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[help me] the administration hierarchy

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  Quote Brainsucker Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: [help me] the administration hierarchy
    Posted: 12-Mar-2010 at 19:24
Can someone help me with the administration hierarchy in the medieval England (early Medieval, around the age of Norman Invasion to Britannia)??? I'm very confuse about this matter because it is very different than our today administration hierarchy
 
There are six or more nobility titles. King, Duke, Marquise, Earl, Viscount, and Baron (correct me if I'm wrong)
 
What I'm thinking are :
 
Duke is the vassal of the King, Earl is the vassal of a Duke, and Baron is the vassal of the earl (Am I correct, or wrong? Please enlight me)
 
Or... They are all the King's vassal. The Duke can't bestow the nobility title to his vassal and make them nobles. He just supervise them in the name of the King.
 
It is very confusing really.  For me, It is easier to understand the ancient Chinese administration Hierarchy as they use the centralization type government (that almost the same of today's administration hierarchy). The European counterpart use the decentralization type of government that make me confuse.
 
Just thinking of this :
 
King have vassals (duke, Earl, Viscount, Baron, etc). Then, he has his own dukedom, maybe earldom, maybe a county, I don't know. There, he has his own stewards, Knights, courtiers, etc. The problem is, which rank is higher? a vassal Duke who has a vast land, or the king's courtier?
 
In a war which the king is absent, who will become the surprime commander of the army? The most respectable Duke or the Captain of the king's army? (from his own Dukedom or Barony or whatever)
 
It is very very confusing!!!!!!!!!!
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Mar-2010 at 20:00
Ditto!
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  Quote TheGreatSimba Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Mar-2010 at 13:13
From what I understand, in Medieval England, the King ruled over all, and the baron's came in second. The rest are just titles. For example, a baron could be given the title of duke. Get it? Baron's were noblemen, meaning they were the rich and powerful, and so they were given titles, such as Duke, or Earl. But obviously, these different titles came with different levels of prestige.

Also, during times of war, when the King was away, he would designate someone to watch over his kingdom, power did not simply go to the person at the next highest level of hierarchy (although that person was usually someone the king appointed anyway, so it would most likely be him...)

I'm not an expert, I could be wrong here.




Edited by TheGreatSimba - 14-Mar-2010 at 13:14
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Mar-2010 at 19:32
In Carolingian times, it might well have been the "Steward of the House" who performed local duties of the King whilst he was away?

Later, it seems a good guess that the "Steward" became the "ruler" and thus the line of the "Stuarts?"

But, of course, I could well be wrong?

My regards, as always!
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  Quote Cryptic Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Mar-2010 at 19:07
Originally posted by Brainsucker

The problem is, which rank is higher? a vassal Duke who has a vast land, or the king's courtier?
 I am no expert, but I think the title "Duke" was reserved for either brothers or close relatives to the King of the reigning dynasty.
 
Originally posted by Brainsucker

Duke is the vassal of the King, Earl is the vassal of a Duke, and Baron is the vassal of the earl (Am I correct, or wrong? Please enlight me)
I think that the British rarely used the title "Baron". Rather a British Earl was equivelant to a German Baron or a French Count.  That is, they were all mid level nobility.


Edited by Cryptic - 16-Mar-2010 at 19:08
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  Quote Brainsucker Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-Mar-2010 at 17:21
Originally posted by TheGreatSimba

From what I understand, in Medieval England, the King ruled over all, and the baron's came in second. The rest are just titles. For example, a baron could be given the title of duke. Get it? Baron's were noblemen, meaning they were the rich and powerful, and so they were given titles, such as Duke, or Earl. But obviously, these different titles came with different levels of prestige.

Also, during times of war, when the King was away, he would designate someone to watch over his kingdom, power did not simply go to the person at the next highest level of hierarchy (although that person was usually someone the king appointed anyway, so it would most likely be him...)

I'm not an expert, I could be wrong here.


 
What do you means with just barons? So, there is no hierarchy such as governors, mayors, etc (just like the modern day)? And everyone has equal rank (except for the prestige)? So... Duke is the same as a baron, with exception of his honor?
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 19-Mar-2010 at 15:59
Brain sucker, and others, can you consider that the word "Count" merely means or meant, "to count?"

