Originally posted by Mountain Man
No...a stalemate similar to that in Germany during WWII. As you will recall, Germany wasn't "liberated" either, but remained divided for decades.
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The old goat is both correct and yet incorrect. For the answer lies in the context of the question and the then further ongoing development of the political national situation as it has occurred.
Initially? No. A stalemate did develop.
Subsequently? Yes. They have liberated themselves economically and from an international perspective no matter their desire for unification and their associations with allies. They are no longer arbitrarily being told what is acceptable (hence required by others) reference their own national sovereignty or security.