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An exploration of "Race" in ancient Egypt

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    Posted: 25-Jan-2009 at 23:06
Originally posted by Sundiata

  I don't even accept the concept of race at all.

Then why discuss this antiquated and un-academic concept under the guise of Academia? If so then there would be no reason at all for this topic. This is more of a let us claim these people for ourselves instead of letting them be shared by "everyone." Which, is as ludicrous as some nut in the middle of Norther Europe trying to claim that the Egyptians were the aryian"est" of the aryians. Same fallacious undermining of real history, just one done out of a political agenda, and the other done under the auspicies of getting back at them, but still not sucumbing to become a political agenda. Egypt had influences from all, but to claim African = Black is rather ignorant. Skin tone was the last thing important to Egyptians first of all.


Edited by es_bih - 25-Jan-2009 at 23:06
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  Quote Sundiata Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2009 at 23:09
Originally posted by es_bih


We did a long study on Herodotus and a seminar, in which we concluded the same. That he was well read in everything that was available to him at the time, but that he did not travel as much as he claimed (not even half as much).
Originally posted by es_bih

Originally posted by Akolouthos

Unhappy
 
I clicked on this thread because it sounded interesting. I was -- perhaps a bit too optimistically -- expecting an essay on the role race played in social hierarchy, culture, etc. It's sad to be disappointed.
 
Oh, and Sundiata: I'm as fond of Herodotus as the next guy, but I feel obligated to provide an example to illustrate the caution we should us when citing him. The following passage is from the second book of his history:
 
[Hippopotamuses]* are sacred in the province of Papremis, but not elsewhere in Egypt. For their outward form, they are four-footed, with cloven hoofs like oxen; their noses are blunt; they are maned like horses, with tusks showing, and have a horse's tail and a horse's neigh. [Herodotus 2.71]
 
We call him the "father of history" because he makes an attempt at scientific historical inquiry, not because he always succeeds. You will see a disclaimer several chapters later that he doesn't quite believe everything he has heard about the phoenix, but a similar disclaimer is absent in his account of the hippo, which demonstrates rather convincingly that he never actually saw one himself.
 
The reason I brought this up is because my chief problem with the Afrocentrist movement is their seeming inability to deal with sources in their proper context. In their revisionistic zeal, they seize anything that could possibly serve their ideology, twist it into their preferred context, and cry conspiracy when they are accused, quite justly, of abandoning the proper historical method. Food for thought.
 
-Akolouthos
 
*Hippopotamus simply means "river horse", which is the term used in the translation that I have provided.

We did a long study on Herodotus and a seminar, in which we concluded the same. That he was well read in everything that was available to him at the time, but that he did not travel as much as he claimed (not even half as much).
I read an article not long ago bringing up the same questions and questioning whether or not he ever went to Colchis for example. I agree with the sentiment, but that doesn't mitigate the fact the he DID travel to Egypt and knew what the Egyptians looked like. In addition, Herodotus isn't the only one cited so questioning or defending his credibility in isolation of the other sources seems to not accomplish much.
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  Quote Sundiata Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2009 at 23:15
Originally posted by es_bih

Originally posted by Sundiata

  I don't even accept the concept of race at all.

Then why discuss this antiquated and un-academic concept under the guise of Academia? If so then there would be no reason at all for this topic. This is more of a let us claim these people for ourselves instead of letting them be shared by "everyone." Which, is as ludicrous as some nut in the middle of Norther Europe trying to claim that the Egyptians were the aryian"est" of the aryians. Same fallacious undermining of real history, just one done out of a political agenda, and the other done under the auspicies of getting back at them, but still not sucumbing to become a political agenda. Egypt had influences from all, but to claim African = Black is rather ignorant. Skin tone was the last thing important to Egyptians first of all.
Look back to where I quoted S.O.Y after explicitly stating that that was my position. African=African. African doesn't = European, Asian, or American. It simply means that the said people are indigenous to the continent in a bio-geographic and cultural sense. Whether they are dark or light, biology ignores skin color as 73% of Africans share genetic lineages (including Egyptians) via the PN2 transition, while Europeans and Asians are exclusive in this regard (not as closely related).

Previously posted by me:

But believe me, I do agree with you. I'm of the position of S.O.Y. Keita, who wrote:

"The process of seeking a new terminology to describe the biological relations of the ancient Egyptians will require that 'the terms "Negro" and "Black African" be dropped from the biological lexicon in favor of "Saharo-tropical variant" which subsumes the range of morphologies of great time depth found in Africa'. No serious arguments can be made to the position that Egypt was a 'Nilotic-African' culture 'on all levels'."



Edited by Sundiata - 25-Jan-2009 at 23:18
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2009 at 23:18
Bio-Geographic, you understand that the country is located at a cross roads right? Or am I missing something. 
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  Quote Sundiata Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2009 at 23:33
^^You're missing the fact that "crossroads" has no scientific meaning, while the typologically coherent landmass of Africa, separated tectonically from Asia does. You're also missing the fact that the Egyptians have an origin more deeply rooted than the modern day geographic boundary of Egypt. They spoke a language and practiced a culture that was shared by Africans south of the tropic of cancer and archaeological items have been discovered in succession leading from south to north. In other words again, the Egyptians were Africans before they were Egyptians and this condition didn't change all of a sudden when they formed their own political identity. Origins don't change. How this information translates to us and its implications, is subject to our own interpretation, though how people interpret facts aren't as important as having the facts at your disposal.


Edited by Sundiata - 26-Jan-2009 at 00:40
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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2009 at 23:38
Originally posted by es_bih

We did a long study on Herodotus and a seminar, in which we concluded the same. That he was well read in everything that was available to him at the time, but that he did not travel as much as he claimed (not even half as much).
 
Aye. It's kind of amusing, actually. Still a wonderful read though. Smile
 
Originally posted by Sundiata

I hear you but one isolated example of what is clearly hyperbole from Herodotus does nothing to obscure the said context, whether this was presented by an Afrocentrist, Eurocentrist, or otherwise (the labels are getting old btw). People from Aristotle to Al-Jahiz were cited, in context. To convey about why the Nile doesn't come from the downslope of melting snow, Herodotus made the practical observation that this is impossible since the Egyptians were Black from the heat. This is context in its purest form as the skin color of the Egyptians was not his main point of emphasis, as he only used this observation to support another point. This is exactly why he is admired due to his keen observations and logical conclusions.
 
He is admired for his attempt. We generally look to Thucydides for the first hint of a realization of the fruits of Herodotus' proposed methods. And if you are familiar with Herodotus, this is far from the only example of hyperbole. LOL As I said, I am quite fond of Herodotus, but we need to be aware of what we're dealing with if we wish to gain anything through studying history. I was citing the use of Herodotus by certain revisionist scholars as an example of a methodological flaw that tends to recur throughout Afrocentrist work dealing with the ancient world. Which brings us to the next point...
 
