Originally posted by Paul
But the Norman era preceded the Plantagenet one.
Plantagenet kings definately held sway over France at times, Henry II, Edward III and Henry VI but for the most part no.
With the exception of Henry II and Edward I no Plantagenet king could be considered absolute monarch of England.
The English system of government was very different to the rest of
Europe. The king was head of a ruling council not an autocrat. Early
Plantagenet kings had a problem with this and fought it.
Strong kings like Henry and Edward won but most like Edward II,
Henry III, John ect were left humiliated and powerless. By the
time of the later Plantagenets and Edward III they just accepted the
power share.
Only 3 monarchs were to challege this, Charles I, James II and Richard II. One murdered, one executed and one exiled.
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Yeah the Norman era (William I, William II, Henry I, Stephen I) was
before the Plantagenet one (Henry II, Richard I, John I, Henry III,
Edward I, II, III, Richard II). After Richard II, it's the house of
Lancaster that replaced the House of Anjou.
But it's not really the question asked, the question would be rather,
would you consider England had really a power over the Plantagenent
lands in France?
My answer would be clearly no, first England had a completly different
politic system and they ruled with completly different titles and laws
in France as mentioned by Paul. Being Dukes and Counts of the Kings of
France they had to deal with them about their lands. Some of them tried
to fight it, like William I (wounded in battle and died), Henry I
(poisoned), Henry II (defeated and died), Richard I (killed in battle),
John I (defeated at Bouvines) and Henry III (defeated at Saintes).
Then the turmoil of the hundred years' war started under Edward III,
but then it's no longer the Platagenent lands that is in question.
The Platagenet kings themselves moved a lot, sometimes living in Angers
(there home city), or Chinon (their residential castle). Though, when
John I lost both they were clearly cut off their homeland and started
be assimilated in England. Yet then, they didn't rule much on French
territories (Aquitaine only) and then Henry III couldn't defeated Louis
IX to put the title of Duke of Aquitaine bound to the one of King of
England (and not France).
If you talk in cultural influence, I think there is no point in arguing
France had a bigger cultural influence over England than the opposite
at those times.