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Topic ClosedRosetta Stone-Decoding the Demotic Text

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Direct Link To This Post Topic: Rosetta Stone-Decoding the Demotic Text
    Posted: 02-Jan-2008 at 19:24
Originally posted by Petro Invictus

Chicagogeorge please be careful what you post here, and read well:

Most Aegean prehistorians have accepted Ventris' decipherment of 1952, but there are some notable exceptions (e.g. Sinclair Hood).

LOL As you posted from the link I provided, most prehistrorians have accepted Linear B to be early Greek!Wink

as for Sinclair who is mentioned as one of the few opponents of Linear B being Greek. Here is what Robert Drews and others sayWink

The Coming of the Greeks: Indo-European Conquests in the Aegean and the Near ... - Page 17

by Robert Drews -  1988



Minoans: Life in Bronze Age Crete - Page 102

by Rodney Castleden





as for Jonathon Hall.....Here is an except from his book......

Ethnic Identity in Greek Antiquity - Page 160

by Jonathan M. Hall - Social Science - 2000


His views seem very balanced to meApprove




Edited by chicagogeorge - 02-Jan-2008 at 20:21
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 02-Jan-2008 at 19:30
Originally posted by Petro Invictus

Chicagogeorge your sources either suck or you are a genious in misinterpretation!




Clap My sources suck nowLOLLOL

Does Herodotus suck?
Does Aristotle suck?
Does Dionysus of Halikarnassos?
Does
Aeschylus?



Does Cook, Hall, Fine, Cambridge and Oxford suck as wellWink

Seems like the cat is backed into a corner and instinctively finds the need to attack........Cry

You think you will regain your credibility by posting critics of these books without you even reading them!LOLLOL

You can attack them all you want. Why don't you attack Cambridge and Oxford as well, since they too disagree with your assertions!Cool

Btw, I'm still waiting for your comments on Histories 8:43Sleepy on the Peloponesians Herodotus mentioned being Dorian and Makednian race!,

Here it is again. I wont let you get away without addressing it since you were sooo sure of your interpretation of Histories 1:56Wink





So did these tribes just cross Macedonia!LOL

ohh....and on the ancient quotes of the Pelasgians.......LOL





Edited by chicagogeorge - 02-Jan-2008 at 19:58
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 02-Jan-2008 at 23:16
Does Herodotus suck?
Does Aristotle suck?
Does Dionysus of Halikarnassos?
Does Aeschylus?


No they don't but you misinterpret it so nicely!


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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 02-Jan-2008 at 23:18
Chicagogeorge you just want to drift off from topic to topic, source to source, showing only extracts not providing a link to your spource, most often you send contradictory sources to your claim, you are a mess!!!

But I like you!!!

This is what my source says on the Histories 8.43:

"XLIII. The following took part in the war: from the Peloponnese, the Lacedaemonians provided sixteen ships; the Corinthians the same number as at Artemisium; the Sicyonians furnished fifteen ships, the Epidaurians ten, the Troezenians five, the Hermioneans three. All of these except the Hermioneans are Dorian and Macedonian and had last come from Erineus and Pindus and the Dryopian region. The Hermioneans are Dryopians, driven out of the country now called Doris by Herakles and the Malians."

Well it clearly shows that Dorians were separate race from the Macedonian, and that the Macedonians were never considered as Dorian or vice vesa. Why would they have put them together! Why would you say that all of them were American and Californian, if California is American?

Don't you see where you are getting it wrong! They are using the Dorian as the name for the Greek Doric tribes, and Macedonian for the name of the Macedonian tribes. They were always seen as distinct!!!

Even your source offers a translation that clearly shows that the Macedonians were a different race from the Dorian!!! Man we are talking races here!!! Who knows how radical it sounded back in those times?

Moreover we are not sure that Herodotes refered to the Macedonians here. I mean there is a phonetic similarity, but is it the same tribe?






Edited by Petro Invictus - 02-Jan-2008 at 23:29


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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 01:12
Originally posted by Petro Invictus



If the south Slavs came from the Carpathian mountains then they would have had to cross the Hunic and Avaric lands, which makes it even more insane!
 


Not so insane, didn't the Turkic tribes cross over Persian, Armenian, and Kurdish lands to end up in Asia Minor or what is now TurkeyWink


Originally posted by Petro Invictus

Chicagogeorge you just want to drift off from topic to topic, source to source, showing only extracts not providing a link to your spource, most often you send contradictory sources to your claim, you are a mess!!!

But I like you!!!


Every one of my sources gives you the book name, author and page number.....It is you has NO sources, and refuses to see what is as plain as day!



This is what my source says on the Histories 8.43:

"XLIII. The following took part in the war: from the Peloponnese, the Lacedaemonians provided sixteen ships; the Corinthians the same number as at Artemisium; the Sicyonians furnished fifteen ships, the Epidaurians ten, the Troezenians five, the Hermioneans three. All of these except the Hermioneans are Dorian and Macedonian and had last come from Erineus and Pindus and the Dryopian region. The Hermioneans are Dryopians, driven out of the country now called Doris by Herakles and the Malians."


Even your source offers a translation that clearly shows that the Macedonians were a different race from the Dorian!!! Man we are talking races here!!! Who knows how radical it sounded back in those times?

Moreover we are not sure that Herodotes refered to the Macedonians here. I mean there is a phonetic similarity, but is it the same tribe?




also, you assertion is that the Peloponesians where part Dorian, and part Macedonian in other words two different races speaking a different languages, yet Herodotus called them Peloponesians and Hellenes.......ConfusedLOL



for the 5th time...LOLLOLLOLLOLLOL

Quote:

Of the DORIAN PEOPLES some known as Macedni (Herodotus 1.56) came from south-west Macedonia; a remnant of these perhaps formed the NUCLEUS OF THE CLASSICAL MACEDONIANS.

