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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Topic: Gothic migration to Eastern Europe Posted: 14-Apr-2012 at 14:48 |
It is believed that from a small island in Sweden named Gotland some people migrated and occupied a large land in the eastern Europe, this belief is based on a mythical story by Jordanes, of course the date has been changed from around 1500 BC to the 3rd century AD!
The interesting thing is that from very ancient times, the people who lived in the north of the Black sea were called as Scythians in the Greek and Roman sources, those who believe in a Gothic migration, say that in the 3rd century these Scythians suddenly disappeared and Goths were replaced but Greeks and Romans still mistakenly called them Scythians!
Anyway I think Germanic people, like Goths, lived in some regions in the north of the Black sea from at least 3,000 years ago, and as Jordanes mentions, from this region they migrated northward toward Scandinivia (Scandzia) and established a separate priest-king line on the island of Gotland.
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Diviacus
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Posted: 14-Apr-2012 at 18:38 |
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So what was their language when they migrated from the Black sea?
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Nick1986
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Posted: 14-Apr-2012 at 21:07 |
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An ancient form of German?
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Me Grimlock not nice Dino! Me bash brains!
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 15-Apr-2012 at 01:16 |
Originally posted by Diviacus
So what was their language when they migrated from the Black sea? |
It is clear that they were a Germanic people but Jordanes says they were originally a mixture of Scythians and Thracians, as I said in numerous posts in this thread: Is Germanic a subgroup of the Iranian languages?, there was certainly a strong relation between Iranian and Germanic languages.
Edited by Cyrus Shahmiri - 15-Apr-2012 at 01:16
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Menumorut
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Posted: 29-May-2012 at 07:25 |
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri
Originally posted by Diviacus
So what was their language when they migrated from the Black sea? |
It is clear that they were a Germanic people but Jordanes says they were originally a mixture of Scythians and Thracians |
Jordanes, who was a Goth was believing that the Goths were the same people with the Getae (because both lived in Dacia but he confused the epochs) and his work "Getica" which is a mixture of legends and his own fantasies trying to proves this.
In fact, the Goths were a Germanic people but when they established their kingdom in what is now Romania and Ukraine (the period of Sântana de Mureș - Chernyakhov archeological culture) they were mixed with Sarmatians (nation of Scyhtian origin) as well as Dacians and other nations. Also, Greeks and Romans used to call migratory people with ethnonyms of ancient peoples that lived in the place where those migrators appeared, and for this reason they first called the Goths "Scythians".
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Don Quixote
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Posted: 29-May-2012 at 16:28 |
I agree with Menumorit - I had to dig in it due to my arguing with bunch of Bulgarians who believed that the Goths were Getae, hence Thracians, hence Bulgarians...
 and were waving Jordanes left and right; so I had to research a little from where this confusion came. In fact, Jordanes made a blunder, which is most misused by certain people with nationalist orientation.
Edited by Don Quixote - 29-May-2012 at 16:30
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Diviacus
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Posted: 30-May-2012 at 16:09 |
Originally posted by Don Quixote
In fact, Jordanes made a blunder, which is most misused by certain people with nationalist orientation.
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Jordanes was not the first one to confuse Goths with Getae. Paulus Orosus had made this mistake before, and after Jordanes, Isidorius of Sevilla made the same mistake. In fact between the Vth and VIIth centuries, the Goths were often called poetically "Getae".
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 31-May-2012 at 03:30 |
There was no confusion and there was also no migration, but just a cultural expansion, for example it is meaningless to say some historians confused Azeri with Azari, of course ancient Azaris, as in Iranian people, and modern Azeris, as a Turkic people, are culturally two different peoples but they are ethnically almost the same people. The interesting thing is that Azeris in the modern country of Azerbaijan differed ethnically from the ancient Azeris too.
Anyway as I said in my first post in this thread, there is nothing to prove there was a large migration from a small island in Sweden to the northern parts of the Black sea, like the European migration to America in the recent centuries, but the Gothic culture was formed in the north of the Black sea, and then from this region was expanded to other regions.
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TITAN_
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Posted: 29-Jun-2012 at 18:10 |
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri
Originally posted by Diviacus
So what was their language when they migrated from the Black sea? |
It is clear that they were a Germanic people but Jordanes says they were originally a mixture of Scythians and Thracians, as I said in numerous posts in this thread: Is Germanic a subgroup of the Iranian languages?, there was certainly a strong relation between Iranian and Germanic languages. |
Iranian languages are closer to Sanskrit, than Germanic languages in my opinion. The ancient Persian empire stretched as far as India after all.
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 30-Jun-2012 at 03:28 |
Originally posted by TITAN_
Iranian languages are closer to Sanskrit, than Germanic languages in my opinion. The ancient Persian empire stretched as far as India after all.
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Iranian languages were formed a long time before the ancient Persian empire, original Persians lived somewhere in the north of the Caucasus, in th 9th century BC they migrated to the northwest of Iran, near the lake of Urmia, in the region which was called Parsua in the ancient Assyrian sources, and in 7th century BC they captured Anshan, an ancient Elamite land which was known as "Persia" from the 6th century BC, we see Cyrus the Great called his land Anshan, not Persia.
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Qaradag
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Posted: 02-Jul-2012 at 01:21 |
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri
There was no confusion and there was also no migration, but just a cultural expansion, for example it is meaningless to say some historians confused Azeri with Azari, of course ancient Azaris, as in Iranian people, and modern Azeris, as a Turkic people, are culturally two different peoples but they are ethnically almost the same people. The interesting thing is that Azeris in the modern country of Azerbaijan differed ethnically from the ancient Azeris too.
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The only problem with your post is that an ancient ethnicity or nation named "Azari" did not exist, and it's a theory which is not proven.