With some extension these titles were originally given to those persons who were responsible for "counting" or "measuring", or "weighing", those goods either legally "exported" or "imported" into a kingdom, and as such, today they would be the "managers" of "Customs", etc.!
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  Quote Cryptic Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 20-Mar-2010 at 08:26
Originally posted by Brainsucker

 
What do you means with just barons? So, there is no hierarchy such as governors, mayors, etc (just like the modern day)? And everyone has equal rank (except for the prestige)? So... Duke is the same as a baron, with exception of his honor?
 
I think the confusion maybe due to the vast period of time that the system has operated in Great Britain.  There may have been several ranking systems over the centuries. Perhaps the following general patterd developed:
 
Dark Ages:  Various nobles really functioned like autonomous tribal chieftains under a king. All these tribal chieftains are viewed as equal except in prestige.
 
Early Middle Ages: A feudal nation with a formal hierarchial system. Now, the various nobles are ranked.
 
Late Middle Ages / Rennasiance: Parliament is introduced, trade and markets develop. Feudal economic and social organizations change. The nobles revert to a "everybody is equal except in prestige" type thinking.   


Edited by Cryptic - 20-Mar-2010 at 08:29
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 21-Mar-2010 at 15:07
Originally posted by opuslola

Brain sucker, and others, can you consider that the word "Count" merely means or meant, "to count?"

With some extension these titles were originally given to those persons who were responsible for "counting" or "measuring", or "weighing", those goods either legally "exported" or "imported" into a kingdom, and as such, today they would be the "managers" of "Customs", etc.!


Maybe I should have explained, that the real reason for such titles, etc., was to explain who was to control "taxation!" Customs duties, etc., were the earliest "taxes1", and the "Count" or "counter" was the official who was in charge of the "taxation" whithin his territory or jurisdiction!

Perhaps, this is now clear?

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  Quote nephilum Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Mar-2010 at 08:25
politics and royal trends of the times prevailed, often the kings most trusted advisor would control affairs at "home" when the king was on a campaign. there have been times when the queen would control domestic affairs and times when the chancellor to the king would take control.
 
also as a add during medieval times the church was very influencial in goverment and were at the time very involved in dictating their own ideals in the governing process, as the ranks of the nobles were by-passed when the church had its eyes set on a goal to achieve with in that nation.
 
this religious influence was at times greater at running goverment than even the kings power could contain. take the crusades for example.
 
it was almost mandatory for kings during those times to "take up the cross" and be away from their country for years at a time. leaving their nation in the hands of their most trusted advisors. rank had very little to do with who kept day to day operations of the country going, more it was left to who the king believed could carry out his ideal of governing.
 
this is my first post here so i apologize in advance for for my intrusion, but i like the topic. 
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Mar-2010 at 13:02
Perhaps my answer(s)! above, might have been better taken, if I had used the word "Merovingian", instead of Carolingian? Then maybe one of you might well have knowledge of the term "major domo?" But, perhaps not?

http://www.panoccitania.com/history.html

From the above site you can read, amongst numerous other interesting things, the following;

"The Merovingians are also responsible for the origin of feudalism, when they let their dukes reign in stead of their kings. The Languedoc-Roussillon was from that moment on reigned by feudal lords for many centuries. These are the so called Lords of the Languedoc, who would later protect the Cathars against the catholic crusades. The soldiers who maintained the order were also called Knights for the first time in history.

Towards the 7th century, the Merovingian kings had little power and were more symbolic figures. They left the state to the rule of major domos (stewards). The position of Major Domo became hereditary in Carolingian times. The Carolingians dethroned the Merovingians in 751, when Pepin the Short was joined by Frankish noblemen and they no longer recognised their king Childeric III."

And, just to prove that my "Carolingian" reference was not without some "weight", there are also these words;

"THE CAROLINIANS
(751 tot 987)
Pepin II of Herstal (635 or 640 - 16th December 714) was major domo of Austrasia, Neustria and Burgundy (Burgundy from 680 to 714) and eventually he would gain more and more power in the Frankish realm. The Merovingian king Theuderic III tried to fire him from his post as major domo, but was beaten in Tertry in 687. Pepin then became the real leader of Austrasia and kept the other Frankish kingdoms under his control. His children would also be major domo, but his grandson, Pepin the Short, would become king in 751.