<Oxford Classical Dictionary, 2nd ed. (1970), s.v. Macedonia, by N.G.L.Hammond, p.633>








Well it clearly shows that Dorians were separate race from the Macedonian, and that the Macedonians were never considered as Dorian or vice vesa. Why would they have put them together! Why would you say that all of them were American and Californian, if California is American?


Spartans and Corinthians were both Dorians but were separate nations, and at the same time both were Hellenic.Wink



Don't you see where you are getting it wrong! They are using the Dorian as the name for the Greek Doric tribes, and Macedonian for the name of the Macedonian tribes. They were always seen as distinct!!!


Which brings us back to Histories 1:56.... Cool Since I understand Greek (including a lot of ancient Greek) I know that Herodotus said......., they settled, under the name of Macedni, Winkin the chain of Pindus. Hence they once more removed and came to Dryopis; and from Dryopis having entered the Peloponnese in this way, they became known as Dorians.


Oxford seems to think this way too!LOL

1. Northwest Greek speakers originating in the Pindus under the name Makednoi. Some went south who then became known as Dorians.



Plus I'm sure you are well aware that the Macedonian Royal House claims decent from Herucles (same as the Spartans) which is a Dorian tradition.Clap Both the Spartans and Macedonians share this....Hhmmmm I wonder where they got thisWink Oh wait the Spartans are Dorians! The Macedonian Royal  house comes from Argo in the PeloponeseWink Is it starting to make sense to you now.....Cool Dorians=Makednoi


N.G.L Hammond: The Macedonian State:
Quote:
As we have mentioned in Chapter I, Perdiccas and his brothers came from Argos and Peloponnese. They were members of the Royal house of Argos, the "Teminidae", descendants of Temenus, whose ancestor was Heracles, son of Zeus; it was this Temenus who led the Dorian tribes into the Argolid and founded Dorian Argos late in the 12th century. Thus Perdiccas came to Macedonia with the aura of divine favor, and he could claim that the Temenidae and the Argeadae were both descended from Zeus and so were diogeneis. To Greeks of the classical period the Temenid name was well known. Thus the oracle which was concerned post eventum with he following of the new capital, Aegeae, by Perdiccas began with the line "The noble Temenidae have royal rule over a wealth producing land. Herodotus made a special point of emphasizing that the royal house of Macedonia was Greek by descent, and Thucydides, who questioned much of what Herodotus said, concurred with him in calling the Macedonian kings "Temenidae from Argos". Almost a century later Isocrates wrote to Philip II, saying "Argos is your fatherland", and he asked Philip to emulate his father [Amyntas], the founder of the monarchy [Perdiccas], and the originator of the family Heracles)."
page 18.




 
Alexander the Great (The Norton Library) by Ulrich Wilcken






and here is what your sources state from Wilcken......(a Slavo Macedonian Propaganda website).....

http://www.historyofmacedonia.org/AncientMacedonia/wilken.html.

NOTICE WHAT THEY LEFT OUT! i OUTLINED IT IN RED FOR YOU ABOVEBig%20smile



Am I still distorting the facts and the sources Petro..Wink...


Edited by chicagogeorge - 03-Jan-2008 at 06:27
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 09:17
Originally posted by Petro Invictus


 This is a modern map indeed. I used it as a visual aid only. I want to point out that the Slavic linguistic identity has existed here even before it was first recorded in a script! The Slavic culture which developed in the north and the east is just one side of the story.
How should your map do this. Well, I told you that the Slavs entered Poland e.g. not before 450 AD. So your map doesn't say anything.

Originally posted by Petro Invictus

The other is in the south. We are having this debate only to justify the existence of proto-Slavic or ancient Macedonian words in the Demotic text of the Rosetta stone, and the main reason it is difficult for you to understand is because of the misconception with the Slavic migrations.
I told you, that if you are right the Thrako-Illyrians on the Balkans, together with your Macedonians would be one linguistic stock. These Balkan stock is linguistically similar to the norther Slavian stock. Ok. Do you know Cavalli-Sforza. In one of his books he mentioned that ltwo anguages that descand from one are equal in 86% of their vocabulary after 1000 years. (I don't like mathematics in linguistic but let us use it). So if we would say Bulgarian and Croatian were divided 1000 years ago they have 86% of common vocabulary with this old Croato-Bulgarian but only 74% with each other. If we take Homer's time, nearly 3000 years ago than to divided languages would have only 30% of common vocabulary and if we go back 5000 years there is just less than 1% left. Your Macedonian shall be older than 12.000 you once mentioned here. So why are the Slavian languages so close related if they were divided so many thousands of years before?

Originally posted by Petro Invictus

If the Slavs totally invaded the Balkans they must have wiped out all of the previous linguistic element and imposed their own, which would be absurd since the fact that the Slavs were illiterate and the natives were more civilized would make it more palusible to say that the natives influenced the newcoming Slavic tribes, at least linguistically and culturally.
I gave you an answer. I can't see that it is more plausibl to say Illyrians and Thrakians are Slavs or Macedonians.

Originally posted by Petro Invictus

The Slavic migrations occured in the 6th century AD, but those tribes were only migrationg from the regions around the Danube to the southern safer regions of Byzantium. This was due to the Hunic and Avaric raids! I showed the map to point at the fact that it is more obvious to accept that the Slavic subtratum was there before the Hunic and Avaric raids, and after this moment they split up in northern and western group, and southern which was created after the migrations of the Slavic groups from the territories now occupied by the intruding tribes, to the lands of their kins. The mixing of popualtion was natural due to the similar linguistic background of the tribes. If the south Slavs came from the Carpathian mountains then they would have had to cross the Hunic and Avaric lands, which makes it even more insane!
But there is such migration recorded from the Kiew-Kultur. When the Huns migrated westwards they drove a lot of germanic nation with them and the Alans, too. So why not the Slavs. If they appear in the sources they are mentioned together with Avares, Huns, Antes, where is the problem?


