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QuoteReplyTopic: Cannibalism in Beowulf and other Old English Texts Posted: 09-May-2009 at 19:14
Originally posted by King John
Beowulf places them as the progeny of Cain–a man, so yes I think you can say they are human. Grendel's mother is called a sea-wolf (brimwylf in multiple places (lns. 1506 and 1599), she is also able to walk and live on land, what seamonsters do we know that can do this? I think one can make the argument that these other groups of Cain's kindred are human, however, whether they are human or not is irrelevant for this discussion since the giants, elves, and nicors are not described in Beowulf as eating humans. We must limit ourselves to discussing the beings that are explicitly said to eat human flesh.
I'm afraid I did not state my argument very clearly (I will improve). I meant to say that Grendel was part of this race of seamonsters and giants who may or may not be human. If you think that these monsters are human then I guess the Grendels must be too.
At the end of the day Beowulf is fiction and your own interpretation is what matters, it is not like we can give them a DNA test like a Neanderthal.
Other tales (not old English) such as hansel and Gretal and Jack and the Beanstalk also use cannibals that are almost human like Grendal, maybe Witches and Giants eating people is a little easier to understand.
I think however that King John's interest is in the interpretation placed on cannibalism by the various authors and readers, and their reactions to it.
I can throw in another category of cannibalism: the involuntary sort, such as occurs in Shakespeare's Titus Anndronicus.
TITUS. Why, there they are, both baked in this pie, Whereof their mother daintily hath fed, Eating the flesh that she herself hath bred. 'Tis true, 'tis true: witness my knife's sharp point.
Here Titus inflicts cannibalism on the object of his revenge.
Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984.
I can throw in another category of cannibalism: the involuntary sort, such as occurs in Shakespeare's Titus Anndronicus.
TITUS. Why, there they are, both baked in this pie, Whereof their mother daintily hath fed, Eating the flesh that she herself hath bred. 'Tis true, 'tis true: witness my knife's sharp point.
Here Titus inflicts cannibalism on the object of his revenge.
Dogs are cannibals when they eat dogs, not when they eat people.
I know what you mean, but a cow that eats flesh, however is still similar to a cow, but can not be called a cow,
You just called it one.
of course in some tragic events like the famine, there were people who had to eat other people but we don't call them cannibals, about Azhidahak we see he had really a body of a human but if he didn't eat the humans, in spite of the fact that there were many things that he, like the humans, could eat, then he would have to eat his own body, it shows he was not a human in essence or better to say he was originally a human who was changed to a cannibal.
The definition of a cannibal is a member of a species who/which eats other members of the same species, or parts of them.
Follow the logic of 'a cow that eats flesh (of a cow) cannot be a cow' and cannibalism would then never exist.
I am talking about changing, a cannibal is a noun, not an adjective, that is not a cannibal-man, when we say dew-worm, silk-worm, bag-worm, ... it is clear that we are talking about worms but this is different when we say butterfly, however that is originally a worm too.
Dew-worms are worms, and they stay worms. Bagworms and silkworms aren't worms, they are caterpillars, members of species that change form in their lifetime, just as a fertilised human ovum becomes a foetus, a foetus becomes a baby and a baby becomes an adult, though the change of form in the last process isn't as drastic in a mammal.
Simple rule: caterpillars have legs; worms don't.
And butterflies aren't ever worms either. They're butterflies as larvae, just as bagworms and silkworms are the larvae of moths.
When an animal eats its own species it doesn't even change shape, let alone change species.
Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984.
Dogs are cannibals when they eat dogs, not when they eat people.
I know what you mean, but a cow that eats flesh, however is still similar to a cow, but can not be called a cow,
You just called it one.
of course in some tragic events like the famine, there were people who had to eat other people but we don't call them cannibals, about Azhidahak we see he had really a body of a human but if he didn't eat the humans, in spite of the fact that there were many things that he, like the humans, could eat, then he would have to eat his own body, it shows he was not a human in essence or better to say he was originally a human who was changed to a cannibal.
