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Tracing Jewish Ancestry

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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Tracing Jewish Ancestry
    Posted: 21-Sep-2008 at 17:31

About the books. I'm telling you the third time already Derveni papyrus, Derveni papyrus, Derveni papyrus.

THE BOOK written in Greek ALPHABET earlier than any copy of Greek Septugiant.
 
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  Quote Maharbbal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 21-Sep-2008 at 18:09
Originally posted by IamJoseph

Not all bibles and scriptures are based on 'belief'. One is absolutely historical and contemporary: where else can you find the routes to canaan via uncharted deserts, naming contemporary nations enroute which don't exist anymore - with the names of their kings? Or the distance between the cities of Goshen and Rameses? One has to be fair, honest and logical in a history thread or it recoils into a meaningless charade: David was a 3000 year old historical figure proven by archeology - where is your proof of Buddha, Jesus and Mohammed who came uch later?


The fact that all the cities mentioned in the Iliad are real ones and that Troy was destroyed doesn't prove the existance of Achilles. Regarding David, I'd be very curious to know which acheological findings support his existance since the so-called palace found in Jerusalem has been named after him with no evidence of links between David and the palace (which anyway is 1 century too young to be David's).

Besides it is no secret that the bible is a collection of books written at different periods so it may also be that some parts have more historical values than others. Moreover, it would be foolish to solely rely on a single written source on a given question when there are no archeological elements to back it. On top of that it is important to remember that the Jewish religion is not an history-oreinted one, the number of history books written by Jewish people before the 18th century is minimal (the only significant exception being Flavius Joseph), unlike Christians who wrote plenty of chronicals. Time and the world have only a limited interest in the traditional Jewish way of thinking which is way more oriented toward the re-living of the tradition (for instance there is no original account of the expulsion of 70AD to the point that many now think that it did not take place).

Finally, I don't see how the fact that there is no hard evidence for the existance of Jesus proves that David existed for real, the way the bible describes him.
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  Quote Hebrewtext Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 21-Sep-2008 at 21:46
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  Quote IamJoseph Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 01:35
I don't understand why you have to cite Britannica again. Britannica didn't claim that Phonician alphabet is derived from Hebrew it claims the thesis which I referred to above.
 
The Britania, arguably the most respected of all contemporary sources, claims Hebrew as the first introduction of any alphabetical writings. Someone is confused.
 
  There are too many "Christian archeologists" obsessed with the idea that everything the Old Testaments says is true.
Yes and no. The OT is true for christians only when it alligns with the NT. The rest is either disregarded or distorted to kingdom come. The sectors which pose a contradiction to the NT is shunned.
 
 
 
You also should now that according to Christian doctrine the Gospels don't contradict the Old Testaments but "built upon it" in the view of Christian theology.
 
Disagree, but lets not go there.
 
 
Definite proof that all the events described in the Bible didn't in fact happened would only suppot the Christian view of history.
 
No such thing exists - I mean nothing in the OT has ever been disproved, which is different from everything being proven. The OT remains the world's most proven document, by period of time and % of proven stats. This makes it varied from anything else anywhere.
 
 
So this argument of yours doesn't work.
 
That there is even a dispute between which of the first 2 or 3 writings was the first alphabetical one - is itself a manifest proof for the credibility of the Hebrew. Add to that there is no conclusive proof against the premise of Hebrew, and no equivalent archives of the others, and that the Hebrew writings' narrative cannot be easily dismissed - its never been proven false or in error - and what have you? In contrast, almost everything stated in the Gospels and Quran is outside the bounds of proof or historical evidencings, self declared as resting almost entirely on 'belief'. Lets not dismiss that both those belief systems became mass murderers for millions who were not able to absorb those beliefs.
 
IMHO, debating what history means is more interesting - but this is not possible when there is a disputing of what that history was. The former is enlightening, the latter is cyclical and deflective, mostly vested in one's own personal wishlist. My pursuit is for truth in what it means - whichever way it points to, and this becomes difficult because we are all creatures of what's been fed to us.
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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 01:58
Originally posted by IamJoseph

Yes and no. The OT is true for christians only when it alligns with the NT. The rest is either disregarded or distorted to kingdom come. The sectors which pose a contradiction to the NT is shunned.
 
Actually, the New Testament -- or, more specifically, Christ -- is viewed as a key to a proper understanding of the Old. Saint Paul's epistle to the Hebrews might help a bit in understanding the Christian perspective on the events of Old Testament, but enough ink has been spilled on the topic over the years to satisfy almost anyone's curiosity. I'm not particularly interested in the linguistic discussion that is going on here, but I thought I'd clear this up.
 
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  Quote IamJoseph Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 02:17
The fact that all the cities mentioned in the Iliad are real ones and that Troy was destroyed doesn't prove the existance of Achilles.
 