The second problem with that theory is that people of Azerbaijan was not named as "Azari" in Iran before Shah decided to change it from "Tork" to "Azari", part of assimilation policy by state. "Tork" are still far more used than "Azari" in Iran, to define people of Azerbaijan. Even Khamenei in his speech once said "Turks are brother of Persians, and Persians are brothesr of Turk. When you say you speak Azerbaijani in Iran, you say you speak Torki. I'm sure you as an Iranian are familiar with these facts.
In Republic of Azerbaijan ethnic definition are "Azərbaycanlı" and the langauge "Azərbaycanca", I.E, no usage of "Azari". But that is actually for political reasons, right away after independence, in 1992, it said "Turk" for both ethnicity and language in state constitution, but after long debates it was changed for political reasons.
When it comes down to ethnicity, Azerbaijani Turks are collection of many different Turkoman tribe/clans, like Afshars, Shahsevens, Qarapapaqs and so on. Historically referred to as Turkoman, Turk and Tatar (during Russian Empire period).
No need for fantasy theories when facts are clear as day and night.
Regards.
Edited by Qaradag - 02-Jul-2012 at 01:24
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 02-Jul-2012 at 02:49 |
Originally posted by Qaradag
The only problem with your post is that an ancient ethnicity or nation named "Azari" did not exist, and it's a theory which is not proven.
The second problem with that theory is that people of Azerbaijan was not named as "Azari" in Iran before Shah decided to change it from "Tork" to "Azari", part of assimilation policy by state. "Tork" are still far more used than "Azari" in Iran, to define people of Azerbaijan. Even Khamenei in his speech once said "Turks are brother of Persians, and Persians are brothesr of Turk. When you say you speak Azerbaijani in Iran, you say you speak Torki. I'm sure you as an Iranian are familiar with these facts.
In Republic of Azerbaijan ethnic definition are "Azərbaycanlı" and the langauge "Azərbaycanca", I.E, no usage of "Azari". But that is actually for political reasons, right away after independence, in 1992, it said "Turk" for both ethnicity and language in state constitution, but after long debates it was changed for political reasons.
When it comes down to ethnicity, Azerbaijani Turks are collection of many different Turkoman tribe/clans, like Afshars, Shahsevens, Qarapapaqs and so on. Historically referred to as Turkoman, Turk and Tatar (during Russian Empire period).
No need for fantasy theories when facts are clear as day and night.
Regards.
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I really didn't understand what you meant, it is clear that modern Azeri is a Turkic language and it differs from the old Azari language: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_Azari_language which was certainly an Iranian language, there was no decision to change the name of Turk to Azeri or Iranian to Persian, it is not true that all Turkic peoples speak Azeri and all Iranian peoples speak Persian, but an Azeri can call oneself a Turk and a Persian can call onself an Iranian.
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Nick1986
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Posted: 02-Jul-2012 at 19:14 |
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Qaradag
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Posted: 02-Jul-2012 at 23:23 |
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri
Originally posted by Qaradag
The only problem with your post is that an ancient ethnicity or nation named "Azari" did not exist, and it's a theory which is not proven.
The second problem with that theory is that people of Azerbaijan was not named as "Azari" in Iran before Shah decided to change it from "Tork" to "Azari", part of assimilation policy by state. "Tork" are still far more used than "Azari" in Iran, to define people of Azerbaijan. Even Khamenei in his speech once said "Turks are brother of Persians, and Persians are brothesr of Turk. When you say you speak Azerbaijani in Iran, you say you speak Torki. I'm sure you as an Iranian are familiar with these facts.
In Republic of Azerbaijan ethnic definition are "Azərbaycanlı" and the langauge "Azərbaycanca", I.E, no usage of "Azari". But that is actually for political reasons, right away after independence, in 1992, it said "Turk" for both ethnicity and language in state constitution, but after long debates it was changed for political reasons.
When it comes down to ethnicity, Azerbaijani Turks are collection of many different Turkoman tribe/clans, like Afshars, Shahsevens, Qarapapaqs and so on. Historically referred to as Turkoman, Turk and Tatar (during Russian Empire period).
No need for fantasy theories when facts are clear as day and night.
Regards.
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I really didn't understand what you meant, it is clear that modern Azeri is a Turkic language and it differs from the old Azari language: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_Azari_language which was certainly an Iranian language, there was no decision to change the name of Turk to Azeri or Iranian to Persian, it is not true that all Turkic peoples speak Azeri and all Iranian peoples speak Persian, but an Azeri can call oneself a Turk and a Persian can call onself an Iranian.
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What exactly you didn't understand in my post? There was no "ancient Azeri langauge", it's just a recent unproven theory. And this is clear by the fact that usage of "Azeri" as a langauge or ethnicity term is a new one. During Russian Empire period, ethnic designation for people of Azerbaijan was Tatar, which says alot about usage of "Azeri" word before modern times. If you want proof, let me post it. And otherwise I would like to see proofs that an ancient non-Turkic "Azeri" language existed", it didn't and is just some theory. Surely some Iranian langauges existed in Azerbaijan and still do like Tat and Talysh, but it wasn't "Azeri". The point is that population of Azerbaijan are formed up by Turkoman tribes, not non-existent "ancient Azaris" which only cosists of unproven theries, and allmost all of it created by Ahmad Kasravi, who worked for Shah specifically for this task. And your entire wikipedia link are consisted of his books.  Take existing Iranian langauges, change it a little bit and claim that this is "ancient Azeri" langauge, this is exactly what Kasravi did. If you can prove that a language named as such existed, or an ethnicity, then these claims can have some meaning, but not when it doesn't go beyond a simple theory. Surely Russians had no reason to call people of Azerbaijan as Tatar if there was already a usage of "Azeri".
Edited by Qaradag - 02-Jul-2012 at 23:29
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