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Is Germanic a subgroup of the Iranian languages?

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  Quote Suren Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Is Germanic a subgroup of the Iranian languages?
    Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 07:56
Cyrus, I've checked the sentence again with my dad and he said the sentence (Na bevajhe) is correct and it is as an order (command). Na bevajhe = Ou begouyad = She say ( we are commanding her to say). Also, in sangsari we use Be prefix a lot. For example,

Goftan           Say        bevate’n     beva  [to beva, no bevajhe, na bevajhe (zan begooyad)]

Raftan           Go          beshote’n   bashe’

Amadan         Come     bemete’n    biru’

Khabidan      sleep       bekhotte’n   bakhos

As for your sentence that you mentioned before.
Kita dandi na kituni var daru

Kita is not Sangsari But (shahmirzari or mazani), we say kaataa daande Kaatuni vaar daro.
That Na which you mention in between is not proper and they don't use it as you mentioned.


Edited by Suren - 29-Jun-2008 at 18:43
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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 10:03
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

2, k→s (a.o.t. k→x→h)
PIE dekm....Slavic deseti, Avestan dasa, but Germanic texan (k→x shift...later into h...zehn, tehun, ten)
the same Germanic process in Persian -> Dah


No, it's not...Proto-Iranian has 's' there, Avestan as well....Persian changed it to 'h'...it's not k→x→h shift, it's k→s→h shift - and Iranian forms lack the d→t shift here - we all know why, we're just waiting for you to comprehend.

Nonetheless, only Persian seems to have a form with 's→h' shift, so it pretty well disproves what is topic here: Is Germanic a subgroup of the Iranian languages?

Since Persian developed from Proto-Iranian/Old Iranian, it's clear it's not the same shift (centum vs. satem shift)...''maybe you think Persian is not an Iranian language??'' (I appologise for stealing from you)




Edited by Slayertplsko - 29-Jun-2008 at 10:24
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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 11:18
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

Hercynian Forest: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hercynian_Forest
Hyrcanian Forest: http://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/5214/


I accidentally ran into the etymology of Hyrcanian Forest - it's derived from the Old Persian word for wolf, whilst Hercynian is derived from a Celtic word for oak.
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  Quote Cyrus Shahmiri Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 13:24
Originally posted by Suren

Cyrus, I've checked the sentence again with my dad and he said the sentence (Na bevajhe) is correct and it is as an order (comammand). Na bevajhe = Ou begouyad = She say ( we are commanding her to say).
As I said that is a wrong sentence, the Imperative Mood in Iranian languages occurs only in the second person and requires no pronoun, but about present tense Sangsaris don't use a prefix similar to Persian but the suffix "-and"+a vowel, like "dandi/dande" (have).
Maybe "Na" just means "Woman", so Na bevajhe = Hey woman, speak!
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  Quote Cyrus Shahmiri Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 14:12
3, d→d (a.o.t. d→t)
PIE doru....Slavic drievo, Avestan dar, but Germanic trewan (tree)

Again we see the Middle Persian word is "Teru", in Modern Persian we have "Teer" which means "Timber" (according to Oxford: wood prepared for use in building and carpentry. trees grown for such wood), use your English-Persian dictionary! Wink
 
It is interesting that for "Wooden" we use both Avestan origin word Draxta (Modern Persian Derakht=tree) and Persian origin word Traxta (Modern Persian Takhte=Board).


Edited by Cyrus Shahmiri - 29-Jun-2008 at 16:08
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  Quote Cyrus Shahmiri Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 15:49
Originally posted by Slayertplsko

Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

2, k→s (a.o.t. k→x→h)
PIE dekm....Slavic deseti, Avestan dasa, but Germanic texan (k→x shift...later into h...zehn, tehun, ten)
the same Germanic process in Persian -> Dah


No, it's not...Proto-Iranian has 's' there, Avestan as well....Persian changed it to 'h'...it's not k→x→h shift, it's k→s→h shift - and Iranian forms lack the d→t shift here - we all know why, we're just waiting for you to comprehend.

Nonetheless, only Persian seems to have a form with 's→h' shift, so it pretty well disproves what is topic here: Is Germanic a subgroup of the Iranian languages?

