedonian dynasty was Greek by culture
and that's what really counts. For instance, Basil I barely spoke
Armenian, and no other Macedonian emperor spoke any Armenian at all.
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ArmenianSurvival
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Posted: 13-Oct-2005 at 22:15 |
Originally posted by Komnenos
Heraclius(610-641) whose father was Armenian
Leo III the Isaurian (717-741)
Leo V the Armenian (813-820)
Basil I (867-886) of Armenian/Macedonian descent |
I was under the impression that the entire Macedonian line of Byzantium
was Armenian in origin, and not Macedonian at all. Please correct me if
im wrong.
I read somewhere that out of its 1123 years of existance, Byzantium was
ruled by emperors of Armenian origin for 786 years (again, correct me
if im wrong). Heraclius, Basil II "Bulgar Slayer", Leo V, Nicephorus
Phokas and John Tzimiskes to name a few.
About the Armenian-Byzantine relationship, the Armenians lost their
capital city Ani in 1064 to the Byzantine Empire, and after
establishing a kingdom in Cilicia (1080-1375), they maintained in an
autonomous stance against Byzantium. The Armenian kingdom in Cilicia
was shaped by two Armenian dynasties, the Rubenids and Hetumids. The
Hetumids wanted to rule Cilicia under the rule of Byzantium (winning
the support of the emperor), while the Rubenids wanted an autonomous
Armenia. After numerous power struggles the entire region of Cilicia
fell under the control of the Rubenid dynasty, and would remain so for
virtually the entire existence of the kingdom (until late in the
kingdom's history when a Rubenid princess married a Hetumid prince and
combined the two dynasties). The kingdom collapsed because of a Mamluk
invasion, in which Byzantium did not offer Armenia any help, because of
the Armenians refusal to place their church under the Greek Orthodoxy
(Armenians have had their own form of Christianity, Armenian Apostolic
Christianity, since 451...Apostolic because the Apostles Thaddeus and
Bartholemeu spread Christianity to Armenia in the 1st century A.D.).
This created the religious strife that Phallanx was referring to.
Back to the original topic, i view the Byzantine empire as culturally
Greek, even though their laws might have been Roman and they were
originally part of the Roman Empire. Their official language was Greek
(after Heraclius), and Byzantium was a dominatly Greek city, and the
official religion was Greek Orthodox. Yes, they were multi-cultural and
had many foreigners contribute to the empire (such as Armenians), but
they were mainly Greek.
And about the Armenians referring to themselves as "Romanoi", this was
not true. The Roman Empire under Trajan only controlled Armenia for 3
years (114-117 A.D.), and Armenia had to ally with Rome or Persia for
reasons of national security. Other than these brief encounters, and
some Armenian kings being nominal to Rome, Armenians never referred to
themselves as "Romanoi". This was not even the case when the entire
eastern flank of the Byzantine Empire was Armenian land, because
Armenia was at its largest extent (culturally) at this time than almost
any other period. I cant say the same for Bulgars and others because i
do not know their history well.
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Jazz
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Posted: 12-Oct-2005 at 20:41 |
My simple explanation of East Roman (or Byzantine if you will) Civilization is a Hellenistic realm with a Roman Law book and a Christian Church.
At what point forward in the transition from late Antiquity to the Middle Ages this applies is of course up to debate.
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