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What contributed to the rise of Slavery?

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  Quote demon Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: What contributed to the rise of Slavery?
    Posted: 22-Aug-2004 at 10:50
Any ideas?
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  Quote fastspawn Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Aug-2004 at 11:03
What slavery?

Slavery of conquered Peoples?
Slavery of Africans?
Wage Slavery?
Slavery of native Americans?

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  Quote demon Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Aug-2004 at 11:46

Any type of slavery.

Like we see that every ancient civ had slaves...i was wondering why



Edited by demon
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  Quote Styrbiorn Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Aug-2004 at 11:52

Election Speech of chief Buffago Ug, 6000 BC:

"Either we spend all time working on the fields till we cannot stand, or force the weaklings in the neighbouring village to it for us so and we can play with the women all day long. And when we're at it, we can take their women too."



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  Quote Cornellia Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Aug-2004 at 12:06
I think Styrbiorn pretty much answered that question.  LOL
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  Quote Genghis Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Aug-2004 at 12:34
I think slavery has basically arisen whenever there have been more resources and potential profit than could be exploited by any means other than coercion.
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  Quote cattus Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Aug-2004 at 16:42

with Styrbiorn here

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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Aug-2004 at 18:52
Likewise.
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  Quote Jalisco Lancer Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Aug-2004 at 20:41

Originally posted by fastspawn

What slavery?

Slavery of conquered Peoples?
Slavery of Africans?
Wage Slavery?
Slavery of native Americans?

  Hi Fastspawn:

  In theory, the native americans under the jurisdiction of the King of Spain werent slaves. The reality was another. Only the africans imported into America were considered slaves.

  The native americans were managed by Encomiendas.

  The Encomendero received from the King of Spain the power over a certain number of individuals and land. The Encomendero had the obligation to " christianize " to the natives under his protectorade. In exchange, they were obligated to owrk for his Lord ( protected also of the Inquisition ). Natives could not be judged by the Inquisition, due the Vatican consider them as naive as childs.

   Regards

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  Quote Rebelsoul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Aug-2004 at 07:17

Stybiorn gave a most excellent reply

If you need more elaborate views though, here goes:

Slavery was "born" in the same time the first advanced agricultural societies (read: societies large enough to lead to work specialization and class division) emerged - that would be the late and in some occassions early neolithical societies.

The explaination seems rather simple: the output of the early fields was small and couldn't feed large populations, and certainly a given field that was cultivated and harvested by a (let's say) family couldn't provide one with more than just the means for this family to survive, and maybe a very little surplus.

In order to create greater surplus (thus ammass "wealth" to better the societal and living standards of the family, by allowing them to employ the services of specialized laborers of the society and by giving them the means to trade for better food etc.) one had to cultivate more land. But that wasn't possible with the limited manpower the family had. So, an easy and accessible source of workforce was the tribe next door. Free labor, free land, free women... needless to say more.

It also provided an alternative to killing the captured members (during raids or in any other circumstance) of that next tribe.

 



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  Quote Jalisco Lancer Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Aug-2004 at 12:12

 

Slavery on the Aztec Empire.

Slaves (distinct from war captives) also constituted an important class. This slavery was very different from what Europeans of the same period were to establish in their colonies, although it had more in common with the slaves of classical antiquity. (Sahagun doubts the appropriateness even of the term "slavery" for this Aztec institution.) First, slavery was personal, not hereditary: a slave's children were free. A slave could have possessions and even own other slaves. A slave could buy his/her liberty. Any slave could be set free if he or she could show he/she was mistreated, or if he/she had children or married with his/her master.

Typically, upon the death of the master, slaves who had performed outstanding services were freed. The rest of the slaves were passed on as part of an inheritance.

Another rather remarkable method for a slave to recover liberty was described by Manuel Orozco y Berra in La civilizacion Azteca (1860): if, at the Tianquiztli (marketplace), a slave could escape the vigilance of his or her master, run outside the walls of the market and step on a piece of human excrement, he could then present his case to the judges, who would free him. He or she would then be washed, provided with new clothes (so that he or she would not be wearing clothes belonging to the master), and declared free. Because, in stark contrast to the European colonies, a person could be declared a slave if he or she attempted to prevent the escape of a slave (unless that person were a relative of the master), others would not typically help the master in preventing the slave's escape.