Since Persian developed from Proto-Iranian/Old Iranian, it's clear it's not the same shift (centum vs. satem shift)...''maybe you think Persian is not an Iranian language??'' (I appologise for stealing from you)
Not just Persian but Kurdish, Gilaki, Tajik, Luri, Baluchi, ... You dated Grimm's shift "beginning of our era" whenas Old Persian "dah" dates back to the seventh Century BC. There is no reason to Say Avestan "das" has been changed to Persian "dah".
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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 16:10
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

There is no reason to Say Avestan "das" has been changed to Persian "dah".


No there's not. But there's this fact that Old Iranian 'dasa' changed into Persian 'dah'.
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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 16:13
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

You dated Grimm's shift "beginning of our era" whenas Old Persian "dah" dates back to the seventh Century BC.


The first Grimm's shift took place in 6th century BC - and one more problem - there was 'x' sound in this word in PGmc.

So now you're saying Germanic is a subgroup of Persian??LOL

The same shift happened in the number seven already in Old Iranian - 'hapta'...but Germanic has an 's', not 'h' (PIE septm) - we know of one language that has an 'h' there - Greek.




Edited by Slayertplsko - 29-Jun-2008 at 16:23
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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 16:14
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

Middle Persian word is "Teru", in Modern Persian we have "Teer" which means "Timber"


Middle Persian? Sorry but that's later than Proto-Germanic.
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  Quote Cyrus Shahmiri Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 16:18
Originally posted by Slayertplsko

Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

There is no reason to Say Avestan "das" has been changed to Persian "dah".


No there's not. But there's this fact that Old Iranian 'dasa' changed into Persian 'dah'.
What do you mean by "Old Iranian"?
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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 16:24
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

Originally posted by Slayertplsko

Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

There is no reason to Say Avestan "das" has been changed to Persian "dah".


No there's not. But there's this fact that Old Iranian 'dasa' changed into Persian 'dah'.
What do you mean by "Old Iranian"?


You didn't check my link, did you??
Proto-Iranian, Old Iranian....just like Old Teutonic, Common Germanic, Proto-Germanic


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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 16:27
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

use your English-Persian dictionary! Wink


I needn't. There is no way that 't' could be used differently here.
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  Quote Cyrus Shahmiri Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 17:46

ignore those words, Lets discuss about some basic Persian words:

Persian Nays (Nik/Naz) -> Nice (Oxford Dictionary: pleasant; agreeable; satisfactory. (of a person) good-natured; kind.)
Persian Betar -> Better (Oxford Dictionary: more desirable, satisfactory, or effective.)
Persian Bad -> Bad (Oxford Dictionary: unwelcome; unpleasant)

I don't know why European linguists just want to forge and deny all relations between Iranian and Germanic languages!! Dead
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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 18:05
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

Persian Nays (Nik/Naz) -> Nice (Oxford Dictionary: pleasant; agreeable; satisfactory. (of a person) good-natured; kind.)I don't know why European linguists just want to forge and deny all relations between Iranian and Germanic languages!! Dead



If you look at the first word...sorry mate, but this is so obvious that it's French.
We'll discuss the other two in two or three hours. I'm going for a beerCheers
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  Quote Cyrus Shahmiri Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 18:30
Nice: http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?search=nice&searchmode=none
from O.Fr. nice "silly, foolish," from L. nescius "ignorant," lit. "not-knowing," from ne- "not"
 
Comparative adj. of good in the older Gmc. languages.
 
mystery word, no apparent relatives in other languages.


Edited by Cyrus Shahmiri - 29-Jun-2008 at 18:30
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  Quote Suren Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 18:53
Guys, I stop posting in this thread, because some people don't want to accept the simple facts, so I am wasting my precious time. Have a nice discussion. Praying
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  Quote King John Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 20:58
How does nice (a word from French) support your thesis that Germanic languages are really a subgroup of Iranian Language? French is not a Germanic language, it is an Italic/Romance language. No linguist has denied relationships between Iranian and Germanic languages. What linguists have done both here and in their work is explain similarities by saying "both are Indo-European so similarities are ancient relics from before the two groups diverged from Proto Indo European." Clearly, Cyrus, you can see that the differences between these two language groups outweigh the similarities, which go back to the common ancestor language of both groups. You really should digest what some of the people in this thread have said before you comment on things which you clearly don't understand.