Originally posted by Sundiata

To discount everything presented by irresponsibly calling anyone with such positions an "Afrocentric" is a logical fallacy and the height of hypocrisy. Obviously those who resort to such have agendas and pre-conceived notions themselves. They are not critical.
 
Pardon me, but I'm actually rather surprised that someone defending Herodotus as a reliable source of ancient Egyptian history is questioning anyone's ability to be critical. Sorry; couldn't resist. LOL 
 
Seriously though, I'm not dismissing anyone out of hand, although many do make it tempting. I am simply offering a critique of their methodology. If they cannot respond, then I shall be dismissive. Wink
 
-Akolouthos
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  Quote Sundiata Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2009 at 23:48
Hey Akolouthos..

^^ I get you, though I'm not sure I was defending Herodotus' account of ancient Egyptian history. In fact, before you posted this I specifically wrote:

Herodotus isn't the only one cited so questioning or defending his credibility in isolation of the other sources seems to not accomplish much.

I've "defended" ONE statement in reference to ONE observation that he made in a particular context as I see no reason to object. Again, it is fallacious to disregard everything the man says devoid of examination on a case by case basis as he's been right as much as he's been wrong and I'm obviously aware of the father of lies vs. father of history dichotomy. Just doesn't mitigate the context of that isolated observation or the sources that supported that observation. I'd really rather not focus exclusively on Herodotus though, it seems like a distraction as it is one extraordinarily small portion of what was covered.


Edited by Sundiata - 25-Jan-2009 at 23:51
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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2009 at 23:57
Originally posted by Sundiata

Hey Akolouthos..

^^ I get you, though I'm not sure I was defending Herdotus's account of ancient Egyptian history. In fact, before you posted this I specifically wrote:

Herodotus isn't the only one cited so questioning or defending his credibility in isolation of the other sources seems to not accomplish much.

I've "defended" ONE statement in reference to ONE observation that he made in a particular context. Again, it is fallacious to disregard everything the man says devoid of examination on a case by case basis as he's been right as much as he's been wrong and I'm obviously aware of the father of lies vs. father of history dichotomy. Just doesn't mitigate the context of that isolated observation or the sources that supported that observation.
 
I understand, Sun. And I certainly don't view Herodotus as the father of lies; I prefer to think of him as someone who tried to do the best he could from a library, and who was given to occasional flights of fancy. Without him, ours would be a sad and sorry discipline, indeed, and who would Marco Polo have had as inspiration? LOL
 
I'm not trying to dispute anyone's findings. I am stating what I would require before I viewed an individuals findings as worthy of being disputed at all. I was pointing out a methodological flaw that exists in much -- though, significantly, not all -- revisionist history, of which African Studies represents a sub-discipline. Never fear; these scholars will still be able to publish things without my approval -- I'm not a journal editor, after all. Wink Just don't expect me to take them seriously until they can explain to me why they use primaries as selectively as they do, and how they justify the infusion of modern political/racial bias -- the same thing that they accuse others of -- in their own work.
 
-Akolouthos
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  Quote Omar al Hashim Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jan-2009 at 00:06
Originally posted by Sundiata

This is why it's necessary for me to create threads like this since you don't know what you're talking about. "Egypt" isn't a word in the "ancient Egyptian" language, it is a Greek word (Aegyptos) meaning "the two lands". Egyptians referred to themselves as R'mt as you indicated which means "the people" and k'mt is in reference to their nation which translates to "the Black nation", an allusion many scholars think referring to the Black silt of the Nile. It is identified in Hieroglyphs with a peice of burned wood. R'mt Km't literally means "people of the Black nation".. There is no "Egyptian" sound or reference in the ancient African language spoken at that time in the lower Nile valley. WOW.

'Aegyptus' is actually derived from the Egyptian ancestor of the word 'Copt'. So it is an Egyptian word. "Km't" has similar syllables so it may indeed be the ancestor.

I'm not sure about your translation.
convey about why the Nile doesn't come from the downslope of melting snow, Herodotus made the practical observation that this is impossible since the Egyptians were Black from the heat. This is context in its purest form as the skin color of the Egyptians was not his main point of emphasis, as he only used this observation to support another point.

People call Nasser Hussain black. I'd call him white. Similarly Halle Berry is considered black, in clear defiance of her skin colour.
Colour is all a matter of perspective. All we can say is that Egyptians were darker than Greeks. Still are.
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  Quote Sundiata Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jan-2009 at 00:32
Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

Originally posted by Sundiata

This is why it's necessary for me to create threads like this since you don't know what you're talking about. "Egypt" isn't a word in the "ancient Egyptian" language, it is a Greek word (Aegyptos) meaning "the two lands". Egyptians referred to themselves as R'mt as you indicated which means "the people" and k'mt is in reference to their nation which translates to "the Black nation", an allusion many scholars think referring to the Black silt of the Nile. It is identified in Hieroglyphs with a peice of burned wood. R'mt Km't literally means "people of the Black nation".. There is no "Egyptian" sound or reference in the ancient African language spoken at that time in the lower Nile valley. WOW.

'Aegyptus' is actually derived from the Egyptian ancestor of the word 'Copt'. So it is an Egyptian word. "Km't" has similar syllables so it may indeed be the ancestor.

I'm not sure about your translation.
convey about why the Nile doesn't come from the downslope of melting snow, Herodotus made the practical observation that this is impossible since the Egyptians were Black from the heat. This is context in its purest form as the skin color of the Egyptians was not his main point of emphasis, as he only used this observation to support another point.

People call Nasser Hussain black. I'd call him white. Similarly Halle Berry is considered black, in clear defiance of her skin colour.
Colour is all a matter of perspective. All we can say is that Egyptians were darker than Greeks. Still are.
Hey Omar. I've heard that theory before (that Egypt derives from the word Copt) but it isn't universally supported since it is commonly known that Aegyptus is nothing more than a Greek mythology, seen as the son of a river God who was a king of "the two lands", thus they named it after him in his honor according to Appollodorus, who wrote:  "Aegyptos conquered the country of the Black-footed ones and called it Egypt after himself". This is the commonly known etymology of the word as used in English, which makes sense as English is derrived from greek/latin. Also, I don't see the linguistic similarity between Aegyptus ("Egypt" is an abbreviation of this) and Km't. I do see a similarity however, between Copt and Km't..

As far as Herodotus again, relative darkness of the complexion of Halle Berry doesn't square right when you are literally using the Greek word for Black (Melas). They had words for brown, light brown, or tawny but he chose to use a word that signified a "burnt" complextion as can be caused by heat (really UV, but who's being technical). Square that with Aristotle claiming that both they and the Ethiopians had the same complexion and hair type, as well as body structure ("bandy-leggedness") seems to reveal more than relativism. This is what I was trying to explain about context and why I don''t want to spend most of my time scrutinizing what Herdotus meant which is a lot clearer once synthesized.