The definition of a cannibal is a member of a species who/which eats other members of the same species, or parts of them.
Follow the logic of 'a cow that eats flesh (of a cow) cannot be a cow' and cannibalism would then never exist.
I am talking about changing, a cannibal is a noun, not an adjective, that is not a cannibal-man, when we say dew-worm, silk-worm, bag-worm, ... it is clear that we are talking about worms but this is different when we say butterfly, however that is originally a worm too.
Cyrus, a cannibal is defined as:
Originally posted by Merriam-Webster
one that eats the flesh of its own kind
As you can see a cannibal is still a member of the species. So if a person eats the flesh of another person that person is still human. Great white sharks, snakes, and other animals eat members of their own species, that doesn't make them no longer sharks, snakes, et al. There is no change that takes place, a shark is a shark no matter what it eats, just like a human is a human no matter what he eats. There is no change, the fact of the matter is that the noun cannibal is just a categorization of an actor and that actor's behavior. If the actor is a human and is described as a cannibal, he by definition has to be a human; there is no change that occurs, there is only a change in behavior that behavior doesn't make a cannibal no longer human (or a member of a given species).
A person who just eats the flesh of another person is not called a cannibal, we don't call people who had to do it in the famine period and other tragic events, cannibals, do we? Cannibals especially in the Indo-European cultures have also other characteristics, they couldn't be good persons, is it even possible that someone who kills another person to eats his flesh, is considered as a good person? A cannibal was not only a man-eater but also a cruel, tyrant, destroyer, ... so he couldn't be a regular human being.
A person who just eats the flesh of another person is not called a cannibal, we don't call people who had to do it in the famine period and other tragic events, cannibals, do we?
Actually yes we do say they were cannibals. More rightly we say they reverted to cannibalism to survive; meaning that we qualify the cannibalism with the situation. A person who just eats the flesh of another person is by definition a cannibal and is called such. Could you provide an instance where a person, who because of a tragic turn of events, eats the flesh of another person and is not referred to as either resorting to cannibalism or being a cannibal?
Cannibals especially in the Indo-European cultures have also other characteristics, they couldn't be good persons, is it even possible that someone who kills another person to eats his flesh, is considered as a good person?
I can give you instances, such as the Donner party, where people resorted to cannibalism and were still good people. So yes a cannibal can be considered a good person.
A cannibal was not only a man-eater but also a cruel, tyrant, destroyer, ... so he couldn't be a regular human being.
He most certainly could be a regular human being. Being a bad, cruel person doesn't mean that the person is no longer a person. Even if he wasn't a "regular human being" he was still a human being otherwise he couldn't be a cannibal. How is this hard to understand? Again, I draw your attention to the Mermedonians of the poem Andreas, they are described as inhabitants of the land where men eat each other. The cannibalism of this population is not confined to the aristocratic parts of the population but is a characteristic of the whole population. As you can see they are described as men with the qualification that they practice cannibalism. While their behavior might not be very "human" from the point of view of the Anglo-Saxon audience, that doesn't make them not human. Their practicing of cannibalism makes them a population to be feared and makes the work of Saint Andrew that much more heroic. It also defines the Mermedonians as a population apart from the rest of the Christian world, the "Other" if you will.
By the way let's also not forget the ritual cannibalism that takes place in certain Christian rights like eating the host and drinking the sacred wine. In this part of the Catholic service the priest says that the host represents the body of Christ and the wine the blood. How can one partake in this right and be a bad person? This is not a perfect analogy.
I just want to point out that being a cannibal requires one to be a member of the species which you eat. If a man eats another then that man is a cannibal, end of story. Being described as cruel, a tyrant, or destroyer does not make a person no longer human; if so than many rulers of the modern world and the pre-modern world would no longer be human. Keep in mind that these same rulers were not called cannibals. These terms are not mutually exclusive with cannibalism. The terms you use to describe cannibals are terms of perspective, if the enemy writes about a ruler and labels him cruel, a tyrant, or a destroyer, that doesn't mean that he actually was since there is certainly going to be a population that thinks his actions were neither cruel, tyrannical, or destructive.