Originally posted by Petro Invictus

So it is more plausible to say that the native people of Macedonia, or Byzantium were of similar origins with the incoming Slavic tribes and when merging into a single culture they produced the Slavic literacy that spread across the Slavic world.
But then the Macedonian had to be very close to the other Slavic languages because of the long time of division between these stocks or on the other hand Macedonian was overuled by the incoming Slavic language. 

Originally posted by Petro Invictus

It was the Macedonian Slavs from Thessaloniki who gave the Slavic people their own alphabet and langauge! According to the life of St. Methodius Michael III decided to send the two brothers from Thessalonika because, as he states: "... all of the Thessalonians speak purely Slavic". This document if the earliest Slavic writen record, and at that time Thessaloniki was still not conquered by the surrounding Slavic tribes. So how come the Emperor of Byzantium said that the people of Thessaloniki spoke pure Slavic!
Ratislav of Moravia was the first who asked Patriarchos Photois for a christian mission. It was not a theological discission but one of politics. The Roman and the Byzantinian church were trying to get influence on the Balkans and with them the Frankish and the Byzantinian Empires. So Ratislav decided to ask for help in Konstantinopel, because for him it would be a n advantage. This mission failed because the especially bavarian church succeeded. In 885 the pupils of Method and Kyrill fled to Bulgaria, where Boris/Michael became christian in 864/5 as well because of an political decission. Untill 870 he tried to install an Bulgarion bishop from the Roman church, but then he decided to subdue under the Byzantinian church. The Byzantinian church was open for a slavic liturgia, so they brought the christian believe to Bulgaria in the language of the Slavs. You are right. Method and Kyrill learned their Slavic around Thessaloniki, but they weren't Slavs, elsewhere they wouldn't need to learn it.

Originally posted by Petro Invictus

The population in Macedonia was of similar linguistic origin as the newcoming Slavic tribes, besides the Roman and Greek influences of the past.
See above.

Originally posted by Petro Invictus

How else can you justify the fact that the Moravians asked for help from Byzantium not Russia as the theory suggests, when it comes to the langauge. Do you think they thought that the Slavic tribes who settled south, and were not even accustomed to the Byzantine rule, would be able to produce a script to protect the Moravian Slavs from Latin influence!!!
Or maybe you would say that the Moravians asked for the Greeks to help, but the Greeks were "generous" so they allowed a new script to be invented and given to use by the Slavs, thus loosing control over such a vast number of people!!!
Yes I do, because see above.

Originally posted by Petro Invictus

This would be very wrong since we know that the biggest opponents of the Thessaloniki brothers were the Greek priests.
Were they? Where do you have your ideas from?
 
 
By the way, can you answer me my questions to you, why Demotic appears in /th century in Egypt?
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 11:28
"Eventually the most cursive form of hieratic became the demotic which gives no hint of its hieroglyphic origin. By 600 BCE, the hieratic, which was used to write documents on papyri, was retained only for religious writing. The demotic became the every-day script, used for accounting, writing down literature, writings, etc. The following demotic inscription is from the famous Rosetta Stone. It bears no resemblance whatsoever to the hieroglyphic script. In fact, it is so cursive that it resembles more like the Aramaic scripts used around the Fertile Crescent at this time."

http://www.ancientscripts.com/egyptian.html



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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 11:36
But there is such migration recorded from the Kiew-Kultur. When the Huns migrated westwards they drove a lot of germanic nation with them and the Alans, too. So why not the Slavs. If they appear in the sources they are mentioned together with Avares, Huns, Antes, where is the problem?


Yes they did drive some Slavic tribes west and north. As well in the south. However, the issue here is what was the origin of the Macedonian population in Byzantium at that time. There are sources who point out that the newly arrived Slavic tribes were merging with the indigenous population since they were not so much different.

The earliest Slavic sources point at the fact that the inhabitants of Thessaloniki spoke pure Slavic in the 9th century, when we know that at that time Solun was surrounded by the Slavic tribes but the town was inhabited by the old population, Macedonian!

Literacy comes as a result of advanced civilizational achievements! Slavic literacy could have appeared only with the civilized Slavs, and the Macedonians were the only Slavic people who lived in an organized system such is the Byzantine.    

You should not mix the west, north and south Slavic tribes.

The migration of the Slavs in the Balkans was first recorded by the Byzantine historians, under the name Sklavenis. However, this term was used with Avars as well, and to Byzantine authors it meant "military allies".

We know of these tribes that settled Macedonia at that time:



However, the question that poses is what happened to the numerous indigenous population of Macedonia and the Balkans. If the Huns and Avars are the new foreign element that separated the Slavic world, maybe the Slavic world was always present there before the invasion of the Hunic, Avaric and Tataric tribes.

Otherwise, how did they manage to erase the indigenous population of Byzantium, when we know that this population gave the Slavs Christianity and literacy!!!

If the indigenous Macedonian population melted in the Slavic element, then the question is how similar they were? Since, there is usually a rejection if the intruding element is foreign!!! In the Balkans not just that there wasn't rejection, but there was a willingness to merge into a single culture, on both sides, Macedonian and the newly arrived Slavic tribes!!!

Take a look at Bulgaria. The territory of Bulgaria was occupied by the Bulgarian Tatars, and they melted in the Slavic element. These mongolic people can be seen even today in some places in Bulgaria, but the predominant element was Slavic. However when the Bulgars intruded they tried to pose their own language as official, but to no avail. Except for the Khans and their people, no one else spoke the langauge. They then accepted the Byzantine Koine as an official language, but as soon as the Cyrillic script appeared, they took the literacy of the indigenous people, the Macedonians, and allowed their state to be strongly influenced by the Slavic linguistic element.

It was obvious that the Slavs were the indigenous population. Since the Bulgars were the newcomers! Those Slavic tribes that migrated were merely driven south from the Danube region because of the Hunic intrusion!!!

   

Edited by Petro Invictus - 03-Jan-2008 at 11:52


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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 11:55
Chicagogeroge!

Which brings us back to Histories 1:56.... Since I understand Greek (including a lot of ancient Greek) I know that Herodotus said......., they settled, under the name of Macedni, in the chain of Pindus. Hence they once more removed and came to Dryopis; and from Dryopis having entered the Peloponnese in this way, they became known as Dorians.