Edited by Sundiata - 26-Jan-2009 at 00:37
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jan-2009 at 13:40
Originally posted by Sundiata

Originally posted by edgewaters

Practicality would mean there was some pragmatic reason to indulge in such an exercise, which there is not. Ancient Egyptians can be understood as ... ancient Egyptians. There's no need to try and relate them to modern populations. Introducing modern contexts debases history.

This is ironic since you strip all practicality out of the picture while using practical terms like "ancient Egyptian" which to you has a fixed definition even though these ancient north east African people never referred to themselves as Egyptian.
Well, it would be mighty odd if they spoke English.
This is merely obsfucation via a game of semantics. If it's your point of contention that we should not apply labels to them like "Black", then I agree that they may have never referred to themselves with socio-ethnic labels that we use today (including "ancient Egyptian")
"Ancient Egyptians" is just the English phrase referring to the people who lived in what is now called Egypt under the rulers we now call Pharaohs, and gods like the one we now call Osiris. In English.
 
Just like we call the people who live in New York 'New Yorkers'. Assuming, again, we speak English.
 
but according to our standards, it is a REALITY that by definition, they fit into the framework of our socio-ethnic/geographic classification system in the sense that we have pre-defined notions of what signifies what. They were dark-skinned native Africans. To me that means Black according to today's standards as I see no biological dichotomy between them and many people whom we call "Black" in Northeast Africa today. But as to seek common ground with the literalists, I'll simply refer to them as ancient Africans.
As long as you don't use that to imply they have anyething much in common, except basic humanity, with, say, the Zulu. Which of course is the English name given to the people who live largely around what we now in English call Natal, and who were famously led by the warrior king we in English generally call Chaka.
 
And so on. Labels are for convenience. The fact that you stick a label on something doesn't necessarily tell anything about the thing being labelled.
Going back to your initial statement, I'm not sure what "exercise" you're referring to either. That was sort of a non-sequitur.

Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

Originally posted by Sundiata

No ancient population "fits well with any modern political identity", yet contextually for practicality sake, such modern identities are universally imposed on such groups.

In a history forum we shouldn't accept this popularist notion.
People identify themselves in numerous ways, even people in the same group can hardly decide where the group starts and ends. Given for example, that if a black American immigrated to Australia, he'd probably be considered white* what the genetics of ancient egyptians was is a meaningless question.

*Because they are english speaking, christian, have the same food, and 'blacks' are already aborigines.


We shouldn't accept what in a history forum? I shouldn't accept that such "modern identities are universally applied to ancient populations"? Not sure who said that I did. Matter of fact, I don't even accept the concept of race at all. I can agree with the position that ethnicity as a static entity is non-existent but such doesn't negate the realities of biogeographic ancestry as my essay outlines. If you have a group A and a group B, the latter of which we universally consider "Black", yet there is no clear biological or ethnic distinction/demarcation between group A and group B and in fact they have the same origin, critical thinkers will begin to question what the basis is for group A having special designated status of being unclassified or left alone. It is a liberal philosophy to be all inclusive. The thinking that ancient Egypt belongs to "everybody" as opposed to eastern African (from whence they originated according to their own testimony, language, and biological inference).  When these same liberals constantly and unapolegetically refer to Ethiopians, Somalis, Nubians and others as Black/African, yet refrain from such labels when confronted with the prospects of ancient Egypt, they begin to lose credibility.
So we should group the Chinese and the Arabs in the same racial basket because they live in the same continent? And, for that matter, since 'Europe' and 'Asia' are arbitrary labels simply used for linguistic convenience, Danes and Chinese should be in the same basket too?
 
The desert divides 'Africa' into two just as thoroughly as the Urals divide 'Asia' from 'Europe' or the Mediterranean divides 'Europe' from 'Asia'. In fact more so, since the Mediterranean in much of history has been a sea that unites the peoples into one culture around it rather than divides them.
But believe me, I do agree with you. I'm of the position of S.O.Y. Keita, who wrote:

"The process of seeking a new terminology to describe the biological relations of the ancient Egyptians will require that 'the terms "Negro" and "Black African" be dropped from the biological lexicon in favor of "Saharo-tropical variant" which subsumes the range of morphologies of great time depth found in Africa'. No serious arguments can be made to the position that Egypt was a 'Nilotic-African' culture 'on all levels'."
Well, of course the Nile runs through it, and we arbitrarily label the northern and southern parts of 'Africa' with the same label, so of course it was 'Nilotic-African'. But sheer geography says nothing about culture or race or ethnicity.

Though I do still at times use modern social rhetoric (as Keita does) in order to convey a point or clarify a conclusion. Doesn't mean that such terms are definitive. The fact that they were African, meaning quite literally that they were of recent (as opposed to ancient, like non-Africans) African origin is the only point being conveyed, which surprisingly is hard to swallow for some people I take from reading some of the past postings on this message board.
We would find it just as difficult to swallow if someone tried to classify all 'Asian' cultures and peoples together, just because they were/are 'Asian'.
 
I could think of a couple of other examples but they are minefield topics.
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  Quote Sundiata Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jan-2009 at 17:41
Originally posted by gcle2003

Well, it would be mighty odd if they spoke English.


And they didn't, thus my point.

"Ancient Egyptians" is just the English phrase referring to the people who lived in what is now called Egypt under the rulers we now call Pharaohs, and gods like the one we now call Osiris. In English. Just like we call the people who live in New York 'New Yorkers'. Assuming, again, we speak English.


No offense whatsoever, but what's your point?. lol.. My point being, there is no English counter part to the word that the Egyptians used to refer to their country other than its literal translation (km't-"the Black nation/settlement"). "Aegyptus is a term coined by the Greeks (and the name of a demi-God) and "Egypt" is a derivative of that in English form. These ancient Nile valley African people never referred to their country as Egypt, period. No way around that. Calling them Egyptian is as wrong as using any other modern label to describe them if we're to be technical. It infinitely regresses the more technical you get which is why sometimes you just have to be practical in assuming people know what you mean.
 
 

As long as you don't use that to imply they have anyething much in common, except basic humanity, with, say, the Zulu. Which of course is the English name given to the people who live largely around what we now in English call Natal, and who were famously led by the warrior king we in English generally call Chaka.