Timber is not the same as tree in English. In fact they don't even come from the same word. Timber comes from the Proto-Germanic word *temran, whereas tree comes from the Proto-Germanic word *trewan. Let's also not forget that you can't make comparisons between Proto-Germanic and Middle and Modern Persian. If you do make such comparisons they support the argument that Persian comes from a Germanic source, since Proto-Germanic pre-dates Middle and Modern Persian.
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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jun-2008 at 20:58
Nice: http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?search=nice&searchmode=none
from O.Fr. nice "silly, foolish," from L. nescius "ignorant," lit. "not-knowing," from ne- "not"


Just as I said. So this one is irrelevant.
 
Better: http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?search=better&searchmode=none
Comparative adj. of good in the older Gmc. languages.

I have only traced it back to PIE *bhâ d-, *bhé d-, 'good'...what is the etymology of betar?
(sorry I almost forgot...you can find it here)
bad: http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?search=bad&searchmode=none
mystery word, no apparent relatives in other languages.


Your own link pretty well disproves the connection here.


Edited by Slayertplsko - 29-Jun-2008 at 21:06
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  Quote Cyrus Shahmiri Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 30-Jun-2008 at 05:05
How does nice (a word from French) support your thesis that Germanic languages are really a subgroup of Iranian Language?
Just as I said. So this one is irrelevant.
 
Just because there is a similar word in Old French which has the utterly irrelevant meaning of "silly, foolish",  does it prove English nice comes from French? Whenas the same English word in Middle Persian (3rd century BC-7th century AD) means exactly "pleasant; agreeable; satisfactory. Ø (of a person) good-natured; kind."
 
I have only traced it back to PIE *bhâ d-, *bhé d-, 'good'...what is the etymology of betar?
Beh+"-tar"=better & Beh+"-est"=Best
Persian "Beh" come from "Behar" which means "Spring (season)"
 
Your own link pretty well disproves the connection here.
What does it say?
 
There is no difference between Persian "bad" (of Avestan origin) and English "bad" in spelling, pronunciation and meaning:
 
Persian/English "Bad" means:
 
1 of poor quality or a low standard.
2 unwelcome; unpleasant. severe; serious.(bad for) harmful to.
3 offending moral standards or accepted conventions.
4 injured, ill, or diseased.
5 (of food) decayed.
6 guilty; ashamed.
7 inappropriate.
 
My link says: "Persian has bad in more or less the same sense as the Eng. word, but this is regarded by linguists as a coincidence. such convergent evolutions are found across many languages, given the vast number of words in each and the limited range of sounds humans can make to signify them. Among other coincidental matches with English are Korean mani "many," Chinese pei "pay," Nahuatl (Aztecan) huel "well," Maya hol "hole."
 
Should Persian be compared with Korean, Chinese and Nahuatl? I have really doubt that European linguists believe Persian to be an Indo-European language!
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  Quote King John Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 30-Jun-2008 at 05:58
Cyrus, do some research. A simple input of "nice etymology" into google returns this entry in the online etymology dictionary:
nice
c.1290, "foolish, stupid, senseless," from O.Fr. nice "silly, foolish," from L. nescius "ignorant," lit. "not-knowing," from ne- "not" (see un-) + stem of scire "to know." "The sense development has been extraordinary, even for an adj." [Weekley] -- from "timid" (pre-1300); to "fussy, fastidious" (c.1380); to "dainty, delicate" (c.1405); to "precise, careful" (1500s, preserved in such terms as a nice distinction and nice and early); to "agreeable, delightful" (1769); to "kind, thoughtful" (1830). In 16c.-17c. it is often difficult to determine exactly what is meant when a writer uses this word. By 1926, it was pronounced "too great a favorite with the ladies, who have charmed out of it all its individuality and converted it into a mere diffuser of vague and mild agreeableness." [Fowler]
What is your source for it not entering English via Old French (via Latin)? Clearly if you go to the Oxford English Dictionary you will find that the original meaning (the Old French meaning) is now obsolete and that the modern word nice (pleasant) is derived from that original Old French meaning. You also didn't answer my question, Cyrus. So I will ask the question again: How does nice (a word from French) support your thesis that Germanic languages are really a subgroup of Iranian Language?
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