We already took a look at the Greek text and it doesn't say "under the name of"!!! MISINTERPRETATIONS!!!

exanest-to raise up: to make one rise
hupo-from under, by, c. gen. under, c. dat., towards
Kadmein-name of tribe
oikee-to inhabit, occupy
kaleomenon-to call, summon

This still gives the following result:

"...driven from this Histiaean country by the Cadmeans, it settled about Pindus in the territory called Macedonian;"

It doesn't say that the tribe were called Macedonian or Makednoi, whatever?

They occupied Pindus in Macedonia, the territory was called Macedonia not the Dorians!!! You occupy a territory and it doesn't say that they were called Macedonian by any source! Who called them Macedonian!!! And why did they become known later as Dorians!?!

It seams that they were negotiating identities according to your story!

Why are you misinterpreting obvious facts!?!




Edited by Petro Invictus - 03-Jan-2008 at 11:56


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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 12:04
Plus I'm sure you are well aware that the Macedonian Royal House claims decent from Herucles (same as the Spartans) which is a Dorian tradition. Both the Spartans and Macedonians share this....Hhmmmm I wonder where they got this Oh wait the Spartans are Dorians! The Macedonian Royal house comes from Argo in the Peloponese Is it starting to make sense to you now..... Dorians=Makednoi


The Dorians never had a ROYAL HOUSE!!! This is the main proof that they were different from both the Macedonians and the Spartans. The Dorians were copying the Macedonian culture and took Hercules as their hero too. It seems to me!!! The Dorian invasion occured when Macedonian kingdom was at its full rise!!! And you are saying that the newcomers, the Dorian gangs, who demolished the kingdoms of the Mycenean world, told the Macedonians who their ancestor was!!!   

Why did the Dorians change the political system into a "democracy", why didn't they establish kingdoms! What was so different in the organization of the Macedonian and Greek tribes so that one group came up with a KINGDOM and the other with ELITE rule of a group!!!

I have a theory!!! The Macedonians developed their kingship based on tribal organization, which is based on healthy familiar tribes, rather than the Greek outlaws who couldn't establish healthy families and tribes, so that they couldn't reach the position of the Divine King to rule over all. They had to organize themselves in a gang, which later became the Aghora. Similar to the Romans!

I mean just a theory!


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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 12:08
But then the Macedonian had to be very close to the other Slavic languages because of the long time of division between these stocks or on the other hand Macedonian was overuled by the incoming Slavic language.


If the Macedonian was overruled by the incoming Slavs, how come the Macedonians from Thessaloniki spoke the Slavic perfectly!!! After, all Thessaloniki was the further most town to conquer, and it wasn't conquered at the time of the Slavic literacy!!!


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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 15:20
It is not said that they learned it in Thessaloniki but from the Slavs around. At those days the Thema Thessaloniki was just a little stripe along the coast. If your Macedonian was so widespread on the Balkans, why do they tell us where they learned it and why was it necessary to learn it. Sure they were some guys who knew it?.
 
You say I mix the northern Slavs with the Southern ones and wit the Macedonians. Well, fact is, that South Slavian is close to Eastern and Western Slavian. I don't know anybody who denies it. You told us that the Macedonians are a very old nation. I rember you said even 12.000 years old. If these Macedonians lived on the Balkans and the other Slavs lived north of the Balkans, why are their languages so similar, even mor similar than e.g. Germanic languages? There is no Macedonian invasion recorded to the north, so they couldn't bring it there and the troups that intruded the Balkans sice the 6th century you called not significant. So they couldn't bring the Slavian language to the Macedonians. Perhaps you can see the problem you have. It isn't possible. And if you're right that your Macedonians came so early to the Balkans, they came so much earlier than the Phrygians, well, just much more earlier than every other indoeuropeans. That means, that the norther slavs must have stayed together with all the other groups. So we have to expect, that they are more similar to them as to the Macedonians. If I look on your map I miss your Macedonians. Where are they. Do they live in that little region that is left out, close to your Armenians. It#s a little region, if they were your Balkan ground stock I would expect them all across the Balkan. So how can this be. I think you have another problem
 
And now to your Demotic. Demotic evolve like Hieratic from Hieroglyphs. There is no doubt. But even if not, why do the Egyptians used Demotic in the 7th century? I could believe you if it would appear with the Makedonian invasion under Alexander, but it came 300 years before him. So how could it be Slavian?
 
Can you explain me?
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 17:44
Originally posted by Petro Invictus

Chicagogeroge!

Which brings us back to Histories 1:56.... Since I understand Greek (including a lot of ancient Greek) I know that Herodotus said......., they settled, under the name of Macedni, in the chain of Pindus. Hence they once more removed and came to Dryopis; and from Dryopis having entered the Peloponnese in this way, they became known as Dorians.


We already took a look at the Greek text and it doesn't say "under the name of"!!! MISINTERPRETATIONS!!!

exanest-to raise up: to make one rise
hupo-from under, by, c. gen. under, c. dat., towards
Kadmein-name of tribe
oikee-to inhabit, occupy
kaleomenon-to call, summon

This still gives the following result:

"...driven from this Histiaean country by the Cadmeans, it settled about Pindus in the territory called Macedonian;"


It doesn't say that the tribe were called Macedonian or Makednoi, whatever?


They occupied Pindus in Macedonia, the territory was called Macedonia not the Dorians!!! You occupy a territory and it doesn't say that they were called Macedonian by any source! Who called them Macedonian!!! And why did they become known later as Dorians!?!

 


So here is where one needs to know a little ancient Greek to understand thisWink It says kaleomenon; to call or summon:  The subject of the sentence is Hellenic nation, and Makednon kaleomenon is an adjectival determination to that subject. Clap
 


It seams that they were negotiating identities according to your story!

Why are you misinterpreting obvious facts!?!