This is a straw since when you speak of having something in common, it's always going to be relative. I'd say they had most in common with Nubians who were contiguous, as opposed to seeking some far flung relationship with the Zulu people who reside in Southern Africa. I will say however, that this is an overstatement since what they do have in common is ancestry via the Pn2 clade. In other words, they are united by genetics, specifically the E haplogroup which is the dominant male lineage of 73% of Africans, including the Egyptians and Nubians (not to mention Egyptian ties on the female MtDNA side to Eritrea). That means that they descend from a common male ancestor who lived in Africa sometime after humans left Africa. This obviously means the ancestors of Egyptians never left Africa, while Europeans and Asians' ancestors did. Of course we can deduce from that that the Zulu had more in common with them as a consequence of shared African ancestry then Northern Nordic Europeans did.


 
And so on. Labels are for convenience. The fact that you stick a label on something doesn't necessarily tell anything about the thing being labelled.


Which is also true for a label like "ancient Egyptian". The only label I agree that has scientific meaning in a taxonomic sense is "African". Same as how you have African killer bees, African genes, etc, you have African people as this is a result of the unification of two sciences/disciplines, that of biology and geography, hence their bio-geographic ancestry was African. This can't be obscured either especially considering the fact that everyone comes from Africa, thus their relationship can fit within no other context. Others who left Africa developed unique traits exclusive to non-Africans. This is not evident with the "ancient Egyptians"..



So we should group the Chinese and the Arabs in the same racial basket because they live in the same continent? And, for that matter, since 'Europe' and 'Asia' are arbitrary labels simply used for linguistic convenience, Danes and Chinese should be in the same basket too?


Of course not since "human race" is a misnomer. It isn't a legitimate concept. Chinese and Arabs both derive from Africa. What I am pointing out is that which is African exclusive. Arabs and Chinese don't share a common genetic or cultural trait that will bind them together as coherently "Asian", not to mention that Arabs likely partially descend from ancient Indo-Europeans and Africans as well. They'd likely share more in common if the latter weren't mixed (though that's speculation). Linguistically, Danes don't speak a similar language as Chinese, though the ancient Egyptians spoke a similar language to the Beja, Somali, Ethiopians, etc.. Professor Christopher Ehret points out that their language can be traced back 10-15,000 years to the areas spanning Sudan and Somalia. Semitic was even adopted via African migrants likely coinciding with the Nautufians, who Brace confirmed were African migrants. Ehret also points out the presence of loan words from Nilo-Saharan in the ancient Egyptian language, indicative of sustained contact with their neighbors. There are however, no Semetic or European loan words.
 
The desert divides 'Africa' into two just as thoroughly as the Urals divide 'Asia' from 'Europe' or the Mediterranean divides 'Europe' from 'Asia'. In fact more so, since the Mediterranean in much of history has been a sea that unites the peoples into one culture around it rather than divides them.


This is a weak argument since there is no barrier along the Nile valley from whence Africans migrated. People like Bruce Trigger have confirmed a south-north pattern of migration. The earliest remains in Egypt which are 35,000 years old were described as "sub-Saharan". There is a problem with terminology here as the Sahara only recently turned into a desert some 5,000 years ago, just prior to Egyptian state formation. There are clearly depictions of stereotypical African people in Saharan rock art and customs identified that can be traced back to people like the Fulani. There's also desert extending all the way into Arabia so based on your own logic you're arguing that the Egyptians sprouted from the ground some 5,000 years ago. Then why were the same group of languages spoken all the way from "sub-Saharan" Somalia, even extending outside of Africa to Northern Arabia (see Ehret, 1996)? Where was the so-called "divide" and why are you parroting outdated assumptions as opposed to being critical?

Well, of course the Nile runs through it, and we arbitrarily label the northern and southern parts of 'Africa' with the same label, so of course it was 'Nilotic-African'. But sheer geography says nothing about culture or race or ethnicity.


So first Africa is divided in two parts, then you are forced to acknowledge that the Nile erases any so-called "barrier" for human migration.  We're making progress. Now we must relieve ourselves from using straw man arguments and buzz words like 'race". As for ethnicity and culture, they shared the exact same culture as the A-group people from Nubia just prior to state formation. In fact, Egypt was unified from the south and the kingdom of the A-group (ta-seti) was incorporated into the empire once Egypt was formed and it was actually considered the most southern nome of Egypt. Everything started in the south as there was affinity towards the south.

Quoting Joseph Vogel:

"The period when "sub-Saharan" Africa was most influential in Egypt was a time when neither Egypt, as we understand it culturally, nor the Sahara, as we understand it geographically, existed. Populations and cultures now found south of the desert roamed far to the north. The culture of Upper Egypt, which became dynastic Egyptian civilization, could fairly be called a Sudanese transplant. Egypt rapidly found a method of disciplining the river, the land, and the people to transform the country into a titanic garden. Egypt rapidly developed detailed cultural forms that dwarfed its forebears in urbanity and elaboration. Thus, when new details arrived, they were rapidly adapted to the vast cultural superstructure already present. ---Encyclopedia of Precolonial Africa, by Joseph O. Vogel, AltaMira Press, Walnut Creek, California (1997), pp. 465-472-


We would find it just as difficult to swallow if someone tried to classify all 'Asian' cultures and peoples together, just because they were/are 'Asian'.


I agree, which is why I didn't base it exclusively on them being African, though as stated, we all come from Africa and share African ancestry, it is just that some of us have more recent African ancestry than others. Meaning that native Africans, not being isolated or separated as long from each other as they have been from those who left and were trapped in the ice age for thousands of years, converge to form closer, more recent relationships as Africans.
 
I could think of a couple of other examples but they are minefield topics.

That's the problem. This shouldn't be a "minefield" topic. The facts are there and can't be disputed, it's just what some people either don't want to accept, are conditioned not to accept, or won't admit to, that makes a problem out of it. I genuinely don't see these questions as minefield topics. The question of race and how it should be interpreted is a question of social science, not history and biology. People have different conceptions "Black and White" depending on where you are, but I do sense the hypocrisy. Label the Nubians "Black" but don't label their closest neighbors (the Egyptians) at all. Doesn't make any sense especially when they were clearly related according to anthropological examination of early remains and culture. Putting myself above the fray, I will always however insist, that they, the Nubians, Ethiopians, Somali, and the like, were African and the same kind of "African". May be hypocritical that these groups are referred to as Black by the masses, but whatever. It's trivial. Thanx for your thoughtful reply and I appreciate that you didn't attack me personally.


Edited by Sundiata - 26-Jan-2009 at 18:01
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 28-Jan-2009 at 14:28
Originally posted by Sundiata

Originally posted by gcle2003

Well, it would be mighty odd if they spoke English.


And they didn't, thus my point.

"Ancient Egyptians" is just the English phrase referring to the people who lived in what is now called Egypt under the rulers we now call Pharaohs, and gods like the one we now call Osiris. In English. Just like we call the people who live in New York 'New Yorkers'. Assuming, again, we speak English.


