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Yiannis
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Topic: The Exodus never happened. Posted: 17-May-2008 at 15:08 |
Hyksos - I remember reading some article some time ago mentioning they came probably from Libya. Any other suggestions?
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The basis of a democratic state is liberty. Aristotle, Politics
Those that can give up essential liberty to obtain a temporary safety deserve neither liberty nor safety. Benjamin Franklin
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Posted: 16-May-2008 at 18:49 |
Originally posted by Zaitsev
Egyptian records are notorious for not reflecting things which caused state embarrassment.
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Ala Ramses II spinning the stalemate in Kadesh into a major Egyptian victory trouncing the Hittites.
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Posted: 16-May-2008 at 06:26 |
Egyptian records are notorious for not reflecting things which caused state embarrassment.
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Posted: 16-May-2008 at 05:51 |
There is a possibility that the Exodus happened from a historical standpoint, too. In much smaller and concnetrated numbers however. The article does not deduce conclusively to me that it did not happen. It makes bold statements moreso to provoke reactions.
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Posted: 16-May-2008 at 00:42 |
errr..... POST!?
I definitely have problems with that article. While it makes bold claims of no evidence to support the exodus and that its falsehood is 'beyond doubt' it produces no evidence to support its claims.
It does, of course, make good points about tradition... but that has little to do with the event itself.
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vladzo2
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Posted: 16-May-2008 at 00:14 |
to all ::::::::::::::::::::::::
count me in on this topic;
post me about new postings.
more later;
vlad
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Zagros
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Posted: 24-Apr-2008 at 12:24 |
By not prohibiting it, it condones it - this is evidenced by slave ownership in Islamic countries right up to the 20th century and to this day in places like Mauritania. So it doesn't do a very good job of discouraging it.
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Omar al Hashim
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Posted: 24-Apr-2008 at 10:57 |
It doesn't prohibit slavery but it certainly doesn't condone it. Freeing a slave it one of the best good deeds you can do, frequently, one of the ways to atone for a particularly bad sin is to free a slave. So I'd say that while slavery isn't prohibited, it is quite clearly discouraged.
Slavery is also the context of middle eastern slavery, ie Jannisaries and Mamlukes, not the Euro-American slavery. Slaves are given enough rights to prevent the Euro-American from being permissible.
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Zagros
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Posted: 23-Apr-2008 at 12:43 |
I am going to have to look more into it before I can add anything more for debate. I read about 1/3 of the way into the Qur'an (I gave up when it condoned slavery) and up to the point that I did read there was ample reference to Moses. If I get more time I will investigate and revert.
Edited by Zagros - 23-Apr-2008 at 12:44
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Posted: 23-Apr-2008 at 03:16 |
Originally posted by Omar
As far as I can remember the Quran only says that Moses preached monotheism and led a group of followers out of Egypt.
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I haven't read anything concerning specific numbers, but more focuses on Moses alongside quotations from Moses.
Edited by es_bih - 23-Apr-2008 at 03:18
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Omar al Hashim
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Posted: 23-Apr-2008 at 02:06 |
Originally posted by Zagros
You don't necessarily need archaeological evidence - a process of
deduction can also be used. The Qur'an mentions the Israelites and
Moses, so it can be correlated with the Bible. From the sacrificial
cow and all. Besides, the people of the Levant at that time (900BC)
are as the article describes - polytheists. Monotheism really took
grip on the return of the Judaic people from Babylon (550BC) - this is
a historically veritable fact. And since the word of Moses was of
monotheism it means that the story was written after the return from
Babylon. I agree that it serves only as an allegory. |
Only if you assume that monotheism only cropped up once in history. 550BC is the time of the Prophet Ezikial right? So according to tradition he was there to re-establish monotheism after the religion had changed since the previous prophet. What is wrong with this story: 1) Moses establishes monothesim, 2) Later, polytheism becomes more popular 3) Ezikial reestablishes monotheism Besides, when was exodus written? Retelling an old tale in a modern light is common too. I don't see any reason why Moses must be after 550BC. By that logic, shouldn't Ibrahim, Noah and all prophets also be after 550BC?
The Qur'an mentions the Israelites and Moses, so it can be correlated with the Bible |
But the bible has a lot of information that the Quran doesn't, and its that information we are arguing over. As far as I can remember the Quran only says that Moses preached monotheism and led a group of followers out of Egypt. It doesn't say how many, it doesn't say they invaded Palestine, it doesn't say anything you can prove or disprove.
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gcle2003
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Posted: 22-Apr-2008 at 20:03 |
Originally posted by Zagros
3 Thou shalt have no other gods before me.
4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth: 5 Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them. |
Many Mesopotamian myths entered Judaism after the Babylonian tenure, in addition to Zaroastrian concepts. Zarathustra demoted all deities to demon or angel status except Ahura Mazda and Angra Mainyu whom remained. Those commandments could well be inspired by this considering the reverence in which the liberators from Bablyonian captivity are held. The Pharisi priests also emerged after liberation from Babylon and they pushed some Zaroastrian-like concepts. I don't suppose their name could be a coincidence? I have even read that the Pharisis were Zaroastrian infiltrators into Judaism and largely shaped it.
This is all just speculation, of course, since its all coincidental. But it is logical. |
I really don't think the Ten Commandments and the basics of Judaism come from the Babylonian exile. Even if you dismiss the Biblical accounts (and by this time I think there was a great deal in them) the subsequent conflicts between the Pharisees (essentially the heirs of the returned Babylonian exiles) and the Sadducees (essentially the non-exiles) is pretty well confirmed and understood.