Now will you make me post the Oxford quote for a sixth timeLOL



Edited by chicagogeorge - 03-Jan-2008 at 17:50
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 17:56
No dear! The territory they settled was called Macedonia! They were called Dorian when they settled the Peloponnese!

That is why the translation of the text by Herodotus goes:

"The Pelasgian race has never yet left its home; the Hellenic has wandered often and far. [3] For in the days of king Deucalion1 it inhabited the land of Phthia, then the country called Histiaean, under Ossa and Olympus, in the time of Dorus son of Hellen; driven from this Histiaean country by the Cadmeans, it settled about Pindus in the territory called Macedonian..."

This is a correct interpretation and it is by Herodotus, The Histories (ed. A. D. Godley).

Alfred Denis Godley (1856--1925) was a classical scholar and author of humorous poems. From 1910 to 1920 he was Public Orator at the University of Oxford, a post that involved composing citations in Latin for the recipients of honorary degrees. One of these was for Thomas Hardy who received an Honorary D. Litt. in 1920, and whose treatment of rural themes Godley compared to Virgil.

He also published a translations of Herodotus (1921) and Horace's Odes (1898).

Here is another translation of Herodotus:

"For in the days of king Deucalion it inhabited the land of Phthia, then the country called Histiaean, under Ossa and Olympus, in the time of Dorus son of Hellen; driven from this Histiaean country by the Cadmeans, it settled about Pindus in the territory called Macedonian; from there again it migrated to Dryopia, and at last came from Dryopia into the Peloponnese, where it took the name of Dorian."

http://truth.macedonia.gr/quotes.html

"For in the days of king Deucalion it inhabited the land of Phthiotis, then in the time of Dorus son of Helen the country called Histiaean, under Ossa and Olympus; driven by the Cadmeans from this Histiaean country it settled about Pindus in the parts called Macedonian; thence again it migrated to Dryopia, and at last came from Dryopia into Peloponnesus, where it took the name of Dorian"

http://www.hri.org/Martis/contents/main3.html

"Herodotus, The Histories: "These races, Ionian and Dorian, were the foremost
in ancient time, the first a Pelasgian and the second a
Hellenic people. The Pelasgian race has never yet left its home; the
Hellenic has wandered often and far. For in the days of king Deucalion
it inhabited the land of Phthia, then the country called Histiaean, under
Ossa and Olympus, in the time of Dorus son of Hellen; driven
from this Histiaean country by the Cadmeans [Phoenicians], it settled about
Pindus in the territory called Macedonian; from there again it
migrated to Dryopia, and at last came from Dryopia into the Peloponnese,
where it took the name of Dorian." (the localities mentioned in
the story of the migration into the Peloponnese are all in northern Greece)."

http://www.illyrians.org/pelacase.html

Was that enough!?! So the misinterpretation you posted here, is either an intended mistake, or you do not know your own ancient Greek.

The problem is that you added an extra "and", when you say "and were called Makednoi"!!! There is no such an interpretation in any other translation of Herodotus. Are you reinventing Herodotus?

The tribe known as Hellenic moved a lot, and it settled about Pindus, in the territory called Macedonia! And that is true!!!

However, the Macedonians were never part of this Hellenic race! The Macedonians in Herodotus were mentioned as parallel to the Greek race, which we already confirmed, but I'll do it once again:

"The following took part in the war: from the Peloponnese, the Lacedaemonians provided sixteen ships; the Corinthians the same number as at Artemisium; the Sicyonians furnished fifteen ships, the Epidaurians ten, the Troezenians five, the Hermioneans three. All of these except the Hermioneans are Dorian and Macedonian and had last come from Erineus and Pindus and the Dryopian region. The Hermioneans are Dryopians, driven out of the country now called Doris by Herakles and the Malians."

Now you answer this question: Can you list Americans and Californians next to each other, when we know that Californians are Americans?

If the Macedonians were Dorians, why would they mention them as separate races?

I am waiting for your logical explanation!





Edited by Petro Invictus - 03-Jan-2008 at 18:15


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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 18:24
It is not said that they learned it in Thessaloniki but from the Slavs around. At those days the Thema Thessaloniki was just a little stripe along the coast. If your Macedonian was so widespread on the Balkans, why do they tell us where they learned it and why was it necessary to learn it. Sure they were some guys who knew it?.


You sure do not think that the Thessaloniki population was playing hide-and-seek with the Slavic kids from outside the walls? Who said they learned it from the Slavs who lived areound the town walls?

Because the Life of St.Methodius - THE FIRST SLAVIC TEXT - gives the following information:

Mosne citiranoto Panonsko zitie na Metodija govori za toa deka "vie ste Solunjani, a poznato e deka site
Solunjani chisto slovenski zboruvaat." Toa se zborovi na Mihail III, car na Vizantija. Ili toj laze ili lazat istoricharite koga govorat deka Slovenite nikogas ne go zazele Solun.

Translation:

The well quoted Life of St.Methodius tells us that the words of Michael III, a Byzantine Emperor were as follows: "... you are people from Thessaloniki, and since all the Thessalonians speak pure Slavic...". So it is either the Emperor was lying or the historians are lying when they say that the Slavic tribes never occupied Thessaloniki!

You say I mix the northern Slavs with the Southern ones and wit the Macedonians. Well, fact is, that South Slavian is close to Eastern and Western Slavian. I don't know anybody who denies it. You told us that the Macedonians are a very old nation. I rember you said even 12.000 years old. If these Macedonians lived on the Balkans and the other Slavs lived north of the Balkans, why are their languages so similar, even mor similar than e.g. Germanic languages?


Please do not mix the west and north Slavic migrations, with those that occured in the south!!! I am talking about the migrations of the middle ages. Since you mentioned the Kiew culture, which is a different story, at least when it comes to the migrations!!!

Yes the Slavic world has a very strong linguistic resemblance!!! The Slavic world before the Hunic, Avaric, Tatar and German intrusion were occupying the regions from the south of the Balkans to the steppes and lowlands from beyond the Danube. The intrusion of the Hunic tribes caused the Slavic tribes to migrate. So the west and north groups moved further north, and the Danube cultures moved south. The population in the south was linguistically very similar to the newcomers, which caused the smooth merging!!!

