Personally I think the concept of common law goes back into Anglo-Saxon times and even earlier (among the Anglo-Saxons while still on the mainland and among the Celts of the islands).
But I need to think more about it before arguing the point.
However, as a quickie, Nora Chadwick has the following passage, talking about the representative assembly called by the Welsh king Hywel Dda in the tenth century.
|
It is implied that the laws were not the creation of any legislative body, but were the organised statement of the ancient customs of the race, which had hitherto been carried on by oral tradition.
|
I wold have thought in fact that the Normans at least initially led to a weakening of the principles of the common law. In Magna Charta for instance there is no reference to customary rights and liberties: the concessions the king is making are things he is granting his subjects, in a very French atmosphere, not rights he is restoring.