No offense whatsoever, but what's your point?. lol..
I'm sorry I credited you with too much insight. My point is and was that the business about what names they called themselves is meaningless and pointless. The only relevance it might have would be if, for instance, the ancient Egyptians (English label)  labelled themselves the same was as they did all the other inhabitants of Africa they knew.
 
I don't believe - though I don't claim much expertise here - that they did. In fact I'm pretty sure they mad as much racial distinction between themselves and the peoples of the upper Nile (for instance) as they did between themselves and the inhabitants of Canaan.
 
I don't think they had any concept of 'Africa' that parallelled the modern concept whatsoever.
My point being, there is no English counter part to the word that the Egyptians used to refer to their country other than its literal translation (km't-"the Black nation/settlement").
I don't know what you mean by 'counterpart'. The name the English use for it is 'Egypt'. The etymology is irrelevant.
"Aegyptus is a term coined by the Greeks (and the name of a demi-God) and "Egypt" is a derivative of that in English form. These ancient Nile valley African people never referred to their country as Egypt, period. No way around that. Calling them Egyptian is as wrong as using any other modern label to describe them if we're to be technical.
Of course it's not wrong. We have modern labels for ancient things. If what you're saying had any validity, we would not be able to call Stone Age cave-dwellers Stone Age cave-dwellers. It's idiotic to think we can't talk about other peoples unless we know their language. There's nothing wrong with me calling the medieval French 'medieval French' though they certainly didn't call themselves either medieval or French. 
It infinitely regresses the more technical you get which is why sometimes you just have to be practical in assuming people know what you mean.
As long as you don't use that to imply they have anyething much in common, except basic humanity, with, say, the Zulu. Which of course is the English name given to the people who live largely around what we now in English call Natal, and who were famously led by the warrior king we in English generally call Chaka.


This is a straw since when you speak of having something in common, it's always going to be relative.
Not a straw man at all. I didn't attribute any particular opinion to you there. (Or are you one of the people around here who doesn't know what a 'straw man' argument is?)
 
Your remark was totally pointless, since it didn't address the remark I made at all. So I repeat, if you affix the label 'African' to the ancient Egyptians, and also to the Zulu, that means nothing except that you have used the same label for both peoples. It does not imply - and should not be held to imply - they had anything in common with each other except that you choose to label them African (and of course, at base, they're both human - which I did in fact state, thus indicating I know damn well that everybody has something in common with anyone else).
 
It's not the 'relativess' of communality that's at issue, it's the idioccy of thinking two things must have something in common because you have given them the same label - other than the reason you labelled them that way.
 
That the ancient Egyptians and the Zulu lived and live on what we happen arbitrarily to label the same continent shows mothing more than that they lived and live in the same continent. You cannot deduce any other relationship from it.
 
I'd say they had most in common with Nubians who were contiguous, as opposed to seeking some far flung relationship with the Zulu people who reside in Southern Africa. I will say however, that this is an overstatement since what they do have in common is ancestry via the Pn2 clade. In other words, they are united by genetics, specifically the E haplogroup which is the dominant male lineage of 73% of Africans, including the Egyptians and Nubians (not to mention Egyptian ties on the female MtDNA side to Eritrea).
Exactly how much dna evidence does anyone have about the ancient Egyptians?
That means that they descend from a common male ancestor who lived in Africa sometime after humans left Africa. This obviously means the ancestors of Egyptians never left Africa, while Europeans and Asians' ancestors did. Of course we can deduce from that that the Zulu had more in common with them as a consequence of shared African ancestry then Northern Nordic Europeans did.
 
And so on. Labels are for convenience. The fact that you stick a label on something doesn't necessarily tell anything about the thing being labelled.

Which is also true for a label like "ancient Egyptian".
Obviously. All it indicates is that the person labelled lived in Africa before the classical period. Did I ever claim it meant more than that? And an 'ancient Egyptian scribe' would further indicate the person could write, whereas an 'ancient Egyptian soldier' would indicate he could fight. And so on. And 'African' just means 'lived/lives in Africa'.
 
What are you trying to do here? Play the fool?
 
 The only label I agree that has scientific meaning in a taxonomic sense is "African".
"African" has no racial taxonomic meaning or relevance at all. I'm not too expert on ancient Egypt, but I do know about taxonomy.
Same as how you have African killer bees, African genes, etc, you have African people
Different. African killer bees are a species (AFAIK). 'African killer bees' is equivalent to 'humanity' not 'African people'. And 'African genes' is begging the question.
as this is a result of the unification of two sciences/disciplines, that of biology and geography, hence their bio-geographic ancestry was African. This can't be obscured either especially considering the fact that everyone comes from Africa, thus their relationship can fit within no other context. Others who left Africa developed unique traits exclusive to non-Africans. This is not evident with the "ancient Egyptians"..

So we should group the Chinese and the Arabs in the same racial basket because they live in the same continent? And, for that matter, since 'Europe' and 'Asia' are arbitrary labels simply used for linguistic convenience, Danes and Chinese should be in the same basket too?


Of course not since "human race" is a misnomer. It isn't a legitimate concept.
 
What's that got to do with anything I said? I'll give you 'human race', though it has a perfectly clear meaning as referring to the species homo sapiens sapiens, doesn't use 'race' in the normal sense, which is a subordinate group to 'species'.
 
But I didn't use it, so what are you on about?
 Chinese and Arabs both derive from Africa. What I am pointing out is that which is African exclusive. Arabs and Chinese don't share a common genetic or cultural trait that will bind them together as coherently "Asian", not to mention that Arabs likely partially descend from ancient Indo-Europeans and Africans as well. They'd likely share more in common if the latter weren't mixed (though that's speculation). Linguistically, Danes don't speak a similar language as Chinese, though the ancient Egyptians spoke a similar language to the Beja, Somali, Ethiopians, etc.. Professor Christopher Ehret points out that their language can be traced back 10-15,000 years to the areas spanning Sudan and Somalia. Semitic was even adopted via African migrants likely coinciding with the Nautufians, who Brace confirmed were African migrants. Ehret also points out the presence of loan words from Nilo-Saharan in the ancient Egyptian language, indicative of sustained contact with their neighbors. There are however, no Semetic or European loan words.
You're making a lot of claims there with no evidence or references.
 
Still, that's better than going on at ridiculous length about what the ancient Egyptians called themselves, or whether it is 'wrong' to call them anient Egyptians, which is ridiculous.

The desert divides 'Africa' into two just as thoroughly as the Urals divide 'Asia' from 'Europe' or the Mediterranean divides 'Europe' from 'Asia'. In fact more so, since the Mediterranean in much of history has been a sea that unites the peoples into one culture around it rather than divides them.


