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Centrix Vigilis
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Topic: Colonist-Indian relations Posted: 19-Jun-2012 at 10:17 |
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Interelations were predictable on both sides.
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Nick1986
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Posted: 16-Jun-2012 at 20:36 |
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It's thought Raleigh's colony at Roanoke failed because the English deserted the fort and joined the local Indians. Early colonists spoke of Indians with blue eyes who spoke a language that sounded like Welsh
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Me Grimlock not nice Dino! Me bash brains!
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Nick1986
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Posted: 15-Jun-2012 at 19:20 |
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In many cases the early colonists "went native." Fur trappers married local squaws, wore the buckskins of their adopted tribe, and participated in the customs. One of the reasons wigs were so popular in the Americas was because the Puritans banned long hair among the colonists due to its association with the Indians
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Me Grimlock not nice Dino! Me bash brains!
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Mrhistoryguy23
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Posted: 09-Mar-2007 at 18:23 |
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will you please delete this topic that i posted? Northman?
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Northman
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Posted: 09-Mar-2007 at 18:09 |
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Mr. Historyguy - stop this spamming now!
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Mrhistoryguy23
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Posted: 09-Mar-2007 at 17:36 |
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because my life is depending on it!
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pinguin
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Posted: 09-Mar-2007 at 17:35 |
If you are not interested, you have thousand of other topics to chose.
Why do you worry that much
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Mrhistoryguy23
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Posted: 09-Mar-2007 at 17:03 |
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please some one delete this topic now! or else im a dead man!.. seriously.., no lie! please delete it!! please please .., erase all of it now!! thank u!
please let me live! HELPPPP!!!!!! DELETE!!!!
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pinguin
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Posted: 08-Mar-2007 at 11:24 |
Absoluty agree!!!
That's what I though as well. There is just a matter which is not quite clear: how many Natives lived in North America at the time of contact?
I believe the 10 million number is a little bit exagerated, though. Between 500.000 and 1 million is a more likely figure, because theirs economies were based mainly in hunting and basic agriculture. There were not large densities in North America. With respect of people's densities, the U.S. it is very much like the Amazon and Patagonia regions.
If so, you not only have a preservation but population growth.
Now, this topic is very interesting to determine if there was really a large scale genocide in the U.S. or rather what was going on it was an overcrowding of locals and massive assimilation. I believe the later is closer to the true.
Pinguin
Edited by pinguin - 08-Mar-2007 at 11:25
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Maharbbal
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Posted: 08-Mar-2007 at 01:24 |
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1/16 seems enormous to me, but after all why not...
I don't know exactly how many "whites" are in the US, but lets assume for the sake of simplicity, 160 millions (maybe less but lets say that the Blacks that have white ancestry account for the rest). Now lets say there were about 10 millions natives in 1500 north of the Rio Grande (maybe less, but once more I'm guessing).
If we follow Dawkins' vision stating that (1) selection takes place at the gene level and (2) that what drives the individual is the survival of its gene pool, we get this: the effects of the natives' genocide have been repared!
10 millions natives in 1500 = 1/16th of 160 millions in 2000. It is a bit like in economics where you have secular trends a country's economy fluctuats around but ultimately follows for centuries. It also allows us to give a stricter definition of a genocide; it is not properly killing a given group of people, but to prevent this group of people to reproduce and pass on its gene pool.
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es_bih
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Posted: 08-Mar-2007 at 00:57 |
You both have valid points. Even by observation you can see this quite clearly. I myself have two "American" friends you could say, who both have Native ancestry, one not so much, rather the norm of 1/16th that pinguin mentioned, the other more pronounced genetically speaking into the 1/4th at least I believe, however neither one of them shows the phenotype, except that they lack abundance of facial hair. It is quite common to find many people who have at least a little Native admixture down the line that they do know about, so you can naturally assume that the numbers of people who have it altogether must be much higher, as many people usually do not know past maybe three generations of ancestors. It is largely forgotten I believe, due to the dominance of the Anglican American cultural identity. The mainstream does not require a maintenance of Native or any other customs or language for that matter, therefore, such traits are lost while the DNA is still there.
In the early times this did happen quite frequently, the area of study that I am familiar with would be the Great Lakes region around Illinois, Iowa, Wisconsin, and Canada. This area was populated by many Native tribes, and scattered French fur trading outposts. The French came largely as traders, and Jesuits, there were much less women among the new comers than for any other group. They intermarried with the Native women for trading advantages, and to establish family ties, and contacts; for that was the nature of the beast of the trading networks of the 17th century Midwest. However, as in Indian Women and French Men, Susan Sleeper Smith notes that this intermarriage pattern went into the 18th and 19th centuries as well when towns and American social infrastructure had been built up more widespread in the Mid West. Naturally, the offspring by now, lost touch with the Native side, as they lived in cities, and adhered to Anglican culture rather than to their Native halves or whichever percentile their admixture had been. If it had been widespread here, even after the establishment of more widespread settlements, it makes only sense that it would be in other places as well.
