Is Germanic a subgroup of the Iranian languages?

He is not a professional linguist. Also from what I know and have read from profesionals that Indo-Iranians started to move south of the PIE motherland and eventually came down to the Persian plateau and Indian sub-continent. Professional linguists have noticed that Slavic is the branch of IE that share most lexically with Germanic. And that has lead to some to believe that Balto-Slavic and Germanic might both come a northern dialect of PIE but Slavic is satem and Germanic mostly centum.

And you still have disputed the linguist evolution from PIE to Germanic. All from Grimm’s law and Verners law. The levelling of the Indo-European verbal system of tense and aspect into the present tense and the past tense (also called the preterite)

The stress fixed on the first syllable in Germanic words( can alter in loan words but Icelandic has it fixed on the first) the V2 Order that almost all Germanic languages have.

While in Persian it is the last syllable.

You cannot explain how Germanic culture and cultures connect to the more (at least back in the day) more further advanced Persian culture. You cannot explain why Iranian or Indo-Iranian people would come to Scandinavia.

Also have not answered my last large message. And on about how IE people speakers have lived in northern Europe. I said this

''No you offer no proof.. I read that in a message of you said that Germanic is just back to 500 BC... lol No it was then it is believed then the Proto-Germanic that is considered late proto Germanic when Grimm’s law was fixed. Indo-European tribes that lived in Scandinavia in the Nordic Bronze age became Germanics this is at least back to 2000 BC when the horse became domesticated or we started to see domesticated horses that we know that indo-European tribes used to spread in different parts. The Jastorf culture from around 600 BC to 100 BC was also a Germanic culture many believe it was the origin of the West Germanic languages.

And also try to find professional linguist that have studied in years in with linguistics professionally and with language relations. They do not propose Germano-Iranian or Or Germanic-Indo-Iranian because they understand the phonological history of these branches and that when you go back in time with in fair share rate they end with PIE sound laws.

And I see that you try to run from arguments. Why don't you try to refute Verners Law and Grimms law and the connection free moving pitch accent of PIE that shows in Verners to connect with when Grimm’s laws exceptions where.

Your not the first of this i have debated with.. you remind me of one that taught an even more crazy idea that all modern IE languages come from Old Greek and like you tried all his best to prove in all cost no matter what.

And the next try to find a some ''linguist'' trying to help you prove you theory then may it professional one that knows and understand IE languages to the core and there history.

I don't understand what you have against Germanic being a separate branch of IE. And I suggest that in till you have proof and can show professional study that is not biased(ideologically) in order to prove it.

All love