And there wasn't too much difference between the two, except for the afterlife concepts, and the less rigid adherence of the Pharisees to the letter of the law. (cf Hillel: "Do not do to others what is hateful to you. That is the whole of the law - the rest is just commentary".)
If the people who had been exposed to the Babylonian exile were less devoted to the letter of the law than the people who stayed at home, does that not indicate the law preceded the exile?
(Which does not of course mean that it goes back to Moses and tablets of stone from a mountain.)
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ulrich von hutten
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Posted: 22-Apr-2008 at 17:45 |
I once saw Yul Brynner and Charlton Heston in "The Ten Commandments". I must say: Every word is true..and if not, well invented...
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Zagros
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Posted: 22-Apr-2008 at 17:19 |
3 Thou shalt have no other gods before me. |
4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth: 5 Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them. [/quote]
Many Mesopotamian myths entered Judaism after the Babylonian tenure, in addition to Zaroastrian concepts. Zarathustra demoted all deities to demon or angel status except Ahura Mazda and Angra Mainyu whom remained. Those commandments could well be inspired by this considering the reverence in which the liberators from Bablyonian captivity are held. The Pharisi priests also emerged after liberation from Babylon and they pushed some Zaroastrian-like concepts. I don't suppose their name could be a coincidence? I have even read that the Pharisis were Zaroastrian infiltrators into Judaism and largely shaped it.
This is all just speculation, of course, since its all coincidental. But it is logical.
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gcle2003
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Posted: 22-Apr-2008 at 16:26 |
[
Originally posted by Zagros
Just because I post an article, it doesn't necessarily mean I am reflecting my own point of view.
You don't necessarily need archaeological evidence - a process of deduction can also be used. The Qur'an mentions the Israelites and Moses, so it can be correlated with the Bible. From the sacrificial cow and all. Besides, the people of the Levant at that time (900BC) are as the article describes - polytheists.
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Most of them, yes.
Monotheism really took grip on the return of the Judaic people from Babylon (550BC) - this is a historically veritable fact.
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Verifiable how? What seems undisputed that the concept of a personal afterlife only entered Judaism after the exile (or, more accurately I suppose, during it).
And since the word of Moses was of monotheism it means that the story was written after the return from Babylon.
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Your conclusion follows from your premises, but I'm not sure of the premises. Strictly, the ten commandments aren't monotheist.
Exodus 20
3 Thou shalt have no other gods before me. 4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth: 5 Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them.
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That's not a monotheist statement, but a polytheist one. It just forbids worshipping any god but the one known, inter alia, as Yahweh.
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Peteratwar
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Posted: 22-Apr-2008 at 13:43 |
Basically the facts are so few and far between that no definite conclusion can be reached
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Zagros
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Posted: 22-Apr-2008 at 13:23 |
Just because I post an article, it doesn't necessarily mean I am reflecting my own point of view. You don't necessarily need archaeological evidence - a process of deduction can also be used. The Qur'an mentions the Israelites and Moses, so it can be correlated with the Bible. From the sacrificial cow and all. Besides, the people of the Levant at that time (900BC) are as the article describes - polytheists. Monotheism really took grip on the return of the Judaic people from Babylon (550BC) - this is a historically veritable fact. And since the word of Moses was of monotheism it means that the story was written after the return from Babylon. I agree that it serves only as an allegory.
Basically I think the article is too dismissive, too much speculation and little fact. |
Well how much fact do you have to play with given the supposed date of the exodus, we can only reach conclusions through a process of deduction.
Edited by Zagros - 22-Apr-2008 at 13:25
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Omar al Hashim
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Posted: 22-Apr-2008 at 09:57 |
But the Romans were not in the habit of moving populations |
Originally posted by Seko
Originally posted by Zagros
Well then, this undermines the Qur'an as the word of god and the absolute truth considering the number of times the exodus is referenced. |
No problem. Non-muslims now have a stronger reason to stay away. Smile
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Zagros: I don't know what you're baseing that on. Quran says nothing about time or size. There is no reason why any archeological evidence might show up.
Originally posted by Peteratwar
Basically I think the article is too dismissive, too much speculation and little fact. |
I agree, it takes a little fact, a few theories, and spins a tale. Possibly just like exodius
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Posted: 21-Apr-2008 at 21:30 |
Originally posted by Theodore Felix
The exodus could have been a historical reality albeit in a far smaller scale then we are told in the Bible and under different circumstances. At one point Egypt was taken over by a people they called the 'Hyksos', a generalized name for what seems to have been a conglomeration of Semetic invaders, among them possibly even Hebrews. The Hyksos Pharaoh's ruled for some time and here we can possibly see how Joseph attained the position he attained in Egypt. The subsequent exodus could have very well come about when the Hyksos were finally expelled by a nativist movement. Modrzejewski in his "Jews of Egypt" says states that the exodus on a smaller scale(to the level of a minor skirmish which was played up by later Jewish tradition) |
That's what I have deduced, too. Exagarration is an evolution of the tale.
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Theodore Felix
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Posted: 21-Apr-2008 at 21:09 |
The exodus could have been a historical reality albeit in a far smaller scale then we are told in the Bible and under different circumstances. At one point Egypt was taken over by a people they called the 'Hyksos', a generalized name for what seems to have been a conglomeration of Semetic invaders, among them possibly even Hebrews. The Hyksos Pharaoh's ruled for some time and here we can possibly see how Joseph attained the position he attained in Egypt. The subsequent exodus could have very well come about when the Hyksos were finally expelled by a nativist movement. Modrzejewski in his "Jews of Egypt" says states that the exodus on a smaller scale(to the level of a minor skirmish which was played up by later Jewish tradition)
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