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pinguin
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Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 22:26 |
Well, my sources are genetic studies, particularly one made by Shiver.
I agree with your analysis absolutely. I think the Natives were overcrowd by outsiders, and that's the main reason theirs numbers diminished. Besides, the assimilation machine worked hard. How do I know? Because I have seen that working in several places of Latin America, particularly in South America.
I also know of several "extinguished" tribes whose genes are in the mainstream today.
Most of the time, Native Americans migrated to the cities and lost theirs culture and immediately they were not considered "Indians" anymore. Perhaps lower class people, but not Indians.
Besides, it is well known in the U.S. that intermarriage between settlers and Natives although not totally blessed by society, it was not considered strange either. The fur trade is well know, but that's not the only case. And testimonies abound.
And you are right also with the point that mixing happened quite early. Afterwars the new european immigrants hardly married with pure Natives but with locals that already had admixture. Generation after generation of new arrivals diluted the admixture. Today the average is 1/16.
If the descendents of a Native marry during four generations with European you get the average admixture of the U.S. You will hardly notice in the phenotype, but sometimes you do.
Pinguin
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Maharbbal
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Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 21:56 |
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pinguin I'm for sure not a specialist of the Americas as you are but, to me it appears clearly that the European migrant and the native did not mix... everywhere the same way. For instance, French colonies did not have enough settlers so they were using slaves to do what ever farm labour was needed. All these slaves (far from it) were not African, many of them were female and male POWs. Hence, logically when you have women around...
On the contrary, I have never heard of any plantation in Virginia or Carolinia or where ever in the southern English colonies using natives as workforce after the 1650s. And guess what? Those that had the most settlers won! So the most mixed populations and you can cultures were assimilated by the less mixed.
The figures you gave (where did you fished that BTW?) only support this point: important trace in the DNA but none in the culture... So there seem to have been a aculturation of the mix-blood. Although, once more the territories that would eventualy become the US of A were extremely diverse, it would be (I doubt it) interesting to seen if they are evenly spread over the country and possiblely to which tribes they are related.
I have a hypothesis: early settlers (Poncahontas style) are the most likely to have mixed with natives. I've been told that 13 millions Americans nowadays had genetical material dating back to the May Flower. Lets forget the exact figure which is of dubious origin to concentrate on the most important: early settlers had a lot of kids (they were very religious). Early mixing (before Independence) thus would have a much more important impact on the 2007 American gene pool than a late one.
Now remember that (1) the European population remained clustered on the East coast and mainly the northeastern colonies for almost 200 years (1580s-1770s), (2) the tribes there had real diplomatic and commercial relationships with the Europeans who to an extant respected these "nations" and (3) the eastern native were farmers and as such more numerous and closer to the European than say, the Sioux. So it would also explain why more mixing happened early.
Finally, the eastern native have been totally destroyed. To give you an idea there are 8,000 Hurons left for 750,000 Cherokee (wikipedia). One of the possibilities is that more eastern natives have been assimilated. Once the settlers reached the plain in the 1770-80s and specially in the 1820s-70s, the American identity was already strong.
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pinguin
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Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 20:06 |
I am talking of White people. Blond blue eyed Americans of "germanic" aspect that doesn't have any single Native American feature but that the genetic test show they have Native Ancestors. With modern genetics, it is becoming increasingly clear that that many people with Native ancestors simply forgot about them.
That's what I am talking about.
I am not talking about Hispanics, Brazilians and even Quebecois that admit openly they have Native Ancestry, but of the White Americans and theirs "Cherokee princess". Well, it is false Cherokees had royalty, but ancestry do exist.
More strange for you would be to know that many Latinos haven't a single drop of Native. Funny isn't?
Pinguin
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Decebal
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Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 17:19 |
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what's the "white population", pinguin? Does it include the descendants of French (migrating from Quebec in the 19th century) and Spanish Americans (who don't include the recently-arrived and not yet assimilated "latino" population, but rather the descendants of Spanish colonists from Florida and Texas). Because those populations woould have had a significant native component. Let alone the large recently arrived "latino" population, who would bring an even larger native component.
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pinguin
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Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 17:05 |
The idea that the immigration of Spaniards to the Americas was only of males is not quite true. It is true only for the 10 years period of the conquist. It is also true there was a sex imbalance for a long time. But European women always came as immigrants as well, in large numbers. Large masses of immigrants of both sexs came to Latin America both before and after independence, up to 1960. Afterwards immigration drop almost to zero.
The following statement is a well established myth in North American history:
"did not mix with the natives"
But there are enough testimonies of the time that show that may not be the case. Otherwise, how do you explain, with the huge immigration of Europeans to the U.S. during 2 centuries, there is still a 6% of Native American genetics in the "White" population of the U.S.?
Admixture is there. What is needed are the historical details of how does it happened.