That is a poem, not a historical item, based on head bashing deities, containing no evidential historical stats, and has been disputed of its allocated dating periods. There is no similarity with the book of Kings, which describes a whole listing of historically evidenced names, kings, nations, wars, life spans - as well as its past histories. Casting these in one green bag is an error.
 
 
Regarding David, I'd be very curious to know which acheological findings support his existance since the so-called palace found in Jerusalem has been named after him with no evidence of links between David and the palace (which anyway is 1 century too young to be David's).
 
That's amazing, and it shows how misrepresented the OT is. I will gladly put up evidence - however, one must give a preamble here first: what if David was a real historical figure, and the texts are also vindicated historically? Let's not dismiss also, that david is a mere 250 years from Moses, and david's writings [book of Kings; the Psalms] mentions Moses numerously, and alligns with every verse of the five Mosaic books, which it describes with direct lift-off verses, alligning with them in precise mathematical datings. One can say here, it can still be a retrospective work - a claim I myself make about the Gospels. But unlike the Gospels, we have independent cross-nation writings and historical events which match the book of Kings, as well as relics from the earth. There's a difference here - no document any place else can do the same, definitely not one set in this space-time or even a 1000 years later. there is a credibility limit how much can be dismissed as itentionally made to fool or lie. Try making a single historical statement which is not true - it will be proven false very easily if it is not presented as belief. Try listing a generation of a family tree with names, dob & dods, life spans, cities, wars etc - aside from this being impossible for even six generations today, even using a super computer - how can this be done 1000s of years ago?

Besides it is no secret that the bible is a collection of books written at different periods so it may also be that some parts have more historical values than others.
 
It is a secret if you include the OT & NT as the bible. Nothing is disproven in the former, and some 80% proven - against zero in the latter. Else we would have nothing to debate. Do you realise that proving david means proof of the psalms dated 3000 years ago - and its implications for Moses, the OT five books and that period's history? This means the OT could NOT have been written outside of its narratives - because if the psalms are 3000 years old, and it mentions the OT verses and Moses - a time machine would have been required. Can you describe 9/11 and its exacting factors 200 years before it occured?
 
 
 
Moreover, it would be foolish to solely rely on a single written source on a given question when there are no archeological elements to back it. On top of that it is important to remember that the Jewish religion is not an history-oreinted one, the number of history books written by Jewish people before the 18th century is minimal (the only significant exception being Flavius Joseph), unlike Christians who wrote plenty of chronicals. Time and the world have only a limited interest in the traditional Jewish way of thinking which is way more oriented toward the re-living of the tradition (for instance there is no original account of the expulsion of 70AD to the point that many now think that it did not take place).
 
This is loony tunes, debating the authenticity of 70 CE - but today we have holocaust denial, despite that it happened just 60 uears ago. FYI, the implications of david being real has enormous impact on the OT's validity; christian writings are more profuse because Judaism was under great persecutions - but this is not the case pre-70. Nor does the OT writings rely on only what a verse says - there is an intergrated thread of writings with historical proof and cross-nation evidence.
 
Archeology uses 'names' to prove 90% of its conclusions, second writings styles, third datings, and mostly these are excellent means of proof: a 4000 year name never appears 3500 years ago; writings style don't lie, maths cannot be argued against. In fact, the latter factors are more powerful than fossils and dna - which often fall when such back-up is demanded. Nor have you given any evidence that the OT was under the authorship of different peoples at different times - in fact this is an impossibility when properly examined, and such is promoted today by a vested agenda. Lets not dismiss that if the OT is true and historical, it negates some big time paradigms held today as fact and taboo to deny: the Quran, the NT and ToE - this is like going against the beliefs of 3 B humans, and today's premise of what science says. The OT is up against the most powerful oppositions imaginable.


Finally, I don't see how the fact that there is no hard evidence for the existance of Jesus proves that David existed for real, the way the bible describes him.
 
Agreed. But I only mentioned the gospels to make comparatives for proofs - one has much, the other does not have any. These are different kinds of documents is my point, and david's veracity is not dependent on the gospels.
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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 02:35
Originally posted by IamJoseph

 
No such thing exists - I mean nothing in the OT has ever been disproved, which is different from everything being proven. The OT remains the world's most proven document, by period of time and % of proven stats. This makes it varied from anything else anywhere.
 
 You know, you should differentiate between your religious beliefs and objective historical science. Historical science unfortunately can't prove the credibility of the Biblical account.
 
No scientist seriously believes in the crossing of the Red Sea or Jericho trumpets, you know.
 
I respect your religious beliefs, but please don't make something which is a religious authority for you a historical truth.
 
Originally posted by IamJoseph

 That there is even a dispute between which of the first 2 or 3 writings was the first alphabetical one - is itself a manifest proof for the credibility of the Hebrew. Add to that there is no conclusive proof against the premise of Hebrew,.
 