This is a weak argument since there is no barrier along the Nile valley from whence Africans migrated.
There's no real barrier between Egypt and Canaan either. And there was lots of contact.
People like Bruce Trigger have confirmed a south-north pattern of migration. The earliest remains in Egypt which are 35,000 years old were described as "sub-Saharan". There is a problem with terminology here as the Sahara only recently turned into a desert some 5,000 years ago, just prior to Egyptian state formation. There are clearly depictions of stereotypical African people in Saharan rock art and customs identified that can be traced back to people like the Fulani. There's also desert extending all the way into Arabia so based on your own logic you're arguing that the Egyptians sprouted from the ground some 5,000 years ago.
Where on earth do you get that from? I'm perfectly prepared to accept the whole human race (hah!) emerged from Africa. That isn't the point. The point is whether the ancient Egyptians (the people inhabiting the land of Egypt from let's say 5,000 to 500 BC) had anything more in common with the people who stayed behind in Africa than they had with the other emigrant peoples.
 
I certainly agree they are all human.
Then why were the same group of languages spoken all the way from "sub-Saharan" Somalia, even extending outside of Africa to Northern Arabia (see Ehret, 1996)? Where was the so-called "divide" and why are you parroting outdated assumptions as opposed to being critical?
I'm not convinced they are the same group of languages. Anyway linguistic distinctions and racial don't correspond - cf the situation with Indo-European peoples amd languages.
 
Even if they do speak similar languages it doesn't indicate in which direction the linguistic influence ran. French and English are closely connected as the result of the conquest of England by French-speakers, and also closely connected as the result of the conquest of England by Germanics. And hardly anyone in England speaks the aboriginal languages of the country.
 
For a whole swathe of history the whole Eastern Mediterranean area spoke Greek. That didn't make them Greeks.

Well, of course the Nile runs through it, and we arbitrarily label the northern and southern parts of 'Africa' with the same label, so of course it was 'Nilotic-African'. But sheer geography says nothing about culture or race or ethnicity.


So first Africa is divided in two parts, then you are forced to acknowledge that the Nile erases any so-called "barrier" for human migration. 
I wasn't 'forced to acknowledge' it.  In fact I'm not sure that 'erases' is the right verb. I do know that the ethnic/racial divide somewhere around the cataracts was sufficient of a barrier to have very different peoples emerge - peoples who didn't display any great feeling of kinship.
 We're making progress. Now we must relieve ourselves from using straw man arguments and buzz words like 'race".
Do us all a favour and go look up 'straw man' somewhere. Getting it right would help your credibility somewhat.
As for ethnicity and culture, they shared the exact same culture as the A-group people from Nubia just prior to state formation. In fact, Egypt was unified from the south and the kingdom of the A-group (ta-seti) was incorporated into the empire once Egypt was formed and it was actually considered the most southern nome of Egypt. Everything started in the south as there was affinity towards the south.

Quoting Joseph Vogel:

"The period when "sub-Saharan" Africa was most influential in Egypt was a time when neither Egypt, as we understand it culturally, nor the Sahara, as we understand it geographically, existed. Populations and cultures now found south of the desert roamed far to the north. The culture of Upper Egypt, which became dynastic Egyptian civilization, could fairly be called a Sudanese transplant. Egypt rapidly found a method of disciplining the river, the land, and the people to transform the country into a titanic garden. Egypt rapidly developed detailed cultural forms that dwarfed its forebears in urbanity and elaboration. Thus, when new details arrived, they were rapidly adapted to the vast cultural superstructure already present. ---Encyclopedia of Precolonial Africa, by Joseph O. Vogel, AltaMira Press, Walnut Creek, California (1997), pp. 465-472-


We would find it just as difficult to swallow if someone tried to classify all 'Asian' cultures and peoples together, just because they were/are 'Asian'.


I agree, which is why I didn't base it exclusively on them being African, though as stated, we all come from Africa and share African ancestry, it is just that some of us have more recent African ancestry than others. Meaning that native Africans, not being isolated or separated as long from each other as they have been from those who left and were trapped in the ice age for thousands of years, converge to form closer, more recent relationships as Africans.
Then why, as is I think universally acknowledged, is there more ethnic (genetic) variety between Africans than between the peoples of the rest of the world put together? Africans have less closely related than Asians or Europeans, or Asians + Europeans + Amerindians + you name it all put together. That's one of the things that supports the 'out-of-Africa' theory, since it indicates that the people who live in Africa have been evolving longer.
I could think of a couple of other examples but they are minefield topics.

That's the problem. This shouldn't be a "minefield" topic.
You misunderstand me. They involve topics that, for the purpose of this forum,  have been sequestered to the 'Minefield' forum, so I can't bring them up here..
The facts are there and can't be disputed, it's just what some people either don't want to accept, are conditioned not to accept, or won't admit to, that makes a problem out of it. I genuinely don't see these questions as minefield topics. The question of race and how it should be interpreted is a question of social science, not history and biology. People have different conceptions "Black and White" depending on where you are, but I do sense the hypocrisy.
What do you mean, you're sensing hypocrisy? In whom?
 
As for not seeing these topics as Minefield topics, I didn't say what they were, so how do you know what they are?
 Label the Nubians "Black" but don't label their closest neighbors (the Egyptians) at all. Doesn't make any sense especially when they were clearly related according to anthropological examination of early remains and culture. Putting myself above the fray, I will always however insist, that they, the Nubians, Ethiopians, Somali, and the like, were African and the same kind of "African". May be hypocritical that these groups are referred to as Black by the masses, but whatever. It's trivial. Thanx for your thoughtful reply and I appreciate that you didn't attack me personally.
No, but the way you are going it could come any time.


Edited by gcle2003 - 28-Jan-2009 at 14:36
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 02-Feb-2009 at 04:32

A study of 12th Dynasty DNA shows that the remains evaluated had multiple lines of descent, including not surprisingly some from “sub-Saharan” Africa (Paabo and Di Rienzo 1993)

The first lie from Sundiata exposed..

current inhabitants of the Nile valley should be understood as being in the main, although not wholly, descendants of the pre-neolithic regional inhabitants
On Egyptians, by Keita.

Sundiata’s second lie exposed.

Assuming that the samples are representative of the populations from which they derive, and that phenetic similarity
provides an estimate of genetic relatedness, these affinities are suggestive of overall population continuity. That is, other than a few outliers exhibiting extreme frequencies there may be a connection between Neolithic and subsequent predynastic Egyptians, 2) predynastic Badarian and Naqada peoples may be closely related, 3) the dynastic period is likely an indigenous continuation of the Naqada culture, 4) there is support for overall biological uniformity through the dynastic period, and 5) this uniformity may continue into postdynastic times.

