Iranian Shahs / Policies

My view is this;

http://wiki.answers.com/Q/When_did_Persia_become_Iran

Or this?, from Wiki;

"Reza Shah ruled for almost 16 years until September 16, 1941, when he was forced to abdicate by the Anglo-Soviet invasion of Iran. He established an authoritarian government that valued nationalism, militarism, secularism and anti-communism combined with strict censorship and state propaganda.[74] Reza Shah introduced many socio-economic reforms, reorganizing the army, government administration, and finances.[75] To his supporters his reign brought "law and order, discipline, central authority, and modern amenities - schools, trains, buses, radios, cinemas, and telephones".[76] However, his attempts of modernisation have been criticised for being "too fast"[77] and "superficial",[78] and his reign a time of "oppression, corruption, taxation, lack of authenticity" with "security typical of police states." [76]

In particular he clashed with Iran's clergy and devout Muslims. His laws and regulations required mosques to use chairs, all Iranian except qualifying Shia jurisconsults to wear western clothes including a hat with a brim, encouraged women to discard hijab, allowed mixing of the sexes. In 1935 bazaaris and villagers rose up at the Imam Reza shrine in Mashhad chanting slogans such as `The Shah is a new Yezid.` Dozens were killed and hundreds were injured when troops finally quelled the unrest.[79]"

Do any of you think that Nazism or Facism had anything to do with the above?


Edited by opuslola - 05-Feb-2010 at 19:59

Originally posted by opuslola Pardon me all! Why don't we really state just why Iran is now called Iran? For many years it was referred to as Persia! Suddenly, it seems, it became Iran! Myself, and others, infer that it became such because it really means "Aryan!" Your views?

What were Reza's motivations? Perhaps he wanted to replace the negative image which Persia had under the Qajars

And, perhaps he was, like the Nazi's a supporter of Ayran dominance? There exists an old term called "Strange bedfellows!"

Funny that Ayran / Arian / Ayrian / Iran supremacy started about the same time?

But, of course, I could be and often can be found to be, wrong?

Regards,

Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri It is really difficult to know what Reza Shah's motivations were, several countries have different names in different languages, for example we call Greece "Yunan" (Ionia) and Greeks themselves call it "Hellas", the interesting thing is that Ionia is not even located in modern Greece, maybe Reza Shah really wanted to say to the world that we are the true Aryans.