I don't know you want to discuss about cannibal just as a word which means a person who eats the flesh of other human beings or a mythical creature in the Old English and other texts, do you think Grendel reverted to cannibalism to survive? There are certainly some differences between forced or optional behaviors, don't you think so?
I don't know you want to discuss about cannibal just as a word which means a person who eats the flesh of other human beings or a mythical creature in the Old English and other texts, do you think Grendel reverted to cannibalism to survive? There are certainly some differences between forced or optional behaviors, don't you think so?
The goal of this thread is to discuss cannibalism not only in Beowulf but also other texts. I do not think that the Grendels resorted to cannibalism to survive, I think their cannibalism serves a function in the story, however, their cannibalism does not make them not-human as you have argued. Of course there are differences between forced and optional cannibalism, but as GCLE said it is still cannibalism whether forced or not.
*Edit: By the way, there is no mythical creature in Old English texts that is named cannibal, the word is used to describe certain actions (and not in the text). Grendel is a creature that is described in many ways, some very similar to the ways in which Beowulf himself is described. These descriptions, however, differ in one way, Grendel is described as devouring the flesh of men; a description that is never used for Beowulf. I'm interested in discussing cannibalism in literature, however, saying that a cannibal is no longer human (as you have said) flies in the face of the definition. The point in defining the word was to show you that even though cannibalism carries certain traits in literature, it doesn't mean that a person exhibiting those traits is no longer human.
I don't know you want to discuss about cannibal just as a word which means a person who eats the flesh of other human beings or a mythical creature in the Old English and other texts, do you think Grendel reverted to cannibalism to survive? There are certainly some differences between forced or optional behaviors, don't you think so?
It is described in Beowulf how Grendel cannibalises the people who sleep in the hall because he hates them they disturb his peace.
"Then the powerful Demon who abode in darkness could hardly for a while endure to hear every day the mirth, loud in the hall;"
It is allso stated that people who left the hall to sleep were safe.
"Then was it easy to find a man who sought rest for himself elsewhere....... He who afterwards kept himself farther and safer was the one who escaped the fiend!"
He does not cannibalise to feed a physical hunger, his attention is entirely focused on the hall, so is his mothers in her revenge.
The hall is the center of the Kings power, I guess Grendels attack on this building must be symbolic in some way.
In part of the legend of St Christopher he is a cynocephalic monster. But Christianity presented another kind of cannibalism: this is Galahad's vision at the climax of the Quest (in Malory):
And at the lifting up there came a figure in likeness of a child, and the visage was as red and as bright as any fire, and smote himself into the bread, so that they all saw it that thebread was formed of a fleshly man; and then he put it into the Holy Vessel again, and then he did that longed to a priest to do to a mass.
I certainly can not take some of this information a Literally" as most of you, that is that these people actually ate "human" flesh!
In the above quoted post, what we really see is an "outsiders" view of the Christian "Holy Communion!", IE, the "literal" transformation of "bread" into the flesh of Christ! Many religious groups do believe that the bread is transformed into "flesh", IE, the human flesh worn by God, in the form of Jeusus, etc. Certainly another group which did not, either practice this service, or another group which did not believe a "literal" transformance took place but it was rather a "symbolic" one! IE, Wine only stands in the place of the "Blood of Christ" and "bread" only stands in the place of the "flesh of Christ", etc.
Or the entire thing might even have been a representation of "oral sex?", practiced by certain religious groups? LIterally "eating" or placing within one's mouth the "body" or penis of another! One only needs to undertand that many "experts" consider the "laying of one's hand upon the "thigh" of another, really meant "holding their genitals!"
Ron Hughes
Thomas Carlyle:
"History, a distillation of rumour."