Sundiata third lie (although I know you just pasted this from elsewhere) Link to image. from a Hanihara study including Egyptian teeth.
Also…
However, all 15 samples exhibit morphologically simple, mass reduced dentitions that are similar to those in populations from greater North Africa (Irish, 1993, 1998a–c, 2000) and, to a lesser extent, western Asia and Europe (Turner, 1985a; Turner and Markowitz, 1990; Roler, 1992; Lipschultz, 1996; Irish, 1998a). Similar craniofacial measurements among samples from these regions were reported as well (Brace et al., 1993).

And finally, Egyptians are mainly native African for Y chromsomes and not Arab in origin (Lucotte), this POS actually observes that, and it’s been in situ about 20k or more. So claiming that they are newcomers to the area or massively different looking is sodding ludicrous. The shared mt DNA with East Africa in Gurna was M1, shown to be Eurasian in origin now….LOL.

I can’t believe you posted this crap and were being serious.

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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 02-Feb-2009 at 20:47
I have to repeat what Ako said. It's a pity that was looked like at first sight an interesting question - how the ancient Egyptiams viewed the concept of race - turned into another boring disquisition about what peoples were related to whom.

Edited by gcle2003 - 02-Feb-2009 at 20:48
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  Quote Sundiata Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Feb-2009 at 17:14
Originally posted by Nordic guy

A study of 12th Dynasty DNA shows that the remains evaluated had multiple lines of descent, including not surprisingly some from “sub-Saharan” Africa (Paabo and Di Rienzo 1993) 

The first lie from Sundiata exposed..

current inhabitants of the Nile valley should be understood as being in the main, although not wholly, descendants of the pre-neolithic regional inhabitants
On Egyptians, by Keita.


Where did I "lie". I said that Paabo and Di Rienza found sub-Saharan DNA in Egyptian mummies. Isn't that stated in the quote above. Keita also extrapolates the other lineages to Africa as well, so you have no point.


Part of the quote that you omit in order to enhance speculation:

A study of 12th Dynasty DNA shows that the remains evaluated had multiple lines of descent, including not surprisingly some from "sub-Saharan" Africa (Paabo and Di Rienzo 1993). The other lineages were not identified, but may be African in origin. - Keita

The fact that current inhabitants are in the main, but not wholly descendant from the ancient population is apparent. In fact, Brace' 2006 twig shows ancient Egyptians clustering with modern Nubians before they do with modern Egyptians. Not sure how I'm "lying" by pointing this out..







Sundiata’s second lie exposed.

Assuming that the samples are representative of the populations from which they derive, and that phenetic similarity
provides an estimate of genetic relatedness, these affinities are suggestive of overall population continuity. That is, other than a few outliers exhibiting extreme frequencies there may be a connection between Neolithic and subsequent predynastic Egyptians, 2) predynastic Badarian and Naqada peoples may be closely related, 3) the dynastic period is likely an indigenous continuation of the Naqada culture, 4) there is support for overall biological uniformity through the dynastic period, and 5) this uniformity may continue into postdynastic times..

Ok... What's your point and where did I lie? Read Keita 1993 for the stated criticism of Irish and read Irish 2006 who emphatically places Egyptians within the context of the Nubians. The fact that there was continuity only reveals that  there was little foreign influence per Irish' assessments, though he retracts his own claims in a 2008 study:

In context, here's Keita's critique:


"Recently Irish (Joel D.) and Turner (1990) and Turner and Markowitz (1990) have suggested that the populations of Nubia and Egypt of the agricultural periods were not primarily descendents of the geographical populations of mesolithic/epipaleolithic times. Based on dental morphology, they postulate as almost total replacement of the native /African epipaleolithic and neolithic groups by populations or peoples from further north (Europe or the near east?)

They take issue with the well-known post-pleistocene/hunting dental reduction and simplification hypothesis which postulate in situ microevolution driven by dietary change, with minimal gene flow (admixture).  However, as is well known and accepted, rapid evolution can occur. Also, rapid change in northeast Africa might be specifically anticipated because of the possibilities for punctuated microevolution (secondary to severe micro-selection and drift) in the early Holocene sahara, because of the isolated communities and cyclicial climatic changes there, and their possible subsequent human effects.
The earliest southern predynastic culture, Badari, owes key elements to post-dessication Saharan and also perhaps "Nubian" immigration. Biologically these people were essentially the SAME. It is also possible that the dental traits could have been introduced from an external source, and increased in frequency primarily because of natural selection, either for the trait or for growth pattern requiring less energy.

There is no evidence for sudden or gradual mass migration of Europeans or Near Easterners into the valley, as the term 'replacement' would imply.

There is limb ratio and craniofacial morphological and metric CONTINUITY in Upper-Egypt-Nubia in a broad sense from the late paleolithic through dynastic periods, although change occured."
- Keita, Studies and Comments on Ancient Egyptian Biological Relationships (1993)


And here is Irish flip flopping in 2008:


Outside influence and admixture with extraregional groups primarily occurred in Lower Egypt—perhaps during the later dynastic, but especially in Ptolmaic and Roman times (also Irish, 2006). No large-scale population replacement in the form of a foreign dynastic ‘race’ (Petrie, 1939) was indicated. Our results are generally consistent with those of Zakrzewski (2007). Using craniometric data in predynastic and early dynastic Egyptian samples, she also concluded that state formation was largely an indigenous process with some migration into the region evident. The sources of such migrants have not been identified; inclusion of additional regional and extraregional skeletal samples from various periods would be required for this purpose.
Further analysis of the population history of ancient Egyptians,Michael A. Schillaci, Joel Irish,

Such "migrants" according to Zakrzewski, were from minimal trade contacts. As stated, there was no dynastic race of "white Nords" and mixture was primarily restricted to northern Egypt during the late period.  Previously, Irish made it seem as if there was unbroken continuity all over the country lasting into the modern era. He clearly contradicts himself here in order to align himself with contemporary data analyzed by Kemp, Keita, Zakrzewski, and others. No lies here. Just facts.


Sundiata third lie (although I know you just pasted this from elsewhere) Link to image. from a Hanihara study including Egyptian teeth.
Also…
However, all 15 samples exhibit morphologically simple, mass reduced dentitions that are similar to those in populations from greater North Africa (Irish, 1993, 1998a–c, 2000) and, to a lesser extent, western Asia and Europe (Turner, 1985a; Turner and Markowitz, 1990; Roler, 1992; Lipschultz, 1996; Irish, 1998a). Similar craniofacial measurements among samples from these regions were reported as well (Brace et al., 1993).