I don't know what you mean by "conclusive proof against the premise of Hebrew," but I have given you a link with the information about the Greek manuscript predating any known Hebrew manuscripts and Greek translations of Bible, what other proof you need?
 
 
Originally posted by IamJoseph

 and no equivalent archives of the others, and that the Hebrew writings' narrative cannot be easily dismissed - its never been proven false or in error - and what have you? In contrast, almost everything stated in the Gospels and Quran is outside the bounds of proof or historical evidencings, self declared as resting almost entirely on 'belief'. Lets not dismiss that both those belief systems became mass murderers for millions who were not able to absorb those beliefs..
 
I don't understand how Quran and Gospels are related to this discussion. Have I ever said that Gospels are true and the Old Testament is false?
 
The discussion here is not about what is better or historically reliable Tanakh, Gospels or Quran.
 
 
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  Quote IamJoseph Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 02:45
THE BOOK written in Greek ALPHABET earlier than any copy of Greek Septugiant.
 
Its not a 'BOOK' - just a re-constructed broken verse on a pottery vase. Its not alphabetical - no vowels. Its not backed by any surrounding or continueing writings, books or imprints of any kind. The greek outpourings of writings only emerged post-Septuagint.
 
Josephus would have made a monumental glitch for HIS OWN CONTEMPORARY times, had he said something which could have been easily and promptly disputed by the Greeks - the Greek history was by this time very well documented, with over 50% of the Roman sennet and admin being Greek. Europe begat its Gospels via the Greeks, via Rome. Have you read pre-christian Greek beliefs and history? Mithra was the sun of Zeus, born on the 25th Dec, and he saved the world. The Sunday was the deity of the Sun, literally, and observed as a festival throughout pre-NT Greece. Saul/Paul was a 4th generation secular greek who never even met Jesus. Both the OT adherents, the Arabs and other peoples in this region dispute the Gospels stories as fiction. Josephus is hailed as a great and accurate historian. At the very least, his writings cannot be dismissed as myth - nothing else of his volumous, telephone sized books fall into that category.
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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 03:20
Sorry my friend, but you even didn't bother yourself with the reading of what the link was talking about. It's not a verse and it doesn't have any relations to vases; it's a BOOK and it's written in alphabet.
 
Your ignorance reveals all the weakness of your flawed argumentation.
 

The Derveni papyrus is an ancient Greek papyrus scroll which was found in 1962. It is a philosophical treatise that is an allegorical commentary on an Orphic poem, a theogony concerning the birth of the gods, produced in the circle of the philosopher Anaxagoras, in the second half of the fifth century B.C., making it "the most important new piece of evidence about Greek philosophy and religion to come to light since the Renaissance" (Janko 2005). It dates to around 340 B.C., during the reign of Philip II of Macedon, making it Europe's oldest surviving manuscript.

The scroll was found at a site in Derveni, Macedonia northern Greece, in a nobleman's grave in a necropolis that was part of a rich cemetery belonging to the ancient city of Lete. It is the oldest surviving book in the Western tradition and one of very few surviving papyri found in Greece. The scroll is carbonized from the pyre of the nobleman's grave.The papyrus is kept in the Thessaloniki Archaeological Museum.

 
 
 


Edited by Sarmat12 - 22-Sep-2008 at 03:27
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  Quote Maharbbal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 03:29
You can say what ever you want but a guy opening the sea and then closing it is somehow not that different in my view from a warrior god fighting along human warriors... Anyway still waiting for your compelling evidence and the fact that it doesn't contradict itself is hardly proof of anything. After all rabbis have been re-writing the thing for ever so taking some dating mistakes off just makes sense.
 
Besides, I'd say there is no limit to our ancesters' imagination (or you'd have to admit that say Oedipus' story is kind of true). And adding a few details to a real story is even funnier, you know at the bottom of every joke there is something real. Considering traditional story-tellers were able to memorize three days worth of epics with only minimal changes from one another, writting down a few hundreds years of history is no big feat. Besides, remember Herodotus, what is said was "real" and yet he often made mistakes, would be incredible that the rabbis got everything right.


It is a secret if you include the OT & NT as the bible. Nothing is disproven in the former, and some 80% proven - against zero in the latter.

last time I've checked it was more or less proven that the Babylon episod only regarded a small elite. Not the whole people as the good book says. Not mentionning the Noah voyage or the burning bush (lol).

Else we would have nothing to debate. Do you realise that proving david means proof of the psalms dated 3000 years ago - and its implications for Moses, the OT five books and that period's history? This means the OT could NOT have been written outside of its narratives - because if the psalms are 3000 years old, and it mentions the OT verses and Moses - a time machine would have been required. Can you describe 9/11 and its exacting factors 200 years before it occured?
I am a mere mortal, you have to write more clearly cause I really don't get a single thing out of this paragraph. Besides I'm fairly offended, saying that there is no text more recent than the 10th cent (Christian ones btw) depicting the 70AD episod is a far cry from saying that the Shoa did not take place.