Orozco y Berra also reports that a master could not sell a slave without the slave's consent, unless the slave had been clasified as incorrigible by an authority. (Incorrigibility could be determined on the basis of repeated laziness, attempts to run away, or general bad conduct.) Incorrigible slaves were made to wear a wooden collar, affixed by rings at the back. The collar was not merely a symbol of bad conduct: it was designed to made it harder to run away through a crowd or through narrow spaces.

When buying a collared slave, one was informed of how many times that slave had been sold. A slave who was sold four times as incorrigible could be sold to be sacrificed; those slaves commanded a premium in price.

However, if a collared slave could manage to present him- or herself in the roayl palace or in a temple, he or she would regain liberty.

An Aztec could became slave as a punishment. A murderer sentenced to death could instead, upon the request of the wife of his victim, be given to her as a slave. A father could sell his son into slavery if the son was declared incorrigible by an authority. Those who did not pay their debts could also be sold as slaves.

People could sell themselves as slaves. They could stay free long enough to enjoy the price of their liberty, about twenty blankets, usually enough for a year; after that time they went to their new master. Usually this was the destiny of the gamblers and of the old ahuini (courtesan/prostitute).

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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Apr-2008 at 03:14
Originally posted by Jalisco Lancer

Hi Fastspawn:

  In theory, the native americans under the jurisdiction of the King of Spain werent slaves. The reality was another. Only the africans imported into America were considered slaves.

  The native americans were managed by Encomiendas.

  The Encomendero received from the King of Spain the power over a certain number of individuals and land. The Encomendero had the obligation to " christianize " to the natives under his protectorade. In exchange, they were obligated to owrk for his Lord ( protected also of the Inquisition ). Natives could not be judged by the Inquisition, due the Vatican consider them as naive as childs.

   Regards

 
That's true
 
Natives were exploited in the Spanish Empire under the regime of the mita, or labour tax, and basically the Native was a serv rather than a slave. Indians had rights under the crown and encomenderos could lost his Indians if behaved too badly, as happened with many. The Indian was free but, with the exception of some few chiefs that allied with the Spaniards and married theirs daughter with them, the largest masses of Indians become the poor proletarian peoples.
 
Africans, on the other hand, had no rights. They weren't even considered human beings, and there are many cases of recurrent torture agains them. Even more, Africans were introduced to the Caribbean to aliviate the work on Indians, and unlike Indians, the crown wasn't concern about Africans at all.
 
 


Edited by pinguin - 29-Apr-2008 at 03:15
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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Apr-2008 at 04:40
I don't have much to offer to this discussion, bt I'll give it a go. As I recall, slavery dates back almost to the dawn of civilization, though it has manifested itself differently in every society in which it has occurred. The ancient Sumerians differentiated between debt-slaves and chattel slaves (the former being citizens who had fallen into debt, the latter being captives taken in war). The Romans took slaves from all of the people they conquered, and their entire economy/society was so dependent upon them that a slave revolt in Sicily caused a huge food shortage in Rome until it was suppressed by... was it Lucullus? And of course we all know about Spartacus. Recently in the west, slavery was racially based, and this is the image we most often associate with slavery. Hope I have contributed something, though I'm sure you can all do better. Smile
 
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  Quote Cryptic Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Apr-2008 at 04:59
Originally posted by demon

Any ideas?
Originally posted by Akolouthos

The Romans took slaves from all of the people they conquered, and their entire economy/society was so dependent upon them that...
 
I like Akolouthos's point on the large scale Roman slave sytem.  Roman economic slavery seemed to be based on the following "ingredients"....
-An advanced economy creates a demand for a variety of slave produced goods. 
-Technology is advanced, but non mechanized therefore large scale agriculture is heavily dependent on human labor (potential "need" for slaves) 
- A comprehensive transportation system allows slave produced goods to be easily sold, shipped and consumed in mass quantities.  An evolving finance sytem allows for the profits to be brought back home and re-invested.  
 