Pinguin
Edited by pinguin - 07-Mar-2007 at 17:07
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Decebal
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Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 16:24 |
I think you have to look at the reasons and patterns of immigration from England as opposed to Spain, France and Portugal. The colonies of the latter had a relatively small immigration from the mother country, and usually males at that. The reason was that Spanish, Portuguese and French colonies were at first primarily oriented towards economic exploitation of raw resources (gold and silver for the Spanish, silver and sugar for the Portuguese, furs for the French). The type of lifestyle that awaited the colonists was difficult, while potentially very rewarding financially. Hence, the early colonies of these countries had a relatively low, predominantly male population, which had a need for native labor and of course native women. Thus, the countries which developed out of these colonies have a strong Amerindian component.
By contrast, the English' primary motivation for immigration was religious. Fundamentalist protestant groups would found colonies in the hope of creating new idealized religious communities far from the distraction of the "corrupt" society of England. Thus, the early American settlers tended to be rather exclusivist and did not mix with the natives. True, natives could have been converted and assimilated, but as Maharbbal noticed, linugistic evidence points to the contrary.
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What is history but a fable agreed upon?
Napoleon Bonaparte
Even if you are a minority of one, the truth is the truth.- Mohandas Gandhi
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Mrhistoryguy23
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Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 16:12 |
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You got a nice point their penguin..., I think the White Amercians were just selfish at the time and wanted to take over period..., but i guess that was normal in that period of time...
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Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 13:52 |
I would say there is a big unknown in here. An upper case X
How many natives abandoned the tribal way of living an assimilated to the settlers? I believe they were quite a few.
I am not talking about mixed Natives that identify as Natives.
I am talking about Mixed European-Native people that identify as WHITE.
How many were there in colonial U.S.?
In the rest of the Americas they were many. In the U.S. myth says there were none.
If theirs numbers were important, they we can realize what happened to many native peoples: they were absorved into the mainstrem.
More data please
Pinguin
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Maharbbal
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Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 13:49 |
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I'm no specialist about the early modern America so my point are only personal opinions I couldn't back by any evidence. That being said, I doubt the very existence of an American identity and I am pretty convinced that if there was any the India side contribution to it was close to zero.
As the case of the creoles (first and second generation of conquistadores) proves, being in the colonies tended to give the colons an identity of their own. But this is more due to the distance than to any interaction with other cultures. The issue is even more complex in New England as the colons migrated with their own very strong group culture (the quakers being the most famous exemple but there was plenty). More over, the colonies' territory was divided and more or less each colony had a different statut.
My view of an identity is anti-structural, i.e. even though identities can last millenia (the Jews in Europe for instance), they tend to appear and disappear suddenly. They tend to be centred around one interest common to all (fight against taxation for the case of the English colonies) or believed to be so (after all Manchester didn't have any representent in Parliament, they didn't ask for their independence).
So, in my opinion, colons saw themselves as differrent from the English from England, but I'm not sure they though of each other as Americans. It is not by chance that in the first version of the constitution each state was independent!
Concerning the natives' influence on the American identity (once more I'm guessing) I think it was pretty limited to a small part of the population mainly males who shared experiences with Indians (wars, traping, trade). For most of the settlers and the fist urbanites, natives were simply a nuisance and if there was any reference to them I'd guess it was merely rhetorical.
The whole native-friendly culture rised slowly from ca 1870 to 1970 before becoming prevalent nowadays and you have hardly a son of Irish immigrants in NYC who doesn't say: "yes I have some native blood somewhere".
One of the most important composent of identity is the language. If the indians had been instrumental in the creation of the identity (and not some ex-post reference) American English would be full of Indian words. Is it? The story is quite close to what happen to the Celts in England. English is 50% Germanic 50% Latin and has only three celt words in it. It pretty much support the view that the Celtic part of the English culture is a recreation, nothing else.
One of the most important reason for that is the character transitory of their culture, no massive stone buildings easily visible... Another reason is that there was hardly any unity in the native culture. The US and Canada (much more so than Mexico) is a European invention, colons didn't invade one country and made it their, they shaped the territory as if it was some raw material. Even the states have little or nothing to do with the tribes they took the name of.
Ultimately, a people cannot live in guilt. Well the German more or less can but they are the exception that confirms the rule. Americans discover the horror upon which their nation was based. As it was impossible to simply forget about it (as the Japanese did), to pretend you didn't know (as the European do for colonisation) or to simply pretend nothing happened (see the Turks and the Armenian genocide (it is just an example I don't wish to dwell about)), the American "decided" to swallow their victim and to integrate them into their identity.
When I'm saying decided I'm not refering to any consipiracy and I'm not saying that the average American woke up one morning saying: "gosh why don't I integrated the native into my identity?". I'm just saying it did happen because it was the less painful path for the American society to face its past. It is actually a very common feature of the national visions of history, it avoids nations to feel divided between the good ones and the bad ones.
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