A few weeks ago there was an article on the Spanish newspaper EL PAIS, stating a theory that the majority of modern populations do not descend ENTIRELY from ancient and medieval populations, but only a fraction of them: notably the country nobility.
Why?
Prior to the industrial age, endemic diseases were rampant and most human populations lived on subsistence level. Infant mortality was very high and anthropolgists have made the calculation that every woman would need to have at least 5 children to maintain a stable population, because on average 3 of them would not make it to reproductive age.
In major cities like London, Paris, Bagdad, Beijing, or Delhi, the mortality rate would have been even higher due to the unhygenic conditions. It has been estimated that as recent as the 1700s diseases killed of 40% of each generation of Londoners, with their numbers recompensated by immigrants from the countryside.
However, the nobility, due to a more nutritious diet and more advanced sanitary habits, enjoyed a longer life expectancy with a greater proportion of their children surviving to reproductive age.
People from the countryside also lived under better conditions than those in the cities.
If we take on average that a noblewoman living in the countryside had 7 children in which 4 of them survived to have children, while a plebian city-dwelling woman had 5 (she had more probability to die in childbirth) in which only 2 surivived; filtering through the generations, the genes of the "country nobility" would no doubt dominate over the entire population.
Since the invention of modern medicine and sewers, this tendency has been halted, as rich and poor people had the same probabilities of having descendants who survive them.
However, most of us alive now would carry a disproportionate amount of genes from the medieval aristocracy, with plebians, serfs, and slaves leaving a much smaller genetic imprint.
Do you think this theory makes any sense?