Charles Martel (23rd August 676 - 22nd October 741) was major domo in the Frankish realm. He was also born in Herstal in today's Wallonia (Belgium). Charles was the bastard son of Pepin II and his concubine Apaida. Charles Martel is most famous for his victory at the Battle of Poitiers in 732, which is seen as the 'rescue of Europe from the Arabs'. Martels Frankish army would beat an Arab army which tried to spread the islam. Although the Arabs would not be able to conquer all of Europe, they did succeed in occupying the greater part of Southern France and Iberia (Spain and Portugal). Although it would take two more generations before the Arabs were forced back over the Pyrenees, this victory would change the opportunity of the Arabs to the benefit of the Franks, and it would also lead to the unification of the Frankish realm under Charles Martel."


http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/majordomo

Maybe "chief of the house", but it also might well be translated as "Lord of the Manor?", or "Lord (Master)of the Palace", etc.?

You might even pay attention to the mention of "salt?", and "bees!"

Regards,


Edited by opuslola - 23-Mar-2010 at 13:12
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  Quote nephilum Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Mar-2010 at 16:25
here's a question for opuslola, i think you have certainly clearified the distinctions between the 2 dynasties.
 
during the era, when wales was trying to gain there indepedence from the english, where they also under a pseudo form of the merovingians type of rule or were they more closely related to the highlanders form of tribal rule in what is now scotland ?
 
the reason i ask is because wales was divided between three ruling princes. with one prince more influencial than the other at different stages during their war with england. but that was the only title i recall being used in wales at the time. the reason reason i'm asking you is because you seem to have a viable grip of the period.
 
thanx. 
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Mar-2010 at 20:14
Nephilum! If you would but try to actually write in some correct style of English, that is use Caps, and other punctuation that some one of learning might respect, then you might well receive the same in kind?

Otherwise, you ask to speak to my hand! Which, in your own words might well "seem to have a viable grip of the period!"

Please try it again in educated English?

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  Quote nephilum Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Mar-2010 at 14:19
Originally posted by opuslola

Nephilum! If you would but try to actually write in some correct style of English, that is use Caps, and other punctuation that some one of learning might respect, then you might well receive the same in kind?

Otherwise, you ask to speak to my hand! Which, in your own words might well "seem to have a viable grip of the period!"

Please try it again in educated English?
Please forgive my lack for correct punctuation. It was not my intention to irritate nor annoy anyone here with my poor typing.
 
I simply wanted to know what your thoughts were on the period of the Welsh/English conflict in the early 1200s. I have read some on the time period but, I am very interested in how Wales stylized their internal government. I also am interested in if there was any influence from Scotland in the way Wales had ruling princes.
 
Since I "spoke to the hand" of Mr. Opuslola, I have learned my lesson in asking questions directly to individuals who haven't  had their mourning coffee.
 
 I am just tyring to "educate" myself with the wealth of knowledge that these forums provide via the diverse population that make their posts here. I have used "caps" to appease your irritation sir and, I am sorry for any misunderstanding that I may have caused you.
 
Ihave read the codes of conduct for these forums and I have not violated any rules, but I am not here for an English lesson.  I "am" here for a history lesson though.
 
I am glad I restrained myself from using am emoticon.
 


Edited by nephilum - 24-Mar-2010 at 15:17
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Mar-2010 at 15:54
Nephilum! I am indeed sorry if I insulted you, but some decorum needs to be observed. What if every thing you wrote was in that new code used by young people while texting?

I would also object to "Pig Latin!" Laugh! But, I do not object to the English used by persons who do not have the command of the language that you have! English spelling and other rules are very demanding, and problems with posts whereby English is a second or third, etc., language is of no problem!

I certainly do not have the command of the language that I wish! And I am sure it also annoys some people somewhere!

Oh!   And I am glad that you did not mention a bodily orifice of my own, in which I might well place my penis! Laugh!

However, in regards to your question.

I will have to get back to you and see if I might be able to provide some answer that you have not obtained in other places!

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  Quote nephilum Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Mar-2010 at 16:39
Thankyou, and I do intend to keep the integrity of my posts in the spirit that these forums are intended.
 
I have read a novel by Edith Pargeterby by the name of "The Brothers of Gwynedd Quartet" that I enjoyed very much, but it did little to explain the local politics of Wales at that period. (and I believe it was pivotable because it was a last stand for a independent nation of Wales).
 