Then the fact that Judaism was under persecution is hardly an excuse. They found the time to write about nearly everything but not to record their own story, that's odd. And then again they haven't written anything during the good days in Ancona, Marseille or other places where they were well integrated for centuries.

Archeology uses 'names' to prove 90% of its conclusions, second writings styles, third datings, and mostly these are excellent means of proof: a 4000 year name never appears 3500 years ago; writings style don't lie, maths cannot be argued against. In fact, the latter factors are more powerful than fossils and dna - which often fall when such back-up is demanded. Nor have you given any evidence that the OT was under the authorship of different peoples at different times - in fact this is an impossibility when properly examined, and such is promoted today by a vested agenda. Lets not dismiss that if the OT is true and historical, it negates some big time paradigms held today as fact and taboo to deny: the Quran, the NT and ToE - this is like going against the beliefs of 3 B humans, and today's premise of what science says. The OT is up against the most powerful oppositions imaginable.


wtf? a Muslim/Christian/atheist union against the Jews??? if that all you have to say....

Besides, last time I've checked everybody agreed that the Torah hadn't be written in one go.

You're starting to sound like a luba.


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  Quote Vorian Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 04:37
What's a luba Maharbal?
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  Quote IamJoseph Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 10:09
You can say what ever you want but a guy opening the sea and then closing it is somehow not that different in my view from a warrior god fighting along human warriors...
 
Agreed. Some things cannot be questioned because they are not condusive to proof. But with the OT we have 100s of 1000s of provable stats pervading every word, verse and passage. So prove or dis-prove the provables is the name of the game, and also whether those provables are true to their contemporary space-times. Is Goshen a 40 day journey to Sinai - was there a princess named Nefertiri in Egypt - did the Jebusites rule what became Jerusalem - did Persia conquer Babylon and Greece conquer Persia on the dates mentioned thereto?
 
Anyway still waiting for your compelling evidence and the fact that it doesn't contradict itself is hardly proof of anything.
 
Why would there be no disputation from the greeks when Josephus' long awaited writings say they got their alphabetics from the Hebrew? Would they not better put up a dispute than you doing so today? This factor was one of many I listed, and its a legit one, and any ridiculing of it does not change it.
 
 
 After all rabbis have been re-writing the thing for ever so taking some dating mistakes off just makes sense.
 
Not so. This displays your own attitude and where your coming from. There is a mandated law in the Mosaic, NOT TO ADD OR SUBTRACT ANYTHING. This was a primal factor which seperated christianity from its mother religion, at a cost of millions of lives to date. But looks like this has no impact on you. Have you read the Septuagint or the scrolls and found any variances from today - any examples?
 
last time I've checked it was more or less proven that the Babylon episod only regarded a small elite. Not the whole people as the good book says. Not mentionning the Noah voyage or the burning bush (lol).
 
Both these have no contextial relevence in this discussion - can I assume you've been exhausted?
 
I'm fairly offended, saying that there is no text more recent than the 10th cent (Christian ones btw) depicting the 70AD episod is a far cry from saying that the Shoa did not take place.
 
Where does this 10th C come from? I said something even more intense: even the gospels forgot to mention the Jewish defense of their faith against Rome - yet it found no shortage of remembrance about hapless money changers. Talk about priority!
 
Then the fact that Judaism was under persecution is hardly an excuse. They found the time to write about nearly everything but not to record their own story, that's odd. And then again they haven't written anything during the good days in Ancona, Marseille or other places where they were well integrated for centuries.
 
 
In fact there are copious writings on these issues.
 
wtf? a Muslim/Christian/atheist union against the Jews??? if that all you have to say....
 
What else is there to say about the most blatant issue in all recorded history?
 


Besides, last time I've checked everybody agreed that the Torah hadn't be written in one go.
 
Last time I checked, not a shred of evidence was ever attached to those claims. The scrolls prove one assured fact: nothing was changed the last 2300 years - a period greater than the entire existence of the NT & Quran. This makes the OT the world's most un-distorted writings. The scrolls also impact on all writings before its time and during its time. It says the oppositte about the NT - that this was penned much later and not in this vicinity - the reason these were hidden and not disclosed for 40 years by the church - untill it was returned to the Jews in '67. You are proof what forces the Jews have to contend with! Have you forgotten the premise: THE TRUTH WILL SET YOU FREE - or is this meant to refer only to selective truth?
 
 
The topic here is Jewish ancestry. Thus far there was a long debate about which writings came first. We can safely say that Hebrew is up there among the first row of 3. How does this impact the thread subject - what does it mean, and what is the conclusion? Does it over-turn or contradict anything in the OT concerning Jewish ancestry - namely that it is 4000 years since the first Jew? 
 