The root of the Slavic literacy is in Macedonia since the Macedonians have always been similar to the medieval Slavic tribes! If the Macedonian Slavs invaded the regions of the Balkans, where they were Christened by the indigenous population, who were the indigenous people? What language did they speak?

Now let us think hypothetically!

If the Slavic tribes invaded the Balkans, and the indigenous population was not Slavic, not even close to them, how could they communicate with eachother to pass on Christianity?

Do you think that the Slavs started learning Greek or Latin?

Or did the locals learn the language of the newly arrived barbarian Slavs just because they liked them?

And if the Thessaloniki brothers were Greek, why wouldn't they impose the Greek language to the Slavic people, why would they give them a new script, and the Bible in their own langauge, to which all of the Latin and Greek priests fiercely opposed?

And if the earliest Slavic sources say that the population of Thessaloniki spoke pure Slavic at the time, why would we not believe them?

       

Edited by Petro Invictus - 03-Jan-2008 at 18:37


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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 18:55

Makednon in the specific quote is  a adjective that qualifying the object and is not a neuter noun. Neuter noun is the Pindos. The object were the Dorians. You need grammar lessons.

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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 19:04
Now let us just imagine:

The Slavic people have always been in Europe, the south most of them being the Macedonians. The Macedonians came to rise after the Dorian invasion which came from south and pushed the proto-Macedonian tribes a bit north. However, the Macedonian conquest brought Macedonian population closer to the Danube region, where they interacted with the Celtic culture. There is enough evidence on this in Belgrade archeological sites.

After the fall of Macedonia, the Macedonian people in the south were exposed to a fierce assimilation by the Romans, however, in a due time they managed to reach the highest ranks of the Roman empire and even rule it. Constantine of Naissus was the first in this line! Then those who followed him, like Justinian from Skupi and his Macedonian dynasty, continued using their mother tongue alongside the Koine and Latin!!!

During this time, from 4th century BC until the medieval migrations caused by the Hunic raids starting from the 3rd century AD, the Macedonian population from teh Danube region must have spread further north, and occupied the lands beyond the Danube. They had their undisturbed existence in the steppes for about 700 years.

When the Hunic tribes intruded from Asia, they started occupying territories previously occupied by the Macedonian population!!! The Macedonian population, now Slavic, started moving in several directions, west, north and south.

Those that came south mingled with the Byzantine Macedonians and produced the Macedonian Slavic nation.

This nation would not gain independence, since it was already ruling the Byzantine Empire. The name of Constantinopol that has survived in Macedonian folk tales is "Tsarigrad" (meaning the Emperor's town). It is only in Macedonian folk tradition that we find this name for Constantinople. It is obvious that the Macedonians felt the capital of the empire as their own capital.

It is a fact that at that time, as well as in many other occasions, the Macedonians had ruled the Byzantine court. Basil I Macedonian was confirmed by Arabic sources to be Slavic. He was most probably of mixed Armeno-Slavic origin. It is interesting to note that the Arabs who did not interact with the Slavs, knew that the Byzantine emperor was Slavic. Or that is what they claimed at that time!!!

The Macedonians like Cyril and Methodius, Clement and Naum, and many other literary workers were following the "Byzantine agenda", while the Bulgarian Khans and then Samuil, were against it! Later the Serbs gained independence from Byzantium, just like the Bulgarians, and the Macedonians remained within the Empire since they were the creators of it!!!

An interesting notion is the amount of Byzantine architecture present in Macedonia! Macedonians lived with that culture and Byzantium for the Macedonians was their own kingdom. The rest wanted independence, and they got it but much later, after the Turkish occupation!

Macedonians were again the last to starts with their nation building since they always felt cosmopolitan, and they beleived that the whole of the Balkans should work as one to get rid of the common oppressor! Little did they know at the time that the neighbours were cooking something in the Balkan oven!

The independence came to all of the Balkan states, except for Macedonia!!! Interesting situation!

When we know that the customs, costumes, music, food language, traditions of the Macedonians are quite different from the rest in the Balkans, meaning it is a separate people we are talking about here!!!

Why were Macedonians sabotaged for the Buchurest agreement, I don't know?

Why all the neighbouring policies were attempting for more than a century to assimilate the Macedonian ethnos, it was the case with all of them, Serbia, Greece, Albania, and Bulgaria?

I mean, there is something smelly here! I am also trying to work it out!   

    


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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 19:04
Originally posted by Petro Invictus



The Dorians never had a ROYAL HOUSE!!!


LOL

Originally posted by Petro Invictus


This is the main proof that they were different from both the Macedonians and the Spartans.


So the Spartans were not a Dorian tribe!LOL

Originally posted by Petro Invictus


The Dorians were copying the Macedonian culture and took Hercules as their hero too. It seems to me!!! The Dorian invasion occured when Macedonian kingdom was at its full rise!!!


The Dorian migrations occurred a generation after the Trojan War. At that time the Macedonians were nothing more than a pastor tribe in the West Pindus under the name Makednoi (as Herodotus tells us). The Macedonian kingdom didn't begin to expand untill several centuries after the Dorian's tribal movements.

Originally posted by Petro Invictus



And you are saying that the newcomers, the Dorian gangs, who demolished the kingdoms of the Mycenean world, told the Macedonians who their ancestor was!!!   

What you said makes no sense at all.Confused

Originally posted by Petro Invictus


Why did the Dorians change the political system into a "democracy", why didn't they establish kingdoms! What was so different in the organization of the Macedonian and Greek tribes so that one group came up with a KINGDOM and the other with ELITE rule of a group!!!



Ok......Confused, the Dorians DID NOT introduce Democracy. It was the Ionian-Athenians who did. Clap

The Dorians in fact maintained Kingdoms and Oligarchies....