I am really interested in the period because I believe that the Welsh were astute politicians in gaining favor for their countrymen in a campaign against England, and showed a great deal of patience in dealing with the English on the whole with all the broken treaties that England offered.
 
But at some point I get the feel that some Northern influence may have had them act hastely at the end of the campaign. For there were a lot of "Tribal" squabbles between the princes. This is What I believe dissolved the dream for a independent nation for Wales.
 
So my curiosity is whether or not there is any literature that discloses the influences that may have pulled sway over the population of Wales. Becuase it seems to me that loyalties shifted daily with the Welsh at the time, which is indicative of conflicting influence.
 
thankyou in advance for your help on this. 
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Mar-2010 at 17:09
Dear Nephilum, if you or any of your friends, etc., have full access to a college library, then you can receive for free the following item from JSTOR; http://www.jstor.org/pss/1838858

That might have some information related to your query?

Another possible source that might have to be treated with some caution;

http://www.angelfire.com/journal2/post/

It seems that monks and monastaries as well as "bards" were the method of tranmission of ideas and rules! See; http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/6th_century

"Early 6th century – Glendalough monastery, Wicklow Ireland founded by St. Kevin. Many similar foundations in Ireland and Wales."

http://www.britannia.com/wales/lit/lit1.html

"Surviving Welsh language poems, part of the heroic tradition, date all the way back to the late sixth century AD, making them part of the oldest attested vernacular in Europe. Two poets who continued what seems to have been an old Celtic bardic tradition of elaborate sound patterns and social ideals were Taliesin and Aneirin. Both these poets lived in northwestern Britain (Strathclyde) during the time of the Anglo-Saxon invasions. The Britons were desperately trying to hold on to their lands in the face of unrelenting pressure from the Germanic tribes now holding most of the eastern half of the island. Apart from what is now known as Wales, the British (or Brythonic) kingdoms that survived were Rheged, Gododdin and Strathclyde. These were cut off from Wales politically in the seventh century, but Strathclyde continued as a centre of the old poetic traditions for a few more centuries when the burden (and the honor) fell to Wales."

http://www.castlewales.com/medwales.html

http://www.oremus.org/liturgy/wales/cal.html

http://www.data-wales.co.uk/caerleon1.htm

http://www.data-wales.co.uk/bards.htm

Now, I cannot say with any certainty that any of the sites listed above will do you any good at all!

My "viable" grip seems somewhat weak, when it comes to your question!

Possibly someone else here is a specialist in Welsh history, etc.?

Regards,



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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Mar-2010 at 17:15
I see, that while I was away, you mentioned a work concerning 13th cent. Wales! All that while I was concentrating upon 6th century Wales! laugh!

But, surprisingly only about 700 years seperate the two! I some empires or places, this is merely a "dark age!" chuckle!

I would suppose, based upon my weird beliefs, that the two times are much closer than current history can admit!

Good hunting!
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  Quote Brainsucker Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 04-Apr-2010 at 22:40

Please, please gentlemen / ladies, I still don't understand with your explanation. Just tell me the simplest way, using the England or France for the example. Can you explain the administration Hierarchy in the early middle age? What is the purpose of Duke, Count, Baron in the administration Hierarchy. If you want to spesific era, just explain about the England Kingdom in 1066.

Or, just tell my how the whole kingdom work at that time.

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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 05-Apr-2010 at 07:51
In general, in any of these organizational operations, there is a tier system created. That is there are differing levels of responsibility, delegation power, and defference!

Thus, with the arrival of the rule of the Northmen, the old system was replaced in stages with a new one,with various Northmen and their families imposed into the current system, with the Northmen, set into place at the top or the tier! And, where ever possible, these Lords, would either keep vestiges of the old system in place,or replace them with others of their kind and family.

It all had to do with "Liege" obligations!

The topmost position, usually had the largest area of responsibility, and as such, they were expected to provide the largest share of taxation to the King himself! Differing methods of taxation or "duties" were used depending upon the area in question.

As royal families became extended, one might well be a King in one area, a Duke in another, and a Count in another! Again "Liege" duties were to be followed!

See; http://www.thefreedictionary.com/liege

and; http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=77039

As regards your main question, I can only refer you to this;

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Royal_and_noble_ranks

Regards,

Edited by opuslola - 05-Apr-2010 at 07:52
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