 
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 10:55
Originally posted by IamJoseph

if the Jews were forced out in 70 CE, who revolted under Bar Kochba in 132-135 CE? 
If their religion and language was forbidden, who taught at Jamnia, and what language did they use? http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Council_of_Jamnia
In fact of course there are innumerable evidences of the existence of Jews in Palestine, Judaea or whatever you want to call it, after 70 CE, right up to modern times.
 
Forced out yes, many were taken in exile, many fleed, over 1.2 M were killed in the 70 war alone.
Have you any evidence of that, other than Josephus, who says nearly that number were killed in Jerusalem alone. If that were true then Jerusalem would have been the largest city in the whole Roman empire, bigger than Rome itself. Which makes it rather a suspect figure.
 This does not mean no Jews were left. Many came back to Jerusalem from the surrounding cities. The war became re-ignited when another revolt occured in 130. Jews always had a presence in Judea, later Palestine. Hebrew teachings and the language was forbidden - a reason you find Jewish writings in Greek circa this time.
You denied that in your previous post. I'm glad to see you admit you were wrong. It has nothing however to do with the main point, which is that most Jews in Hellenistic times lived outside Palestine.
 
Alexander died in 323 BCE. Must have been his ghost.
 
Or that your history is wanting? You claimed Alex never visited Jerusalem - I corrected you. This visit was a big event.
No I didn't. I said he never visited Jerusalem in 300 BCE. He was dead in 300 BCE. So if you think he visited Jerusalem that year it's not my history is wanting.
 
If you're now backing away from what you said before (because after all it was blatantly wrong) then admit it. Don't lie and say I said something you know I didn't.
 
Actually most of the time so did the Romans.
 
While its true the Romans generally allowed each nation within its empire to have their beliefs - it was also encumbent to honor Roman beliefs and deities. This posed no problem to Polytheist nations, and eventually disaster for the only monotheist one. The greeks, old enemies from the hanuka war, instigated Nero against the Jews, and the heresy charge was focused upon. The rest is history, namely when freedom of belief - became Mighty Rome's greatest war.
The Jews were specifically exempted from the need to venerate the emperor.
 
The world should, but wont [because!], give credit to those Jews who stood steadfast for their right of belief till the last man, woman and child slain.
They didn't have much choice.
What occured in Masada was only a small example of what occured with the Temple destruction: Romes greatest chagrin and shame [Vespasian refused the crown of V at the Colosium].
You're a fine one to malign someone else's historical knowledge. You're mixing up Vespasian (full name Titus Flavius Vespasianus) with his son Titus (full name Titus Flavius Vespasianus). It was Titus who did the refusing, and it was a laurel wreath not a crown, on the ground that there was "no merit in vanquishing people forsaken by their own God".
When you put your thinking cap on, instead of extending on useless points - you have to see this event in 70 CE as the most pivotal event which changed the world, and concluded in today's world scenario. Imagine if this war did not occur: no Christianity, no Islam, no Palestine, no blue mosque in Jerusalem, no m/e conflict, no holocaust - need I go on? Yes, one more important thing: no freedom of belief - for this was the greatest example of it in all recorded history!
Ridiculous. For just one example, Christianity had already spread to Rome and elsewhere in the Empire. That genie was out of the bottle.
 
The revolution and repression had virtually no effect on the world whatsoever. It didn't get rid of Judaism, it didn't get rid pf the Christians, it didn't have any effect on the coming of Islam, or anything else outside Palestine.
 
and requested their Bible be translated to Greek - this was what caused the septuagint. Flavius Josephus states the Greeks also got their alphabetical writings from the Jewish hebrew writings during this time
That is simply nuts. Why do you think Josephus knew anything about the origin of the Greek alphabet? I don't mind taking Josephus as a reasonable witness to events in his time, but he has novalidity at all as a historian of Greece.
 
Its factual history - not nuts. I mentioned Joseph as a more credible source than the sites you proposed - he was given total access to the entire Roman archives, where he wrote many volumes, listing the entire thread of Jewish history - including when Greece predated Rome.
And what makes you think the Roman archives contained any material whatsoever about events that preceded the foundation of the city, let alone the Republic? Roman records are reasonably accurate records of what happened in Rome and the societies it was in contact with, when it was in contact with them, but they are no more a valid guide to the early history of Palestine or Egypt or Mesopotamia than they are to what happened in Britain before 55 BCE.
 Josephus has total validity of the Greek history, and is hailed by his greek and roman contempoaries, as well as today's scholars, as an excellent historian. His archives are about the most dependable of all historical writings.
Only about things he knew something about. Legends from the distant past were just legends from the distant past to him as rthey are to us. More so, since we have archaeological findings that he did not have.
Josephus states the Greeks derived their alphabeticals from the Hebrew - and you don't have a greek contemporary disputation of it. In fact I posted for you a link where the Greeks acknowledge this.
 
