India - why didn’t Islam convert all of India...

Because Islam Never ruled all of India for starters, there were powerfull Hindu Kingdoms in the south whop remained independant from the Moghuls (although some paid tribute for a while IIRC). Before the Mughuls muslim powers only ruled parts of the North.
Muslim rulers havn't always been intrested in conversian, though, so theres no reason to assume that they would have even if technicly they could, and ultimatly its down to what the people there think, if Islam doesn't intrest them, then its a bit of a no go.

The Greatest emperor of Ghaznid Sultanate,Mahmud of Ghazni made 17 rushes to convert India.He wasn't very successfull,but he converted great amount of people into Islam in Northern India.

because the greatest muslim rulers of India where the ones that realized they would have less rebeliions if they left the Hindus alone.

Like the Balkan, the Turks occupated the Balkan for 500 Years (South-East-Europe) but only 10% of Balkanians are Muslims.

One reason was money:

 From Non-Muslims you can get more taxes, Muslims have only to pay 2,5% according to Kuran.

The other power:

Muslims must have citizen-rights, all others were threated like slaves, in Feudal System should all be slaves of the King.

Azimuth, he says that the pre-Ottoman Balkan peninsula was run by feudal systems which threated the common people like slaves, so Ottoman rule removed them.

Originally posted by azimuth Originally posted by ihsan Azimuth, he says that the pre-Ottoman Balkan peninsula was run by feudal systems which threated the common people like slaves, so Ottoman rule removed them. and that was one of the reasons that there are 10% of muslims in the Balkan??

It looks like what Bosnjo is saying is that there was not any forced conversion, therefore only the 10% number. The tax on minorities was for protection, since conscription into the armed service was not allowed.  However, Ihsan is correct in rephrasing that before the Ottomans, Balkan serfs had very little rights. 

Originally posted by Bosnjo Like the Balkan, the Turks occupated the Balkan for 500 Years (South-East-Europe) but only 10% of Balkanians are Muslims. One reason was money/P] From Non-Muslims you can get more taxes, Muslims have only to pay 2,5% according to Kuran. The other power/P] Muslims must have citizen-rights, all others were threated like slaves, in Feudal System should all be slaves of the King.

The difference is the the people of the Balkans, being Christains, were people of the Book so they were given the choice of paying the poll tax, convert, or die. Hindus are Pagan and pagans were not generally given the first two choices. I imagine it was the sheers numbers that prevented a wholesale conversion to Islam in India. Many converted to Islam to escape the Hindu cast system. I was reading about a movement in India for untouchables to convert to the Protestant faith to escape the corrupt caste system.
I do not know which is worse but it would be good to see oppressed people move up the social ladder.