This was already addressed above per Keita's citation but I will further extend it. Similarity doesn't indicate any relationship as there is evidence of rapid climate change in the prehistoric Nile valley accompanied by increased novelty in social and dietary practices.  In addition, as Keita points out, teeth can be reduces when such a trait is introduced and selected for any particular advantage it may pose. These explanations are relevant since the people of Holocene Egypt and Nubian did not have such teeth, hence Irish initially proposed a population replacement attributable to invaders. Since limb-ratio and cranial studies contradict this, it is worth noting these evolutionary processes. Also, Greene cites overlap between Egyptians and Nubians as well as genetically-based fourth molars that are exclusively African characteristics. Reduced teeth are not exclusively non-African or genetic since it can happen through diet and/or natural selection.


http://wysinger.homestead.com/keita-1993.pdf

^^Scroll down to page 14 for a confirmation of everything I just told you.



And finally, Egyptians are mainly native African for Y chromsomes and not Arab in origin (Lucotte), this POS actually observes that, and it’s been in situ about 20k or more. So claiming that they are newcomers to the area or massively different looking is sodding ludicrous. The shared mt DNA with East Africa in Gurna was M1, shown to be Eurasian in origin now….LOL.

Wrong... You're a novice who doesn't know how to cite sources. I never said modern Egyptians were newcomers. I stated that they have new genes in many instances. If you have Eurasian genes on the one hand, like VII, which is at a high frequency in Eurasians, yet you also have African lineages, the question to ask is which came first and which predominated in ancient times. The answer is obvious since it correlates with MtDNA. M1 is African, it is derived directly from African L3, there is nothing Eurasian about it. The first people to carry the lineage were from sub-Saharan Africa as the gene is around 50,000 years old. Whites/Eurasian didn't even exist at that time. lol!!! Nice try..



From said paper:



Our results suggest that the Gurna population has conserved the trace of an ancestral genetic structure from an ancestral East African population, characterized by a high M1 haplogroup frequency. The current structure of the Egyptian population may be the result of further influence of neighbouring populations on this ancestral population.

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/14748828

They didn't say they have conserved an ancestral Eurasian heritage due to high frequencies of M1, they said that they have conserved ancestral traces of their East African heritage due to their high frequencies of M1. Stop lying.


Edited by Sundiata - 03-Feb-2009 at 17:35
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  Quote Sundiata Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Feb-2009 at 17:27
@gcle2003

I don't feel like responding to all of that right now as most of it is tit for tat. How about we not deal with semantics,  i.e, "what is Africa", "what is Black", etc... I find it to be a hindrance to the advancement of African studies/history when there always seems to be non-Africans (mainly white Americans) who object consistently when Egypt is fit within this context. With that said, I'll jump to the point:

TABLE 4. Intra-limb bone length indices
in US and Egyptian samples

Crural index | Brachial index
Males \ Females | Males \ Females
Mean - SE \ Mean - SE | Mean - SE \ Mean - SE
Terry Whites: 81.9 - 0.4 \ 82.0 - 0.4 | 74.3 - 0.4 \ 73.5 - 0.5
Terry Blacks: 83.7 - 0.4 \ 83.8 - 0.5 | 77.1 - 0.5 \ 76.5 - 0.5
Egyptians: 83.6c - 0.2 \ 82.8 - 0.3 | 77.9c - 0.5 \ 77.5c - 0.6

Trotter and Gleser: Am J Phys Anthropol 16 (1958) 79-123) long bone formulae for US Blacks or derivations thereof (Robins and Shute: Hum Evol 1 (1986) 313-324) have been previously used to estimate the stature of ancient Egyptians. However, limb length to stature proportions differ between human populations; consequently, the most accurate mathematical stature estimates will be obtained when the population being examined is as similar as possible in proportions to the population used to create the equations. The purpose of this study was to create new stature regression formulae based on direct reconstructions of stature in ancient Egyptians and assess their accuracy in comparison to other stature estimation methods. We also compare Egyptian body proportions to those of modern American Blacks and Whites. Living stature estimates were derived using a revised Fully anatomical method (Raxter et al.: Am J Phys Anthropol 130 (2006) 374-384). Long bone stature regression equations were then derived for each sex. Our results confirm that, although ancient Egyptians are closer in body proportion to modern American Blacks than they are to American Whites, proportions in Blacks and Egyptians are not identical. The newly generated Egyptian-based stature regression formulae have standard errors of estimate of 1.9-4.2 cm. All mean directional differences are less than 0.4% compared to anatomically estimated stature, while results using previous formulae are more variable, with mean directional biases varying between 0.2% and 1.1%, tibial and radial estimates being the most biased. There is no evidence for significant variation in proportions among temporal or social groupings; thus, the new formulae may be broadly applicable to ancient Egyptian remains.


Again, in isolation:
ancient Egyptians are closer in body proportion to modern American Blacks than they are to American Whites

http://cat.inist.fr/?aModele=afficheN&cpsidt=20351506

^^The fact that modern Blacks and ancient Egyptians aren't "identical" is redundant. The fact that they are more similar to each other than either are to white Americans, speaks volumes about the lack of merit in Eurocentric resentment of Black [African] attribution to ancient Egyptian civilization. It's hilarious, especially coming from a person who names them self "Nordic guy". It's veered away from trying to establish that they were white, to now just keeping them away from Black people. lol... Won't work...

Edited by Sundiata - 03-Feb-2009 at 20:56
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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Feb-2009 at 18:01
Pardon if I reply  to your most recent post in place of gcle -- I'm sure he will have a more erudite response for you when he is next on; in addition to more wisdom, he has more patience than I.
 
That said, what in Dante's icy pit of hell do your bloody bone lengths have to do with the price of bread? Granted, as part of a coherent argument, which focuses on genetics and other aspects of the scientific discipline, they might serve some purpose, on a scientific forum. On this forum, they serve no purpose, other than to propound the agenda which you so disingenuously claim not to be propounding. In Nordic guy -- a name which, itself, perfectly exhibits the level of dialogue you have proposed -- you have finally found an "equal", and may you have much joy of it.
 
You have yet to answer the response in this thread which most pertinently reflects how we all should have felt upon reading your initial post: disappointment. I have half a mind to open another thread to ask the question that you should have been asking. Of course most would say that I have half a mind anyway, so never you mind about that. Wink
 
Sundiata, at least be honest about the point you are trying to make. We will only discount you the more if you appear disingenuous. If you are an honest and open Afro-supremacist, you might even find a happy niche in the forum as one of our eccentrics (it's the position I occupy, after all Tongue).
 
-Akolouthos
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Feb-2009 at 18:17

Yeap, Sundiata. Instead to try to convince us of weird things we know are false, why don't you put information about ancient Africa beyond Egypt?

Explain us, for instance, what is "Sundiata" in the history of Mali. That would be a good start.

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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Feb-2009 at 18:31
Pinguin,
 
If we move a thread already lacking in direction beyond the original topic, as you suggest, it would be even worse. I don't see any reason to bring up any other issues or names relating to African history.
 
-Akolouthos
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