My Q: have you an agenda based problem that the Jews would had alphabetical writings predating that of greece?
Nope. I couldn't care less who invented the alphabet. I just don't like to see spurious propaganda substituted for historical acccuracy.
 
In any case that has nothing to do with the fact that large numbers of Jews had emigrated in the centuries before 70 CE and settled abroad (threatening the disappearance of Hebrew, one of the things the institution at Jamnia was bent on preserving.
 
There is a tone you tell it with.
Don't be childish.
 
Actually, Jews were always a migratory peoples, many remained in the diaspora even when their exile ended - eg. most Jews remained in Bagdad [Babylon] and did not return to rebuild the 2nd temple - by this time many were wealthy and settled in their new home, spoke the language of their new host nations, and made great contributions there. This does not alter that Hebrew was forbidden by Rome, then by Roman Catholicism, which continued the Heresy decree - eventually killing off even more than did Rome. History.
Hebrew wasn't forbidden by Rome. It nearly vanished because the Jews stopped speaking it in favour of their local vernaculars, Aramaic, Greek, Latin depending where they lived. It became a dead liturgical language until its revival in modern times. Not too many Jews speak it with any fluency even today since its revival as a vernacular in Israel. Much the same of course happened to Latin and ancient Greek. And Church Slavonic for that matter.
 
Otherwise what you just said supports my original point. The diaspora started well before 70 CE and it was largely voluntary and economic, not forced. (Counting as voluntary people like the Jews of Babylon who chose to remain there after they were allowed to return.)
 
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 11:14
Originally posted by IamJoseph

Palestina was used before 70CE, but not officially, because there was no province to be called that until the aftermath of the war.
 
Usually, this jargon is seen in Islamist forums, to spin a lie into truth. Fact is, while Greeks did call the entire region, including Assyria, as Palestinea - this referred to the original Philistines - not to the later Palestinian accorded to the Jews by Rome. IOW, today's Arab muslims are claiming the name Palestinian since the 60's - but what they wish to promote is not that they were related to the Philistines, but the Palestinians which the Jews were called for 2000 years - this is meant to negate Jewish connection to the Jewish homeland. Everyone knows this - no one wants to say they do.
You're just making pure political propaganda. What difference does it make how Arafat used it? In modern English Palestine is the territory west of the Jordan mandated to Britain by the Leaguse of Nations. Earlier it was used somewhat more vaguely although the Jordan and the Mediterranean coast were constant borders, AFAIK under the Ottomans it was part of the province of Syria, but I'm open to correction on that.
 
 
There's no real reason to believe the Greeks were kin to the Philistines, except in the sense that all mankind is kin, or from the possibility that the Philistine language was Indo-European. There would be better reason to see them as connected to the Hittites or the mysterious Pelasgians.
 
Both were non semitic foreigners in Arabia, both hailed from the Agean.
Neither of them were in Arabia (don't you have any regard for accuracy?) Nobody hails from a sea. No-one knows where the Philistines came from, and the origin of the Greeks is somewnat uncertain. Even if by 'from the Aegean' you meant 'from the Aegean coastlands, that's not true of the Greeks, and datewise the Philistines are more likely to be related to the Pelasgians who were there before the Greeks.
 
I agree with Sarmat on this point.
The Greeks, upon entering the region, collaborated with the Philistines, who settled themselves at the coastal city of Gaza. These also spoke the same language. They called the region by that name to infer a take-over.
Where do you get this stuff from? It barely makes sense. We don't even know what language the Philistines spoke, bar a few words.
 
That they traded with the Greeks is true, but that was after they had settled in Philistia and after the Greeks had arrived. It doesn't mean they were connected before that.
 
No - the Philistines entered Arabia well before the greeks,
Do you have any idea of where Arabia is? I don't think the Greeks ever got there even under Alexander, except maybe for the odd trader.
and were present during the time of Moses, and even before. The Israelites took a longer route leaving Egypt in their exodus, bypassing the coastal King's H'way to canaan, because their kin [tribe of Benjamin, son of Joseph] made an attempt to escape Egypt prior to Moses. This tribe was massacred by the Philistines on the coastal route, and it was predent to avoid the Israelites seeing their bones and carcasses, for fear they would turn back. The Philistines, like the Greeks, wanted to take over canaan, and thus prevent the exodus. They could not be conquered because of their new iron armoury and weapons - not even Samson was able to defeat them, though he slew Goliath - a Philistine giant. King David did finally prevail, and the Philistine disappeared from history. Their name was resurrected by Rome a 1000 years later, as a mark the west/european dieties prevailed the m/e, and as a revenge of David's victory.
 