Then, the Dark Ages occur and and many of the "ingredients" disappear. The next time that the ingredients are present in Europe is in the 1600s.  But...slavery in no longer socially viable in Europe. So, the Europeans take the "ingredients" to the Carribean and the Americas. 1,400 years later, Roman style slavery is back in style and sadly, business is booming. 
 
Originally posted by fastspawn


Wage Slavery?
I'd say the ingredients above except that mechanization eliminates the need for slaves in agriculture. But... industrialization creates the need for large quantities of unskilled labor. "True Slavery" is no longer acceptable in the industralized nations so factory owners create the "wage slave", a class of exploitable industrial laborers and miners. Some Wage slaves also work in agriculture in the form of legally free but exploitable share croppers etc. .
 


Edited by Cryptic - 29-Apr-2008 at 05:12
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  Quote Styrbiorn Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Apr-2008 at 09:36
Urg, talk about necromancy.
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Apr-2008 at 10:04
Aristotle's justification of slavery in the Politics is relevant:
 
(Italicised comments are mine.)


Edited by gcle2003 - 29-Apr-2008 at 10:06
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  Quote Goban Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Apr-2008 at 14:46
Originally posted by Jalisco Lancer

Originally posted by fastspawn

What slavery?

Slavery of conquered Peoples?
Slavery of Africans?
Wage Slavery?
Slavery of native Americans?

  Hi Fastspawn:

  In theory, the native Americans under the jurisdiction of the King of Spain werent slaves. The reality was another. Only the africans imported into America were considered slaves.

  The native americans were managed by Encomiendas.

  The Encomendero received from the King of Spain the power over a certain number of individuals and land. The Encomendero had the obligation to " christianize " to the natives under his protectorade. In exchange, they were obligated to owrk for his Lord ( protected also of the Inquisition ). Natives could not be judged by the Inquisition, due the Vatican consider them as naive as childs.

   Regards

 
They certainly were slaves under the American occupation. Sold on the stock block before african slave trade reached us and along side afterward for quite some time (even after African slaves were "freed" ). In California, things were worse... One could argue slavery under the Spanish mission system... But the Californios' argument would be even weaker (both really sound like slavery to me), but the American period... There's no denying it...


Edited by Goban - 29-Apr-2008 at 14:47
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Apr-2008 at 20:11
Originally posted by Goban

... 
They certainly were slaves under the American occupation. Sold on the stock block before african slave trade reached us and along side afterward for quite some time (even after African slaves were "freed" ). In California, things were worse... One could argue slavery under the Spanish mission system... But the Californios' argument would be even weaker (both really sound like slavery to me), but the American period... There's no denying it...


The way Amerindian were deal in the Spanish Empire was very different from the way Brits and Americans. That's easily to see comparing the rate of survival of Amerindians in the U.S.A. with respect to Hispanic America.

After the disaster of the Caribbean the Spanish crown got very concerned about the treatment and the survival of Natives, and they enforced laws that aliviated a bit the hard conditions Indians lived. You can compare the attitudes in contemporary events. For instance, at the same time the colones were given blankets with smallpox to Natives in North America, Spaniards were vaccinating them...

On the other hand, Spaniards considered Natives above Africans because they were the original inhabitants of the Americas, while Brits and Americans considered all non-Whites to be the same.


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  Quote DesertHistorian Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-May-2008 at 02:51
In the United States it would be the invention of the Cotton Gin in 1793. Otherwise slavery would have died out within a couple of decades as slavery was no longer economically feasible, and the American Civil War never would have been fought.
 
 
Originally posted by demon

Any ideas?
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  Quote Efraz Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-May-2008 at 16:53
I think slavery is a more natural state for power holders. Real question should be "why and how did the slavery end?" or "did it really end?"

History of slavery is much more longer than the history without it (if there is any such)


Edited by Efraz - 27-May-2008 at 16:54
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