Example:

Sparta was Dorian and was a Kingdom. Corinth was Dorian and it was a kingdom.  The city of Locris was a Kingdom and they were DoriansTongueEpiros was the homeland of the Northwest Greeks (which Dorians were a part of) and those tribes were divided into kingdomsWink


I have a theory!!! The Macedonians developed their kingship based on tribal organization, which is based on healthy familiar tribes, rather than the Greek outlaws who couldn't establish healthy families and tribes, so that they couldn't reach the position of the Divine King to rule over all. They had to organize themselves in a gang, which later became the Aghora. Similar to the Romans!

I mean just a theory! [/QUOTE]

Confused I guess you know little about how the Makedones say they established their rule of their land.....

Story of the Macedonian star, and the origins of the Royal House Big%20smile

In the eighth book of Herodotus' Histories, he tells about the ancestors of the Alexander I Philhellene. As he is a descendant of Temenus of Argos, who in turn descended from Zeus' son Hercules (Dorian)Wink.



Herodotus, The Histories 8.137-139 .

Now of this Alexander the seventh ancestor was that Perdiccas who first became despot of the Macedonians, and that in the manner which here follows:

From Argos fled to the Illyrians three brothers of the descendants of Temenus, Gauanes, Aeropus, and Perdiccas; and passing over from the Illyrians into the upper parts of Macedonia they came to the city of Lebaia. There they became farm servants for pay in the household of the king, one pasturing horses, the second oxen, and the youngest of them, Perdiccas, the smaller kinds of cattle; for in ancient times even those who were 'rulers over men' were poor in money, and not the common people only.

The queen cooked for them their food herself. And whenever she baked, the loaf of the boy their servant, namely Perdiccas, became double as large as by nature it should be. When this happened constantly in the same manner, she told it to her husband, and he understood that this was a portent and tended to something great. He summoned the farm-servants, and ordered them to depart out of his land. They replied that it was right that before they went forth they should receive the wages which were due.

Now it chanced that the sun was shining into the house down through the opening which received the smoke, and the king when he heard about the wages said, being inspired by a divine power: "I pay you then this for wages, and it is such as you deserve," pointing to the sunlight.

Gauanes and Aeropus, the elder brothers, stood struck with amazement when they heard this, but the boy, who happened to have in his hand a knife, said: "We accept, oh king, that which you gave", and he traced a line with his knife round the sunlight on the floor of the house, and having traced the line round he thrice drew of the sunlight into his bosom, and after that he departed both himself and his fellows.

They were going away, and one of those who sat near the king at table told what the boy had done, and how he had taken that which was given with some design. When the king heard this, he was moved with anger, and sent horsemen to slay them. Now there is a river in this land to which the descendants of these men from Argos sacrifice as a savior. This river, so soon as the sons of Temenus had passed over it, began to flow with such great volume of water that the horsemen became unable to pass over.

So the brothers, having come to another region of Macedonia, took up their dwelling near the gardens of Midas the son of Gordias, where roses grow wild which have each one sixty petals and excel all others in perfume. [...] Above the gardens is situated a mountain called Bermion, which is inaccessible because of the cold. Having taken possession of that region, they made this their starting-point, and proceeded to subdue the rest of Macedonia.

From this Perdiccas, Alexander descended as follows: Alexander was the son of Amyntas, Amyntas was the son of Alcetes, the father of Alcetes was Aeropus, of him Philip, of Philip Argaeus, and of this last the father was Perdiccas, who first obtained the kingdom.



Quote:

Herodotus made a special point of emphasizing that the royal house of Macedonia was Greek by descent, and Thucydides, who questioned much of what Herodotus said concurred with him in calling the Macedonian kings Temenidae from Argos. Almost a century later Isocrates wrote to Philip II, saying Argos is your fatherland, and asked Philip to emulate his father (Amyntas) the founder of the monarchy (Perdiccas), and the originator of the family (Heracles).
[For further references consult Hdt.5.22;Thuc.2.99.3;Thuc.5.80.2; Isoc.5.32 and 105-12]

N.G.L Hammond A History of Greece to 322 B.C., pg. 18

Quote:

There is no doubt that this tradition of a superimposed Greek house was widely believed by the Macedonians.

Eugene Borza: In The Shadow of Olympus: page 80

Quote:

There was a persistent, well attested tradition in antiquity that told of a group of Greeks from Argos-descendants of Temenus, kinsman of Heracles - who came to Macedonia and established their rule over the Makedones, unifying them and providing a royal house.

Eugene Borza: In The Shadow of Olympus:, page 80

Quote:

There is no reason to deny the Macedonians own traditions about their early kings and the migration of the Macedones..The basic story as provided by Herodotus and Thucydides, minus the interpolation of the Temenid connections, undoubtly reflects the Macedonians own traditions about their early history

pg 84.

Constance & Crossland: Macedonian Greece:

Quote:

Herodotus stated quite clearly that Perdiccas, the first recorded king of Macedonia, and his descendants were Greeks and there is no reason why we should not take the Father of Historys word on this fundamental point.

page 16.

N.G.L Hammond: The Macedonian State:

Quote:

The matter is of only academic interest to a few scholars today. No one in antiquity doubted the truth of the claim.

page 19

Quote:

As we have mentioned in Chapter I, Perdiccas and his brothers came from Argos and Peloponnese. They were members of the Royal house of Argos, the Teminidae, descendants of Temenus, whose ancestor was Heracles, son of Zeus; it was this Temenus who led the Dorian tribes into the Argolid and founded Dorian Argos late in the 12th century. Thus Perdiccas came to Macedonia with the aura of divine favor, and he could claim that the Temenidae and the Argeadae were both descended from Zeus and so were diogeneis. To Greeks of the classical period the Temenid name was well known. Thus the oracle which was concerned post eventum with he following of the new capital, Aegeae, by Perdiccas began with the line The noble Temenidae have royal rule over a wealth producing land. Herodotus made a special point of emphasizing that the royal house of Macedonia was Greek by descent, and Thucydides, who questioned much of what Herodotus said, concurred with him in calling the Macedonian kings Temenidae from Argos. Almost a century later Isocrates wrote to Philip II, saying Argos is your fatherland, and he asked Philip to emulate his father [Amyntas], the founder of the monarchy [Perdiccas], and the originator of the family Heracles).

page 18.