The Greeks referred to the original Philistines, who were destroted by David a 1000 years before the Romans resurrected this name and applied it upon the Jews in Judea.
They didn't just apply it to Judaea, but to the whole province.
 
Exactly! That is why it is a nonsense for the Arabs to claim Palestine was called Palestine pre-70 CE,
No it isn't. The quote says that Palestine was called Palestine (in the Greek equivalent anyway) well before 70 CE.
 
The rest of this is degenerating into political propaganda which has no place in this forum.
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 11:19
Originally posted by IamJoseph

I don't understand why you have to cite Britannica again. Britannica didn't claim that Phonician alphabet is derived from Hebrew it claims the thesis which I referred to above.
 
The Britania, arguably the most respected of all contemporary sources, claims Hebrew as the first introduction of any alphabetical writings. Someone is confused.
No it doesn't, and you are. Check back on the quote I already gave that you can find from Sarmat's link.
 
If you were interested in facts, which I gather you aren't, you could google on "proto-sinaitic" or at least look at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Middle_Bronze_Age_alphabets
 


Edited by gcle2003 - 22-Sep-2008 at 11:22
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  Quote IamJoseph Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 11:30
Have you any evidence of that, other than Josephus, who says nearly that number were killed in Jerusalem alone. If that were true then Jerusalem would have been the largest city in the whole Roman empire, bigger than Rome itself. Which makes it rather a suspect figure.
 
The tmple was also an impregnable refuge, and it was also the passover festival - these factors made the Jews flock to safety behind the temple's 3 outer walls, as well as to assume spiritual protection there. The jewish population was less than 10% of that of Rome [Josephus], namely 3 million contained themselves against the Roman high teck army and weapons. Josephus states 1.1 million perished in the war, giving breakdowns by sections and then a sum total. prior to this, 50K were killed in Cesaera, and crucifixions occured on a daily basis - upto 800 a day in all town squares. One reason why this omission in the Gospels negates its historical credibility - or worse.
 
The Jews were specifically exempted from the need to venerate the emperor.
 
The decree of heresy came from Caligula in 10 BCE. It was not enforced because of the assured war this would result in. However, later when the situation became intensified with rebellians, stemming from a host of attrocities, Nero activated this decree. This was the final straw which made the 70CE war inevitable, finally enabling all sectors and disputing parties of the Jews to fight for one single cause. Josephus also states, the pre-islamic Arabs were put in the front rows as mercenaries, destroying the temple with a vengence - yet they call this temple a myth today. There were also 10,000 Britons, enforced in the Roman army after the destruction of Londonium - for the same reason of heresy. This Roman decree of heresy with a mandated death penalty was then taken on board by Roman Catholocism. Both professed divine humans, converting the populations by the force of the rake. The rest is a bad history.
Moses - the First Zionist.
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 11:36
Originally posted by IamJoseph

Why would there be no disputation from the greeks when Josephus' long awaited writings say they got their alphabetics from the Hebrew? Would they not better put up a dispute than you doing so today? This factor was one of many I listed, and its a legit one, and any ridiculing of it does not change it.
The Greeks probably never heard of Josephus, who lived in Rome, even though he wrote in Greek. Not incidentally in Hebrew - there was no market for it.
 
Their version was that the alphabet was brought to Greece from Phoenicia by Cadmus. But then they also thought that Cadmus sowed dragons' teeth and raised soldiers. Bit like believing the sun stood still so someone would have time to win a battle. (Like some of the myths about the 1966 World Cup Final.)
 
The rest of this is getting too nonsensical to follow.


Edited by gcle2003 - 22-Sep-2008 at 11:56
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 11:55
Originally posted by IamJoseph

Have you any evidence of that, other than Josephus, who says nearly that number were killed in Jerusalem alone. If that were true then Jerusalem would have been the largest city in the whole Roman empire, bigger than Rome itself. Which makes it rather a suspect figure.
 
The tmple was also an impregnable refuge, and it was also the passover festival - these factors made the Jews flock to safety behind the temple's 3 outer walls, as well as to assume spiritual protection there. The jewish population was less than 10% of that of Rome [Josephus], namely 3 million contained themselves against the Roman high teck army and weapons.
10% of Rome is reasonable. That would make about 100,000. Josephus doesn't appear to have been a great mathematician, if your quoting him correctly, which you almost certainly aren't since they didn't have percentages in the first century.
Josephus states 1.1 million perished in the war,
No, he say in the destruction of Jerusalem.
giving breakdowns by sections and then a sum total. prior to this, 50K were killed in Cesaera, and crucifixions occured on a daily basis - upto 800 a day in all town squares. One reason why this omission in the Gospels negates its historical credibility - or worse.
Why should the Gospels mention something that happened forty years after the events they describe? I doubt that any of the gospel writers were even alive in 70 CE.
 
Still, if Alexander could visit Jerusalem 23 years after he died, anything's possible I suppose. Even 'The Gospels: the Empire Strikes Back!'
 