The Song of Solomon in the Hebrew Bible contains many sexual references. These sexual references, however, are always made against a theological back ground and used to express theological ideas. In the case of the Song of Solomon, the sexual references between a man and a woman are used to depict the love of God for his people and the union of God with his people.
Although I am not entirely familiar with the Beowulf saga, I do not see any theological references to Grendel being a cannibal. Instead, Grendel is simply a "bad guy" who is the enemy of civilization. The best way for the author(s) to really emphasize how totally bad Grendel is to declare him a cannibal. In a modern saga, Grendle would probably be depicted as a child murderer or molester.
Regarding the previous posts; Concerning especially this quote; "And at the lifting up there came a figure in likeness of a child, and the visage was as red and as bright as any fire, and smote himself into the bread, so that they all saw it that thebread was formed of a fleshly man.."
It appears that the above is a description of making "bread" into human shape, and you cannot really disagree that the Christian Sacrament concerning "bread = flesh", and "Wine = blood", are incorrectly stated (although numerous scholars have argued for years concerning the "actual transformation itself!)
I parts of this world, and especially in parts of Italy and Sicily, people have for years manufactured bread (and other edible items I suppose) into the shape of both "babies" and human reproductive organs (IE, the penis, etc.) And while in more modern times the examples of these representations has of course shrunk considerably, they still exist as do religious festivals where statues of erect penis' are paraded around, or placed in fixed places. There is even an element of this practice found in both India (I believe) and even in Japan!
Famous wines both mixed and straight have also been named for their "blood-like properties", such as "Sangria"!
Now, imagine you were an on-looker to a procession where edible peni? were eaten as though they were real flesh, and wine inbibed as though it was real blood? Would you not easily imply, at least via writing, that these people practiced a form of canabalism? Note eventhough everything uses "fake" forms the real manifestation takes place through the faith of the believers, and the proscriptions of their spiritual leaders!
That is, indeed, the only point I intended to make, and there is really no reason that past authors have written such things because the actual events came to them via word or mouth, and rumor!
Regards,
Ron Hughes
Thomas Carlyle:
"History, a distillation of rumour."
I parts of this world, and especially in parts of Italy and Sicily, people have for years manufactured bread (and other edible items I suppose) into the shape of both "babies" and human reproductive organs (IE, the penis, etc.) And while in more modern times the examples of these representations has of course shrunk considerably, they still exist as do religious festivals where statues of erect penis' are paraded around, or placed in fixed places. There is even an element of this practice found in both India (I believe) and even in Japan!
I see your point, and I agree. Though the penis folk symbols in Europe are no longer religous symbols, but rather cultural symbols from pre christian Europe. As a side note, some villages in Greece have a festival where villagers are encouraged to drink Osso (very potent) from ceramic pots shaped like a penis. The Greek Orthodox church tolerates, but does not endorse the custom. Penis symbolism is also very popular in Bhutan.
Originally posted by opuslola
That is, indeed, the only point I intended to make, and there is really no reason that past authors have written such things because the actual events came to them via word or mouth, and rumor!
Was the writer of Beowulf a Christian, or was he pagan? IT would be interesting to explore if the writer was a Christian and mis representing either accidently, or perhaps purposely a pagan ritual, or if he was a pagan and mis representing the Christian communion concept / ritual. Not only can I see accidental misrepresentation, but implying that the villian practices a hideous ritual purportedly associated with a rival religion is also a subtle way to detract from that religion.
Methinks that you may well be wrong about sexual symbols not being approved by the Church? Indeed numerous cathredrals have been found with sexual symbols carved indeed in stone (IE, female buttocks, etc.)! And, since having parts of saints, etc. was so important to these churches, even bits of Christ's hair, skin, and even his fore-skin (prepuce)were claimed by numerous churches! There also exists no reason to also believe stone representations of the penis might well have also existed? Only most all of these representations were later destroyed during one of the numerous revivals or spiritual awakenings, or even "puritanism" crept into the church itself!
Ron Hughes
Thomas Carlyle:
"History, a distillation of rumour."
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