Quote:

It seems now that Alexander wanted from the Greek states a public and universal recognition of his benefactions, and that he wanted it as being himself a Greek of the Temenid family

page 235

N.G.L Hammond A History of Greece to 332 B.C.:

Quote:

In the early fifth century the royal house of Macedon, the Temenidae, was recognized as Greek by the presidents of the Olympic games. Their verdict was and is decisive; for modern critics adduce no evidence. It is certain that the Kings considered themselves to be of Greek descent from Heracles, Son of Zeus. The royal house of Lyncus in Upper Macedonia claimed descent from the Bacchiadae, who fled from Corinth about 657. The great wealth of another Royal house has been revealed by the gold masks and furniture discovered in tombs of the late sixth century of Trebenishte near Lake Lynchnitis. The Temenidae and
Bacchiadae certainly spoke Greek.

page 534.

Quote:

He [Alexander III] believed himself to be of divine descent on both sides, from Heracles, son of Zeus, and Achilles, son of Thetis. At the Temple of Zeus Ammon this belief may have been confirmed; for thereafter he showed a special regard for the temple, and his friends believed it was his wish to be buried there and not at Aegae in Macedonia. He may have felt in 324 that his deeds justified him to emulate Achilles and Heracles, and therefore he sought from the Greeks the recognition which they alone could give, by according him godlike honors as a Greek.

page 641

Quote:

The Macedonian kings had much in common with the Mycenaean kings protrayed in the Iliad. They, too, were sprung from Zeus. For Philip claimed to be a descendant of Heracles, the son of Zeus. He put the head of Heracles on his earliest coins, named the first city-foundation Heraclea, and dedicated a statue of Heracles at the mouth of the Danube. He worshipped Zeus at Dium, dedicated a treasury to Zeus at Olympia, defended Apollos shrine at Delphi, and placed the heads of Zeus and Apollo on his coins. It is significant that Isocrates asked Philip as a descendant of Heracles to consider all Greece his fatherland.

H. Bengston A History of Greece: from the beginnings
to the Byzantine era., page 199

Thomas R Martin: Ancient Greece From Prehistoric to Hellenistic Times:

Quote:

Macedonians had their own language related to Greek, but the members that dominated Macedonian society routinely learned to speak Greek because they thought of themselves and indeed all Macedonians as Greek by Blood

page 188

Quote:

The Macedonian people and their kings were of Greek stock, as their traditions and the scanty remains of their language combine to testify. `

John Bagnell Bury, A History of Greece to the Death of Alexander the Great, 2nd ed.(1913)




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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 19:05
Originally posted by akritas

Makednon in thespecific quote is a adjective that qualifying the object and is not a neuter noun. Neuter noun is the Pindos.The object were the Dorians. You need grammar lessons.



Akritas, Macedonian is also an adjective, however, in the quote you have in mind, Macedonian refers not to the name of the wandering tribe but the territory around Pindos!!!

The object was the territory around Pindos mountains, called Macedonian.

You need logic lessons!

You are hilarious!!! And you think you can get away with this?

Edited by Petro Invictus - 03-Jan-2008 at 19:29


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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Jan-2008 at 19:14
Dorians DID NOT introduce Democracy. It was the Ionian-Athenians who did




"In the 12th century, the power vacuum created by the decline of Mycenaean civilization was filled by Greeks speaking the Dorian dialect, who invaded the peninsula from the north. Greek tradition characterized this movement as the “return” of the sons of Heracles (Heraclidae): Hyllus, Dymas, and Pamphylas, who were the eponymous founders of the three Dorian tribes.

The Dorians originally came from southern Macedonia, though the Greeks derived their name from the city of Doris in central Greece. It may be that the Dorians settled there for some time before moving into the Peloponnese. The Argolis, Lacedaemon, and Messenia were conquered, and the Achaeans and Arcadians pushed into corners of the peninsula. Other Dorian groups attacked the Aegean Islands, and conquered Thera, Melos, and the central portion of Crete. A few cities in Asia Minor (principally, Halicarnassus and Cnidos) were founded or cofounded by Dorians.

The Dorian invasion corresponded with the start of the Iron Age in Greece, but despite the introduction of this superior metal, culture as a whole declined in Greece as a result of the Dorian invasion."

http://www.bartleby.com/67/174.html

Herodotus gave the earliest historical expression of a three-fold division:[1] "... those who dwell in our land are called Ionians, Aeolians and Dorians." General names inherited from earlier times were considered to be in one of these three groups, from the earliest literature; for example, the Achaeans (also known as Danaans, Δαναοί, and Argives, Ἀργεῖοι) were primarily Ionians and Aeolians.

The three groups are seldom described by abstract concepts in the ancient sources. The Dorians are almost always simply referenced as just "the Dorians," as they are in the earliest literary mention of them in the Odyssey,[2] where they are already in Crete. Herodotus does use the abstract ethnos[3] with regard to them, the Greek word from which English ethnic comes, which appears in the modern concept of ethnic group.

It was after this invasion that the Greek "democracy" came to existence. However it was far from democracy!

"The basic unit of politics in Ancient Greece was the polis, sometimes translated as city-state. "Politics" literally means "the things of the polis." Each city was independent, at least in theory. Some cities might be subordinate to others (a colony traditionally deferred to its mother city), some might have had governments wholly dependent upon others (the Thirty Tyrants in Athens was imposed by Sparta following the Peloponnesian War), but the titularly supreme power in each city was located within that city. This meant that when Greece went to war (e.g., against the Persian Empire), it took the form of an alliance going to war. It also gave ample opportunity for wars within Greece between different cities."





Edited by Petro Invictus - 03-Jan-2008 at 19:15


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