The Jews were specifically exempted from the need to venerate the emperor.
 
The decree of heresy came from Caligula in 10 BCE. It was not enforced because of the assured war this would result in. However, later when the situation became intensified with rebellians, stemming from a host of attrocities, Nero activated this decree. This was the final straw which made the 70CE war inevitable, finally enabling all sectors and disputing parties of the Jews to fight for one single cause. Josephus also states, the pre-islamic Arabs were put in the front rows as mercenaries, destroying the temple with a vengence - yet they call this temple a myth today. There were also 10,000 Britons, enforced in the Roman army after the destruction of Londonium - for the same reason of heresy. This Roman decree of heresy with a mandated death penalty was then taken on board by Roman Catholocism. Both professed divine humans, converting the populations by the force of the rake. The rest is a bad history.
 
Religion had nothing at all to do with the retaliation of the Romans for the Boadicea rebellion. In fact it's a pretty good parallel to indicate that the destruction of Jerusalem had nothing to do with religion. The Romans notoriously cared no more about people's religion than the Greeks did.
 
Caligula actually executed Flaccus for putting statues of gods in Jewish synagogues, and had Agrippa as an agent. Later he put a satue of himself in the temple, but then took it down again. Hardly a model of consistency, Caligula.
 
Nero according to Jewish tradition actually converted to Judaism and one of the leaders of the Bar Kochna revolt was a descendant of his. I'd agree that's apocryphal, but you seem to mop up ny old Jewish tradition and claim it is true.
 
He didn't persecute Jews, he concentrated on the Christians, whom he blamed for the famous fire.
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  Quote Maharbbal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 14:08
@ Vorian the lubas are the lubavitch and it is a dangerous fundamentalist Jewish cult.

@Jo
Once more the fact that some international events are correctly reported in the Torah is irrelevent to the discssion since the book is meant to report the Jewish history. At least admit that the oldest trick in the scroll is to add some mythified events to a generally accurate background. For instance, saying that David was a great king and not a mere highway bandit or a simple family chieftain has nothing to do with the fact that he lived during the reign of pharaoh X or Y.

On the contrary whenever it has been possible to check what the Torah said it has been shown to be if not straight out lies at least a mythification of history see for instance:
1. The exile to Babylon
2. The flight from Egypt
3. The great flood
4. The queen of Sheba, etc.

Besides the fact that the la says that nothing out to be subtracted or added sounds a hell lot like whether people closing the door after them (ie we've added many thing but nobody should do like us afterwards) or like one of these many rules that everybody agrees with but never respects (thou shall not kill doesn't mean that murder doesn't exist any more).
 
Where does this 10th C come from? I said something even more intense: even the gospels forgot to mention the Jewish defense of their faith against Rome - yet it found no shortage of remembrance about hapless money changers. Talk about priority!
 
Man you are harder to understand that prophet Eliah himself.

Then the fact that Judaism was under persecution is hardly an excuse. They found the time to write about nearly everything but not to record their own story, that's odd. And then again they haven't written anything during the good days in Ancona, Marseille or other places where they were well integrated for centuries.
 
 
In fact there are copious writings on these issues.

¿¿?? if you have some info, would be really really really helpful. I mean hundreds of historians have complained not to have the Jewish side of the story, if you know sources please let us know.

Last time I checked, not a shred of evidence was ever attached to those claims. The scrolls prove one assured fact: nothing was changed the last 2300 years - a period greater than the entire existence of the NT & Quran. This makes the OT the world's most un-distorted writings. The scrolls also impact on all writings before its time and during its time. It says the oppositte about the NT - that this was penned much later and not in this vicinity - the reason these were hidden and not disclosed for 40 years by the church - untill it was returned to the Jews in '67. You are proof what forces the Jews have to contend with! Have you forgotten the premise: THE TRUTH WILL SET YOU FREE - or is this meant to refer only to selective truth?

lol from the top of my mind the Greek tragedies are much older... but never mind
 

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  Quote Seko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Sep-2008 at 14:29
Obviously MrThinksHe'sJoseph has ranted a lot and made claims of dubious quality. Aside from the hyperbole you also attempt to portray your views as historical fact. In doing so you have made a critique I would like to see you back up with proof.
 
Originally posted by IamJoseph

In contrast, almost everything stated in the Gospels and Quran is outside the bounds of proof or historical evidencings, self declared as resting almost entirely on 'belief'. Lets not dismiss that both those belief systems became mass murderers for millions who were not able to absorb those beliefs.
 
Go ahead. What are the historical facts in the Old Testament as compared to and contradicted by the New Testament and Qu'ran? Even though I would hate to doubt your word I suggest that you present your proofs and le't all be the judge instead of naively passing by your accusations.


Edited by Seko - 22-Sep-2008 at 14:29
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