OF COURSE (if we exclude the Inquisition from the equation )
The initial jump of Columbus is related with the classical view of spices and trade, and certainly, many of the spanish actions was directed by those modern objetives, too their administration and politic in the colonies after the initial moment, but during the crucial years, the bulk of the initiatives, the more powerful push was because feudal-warrior-religious causes that have roots in the Reconquista procces against the moors, in fact, a huge continuation of that process.
This shouldn't be a surprise, because was a time of confuse mixture of modern and medieval characteristics.
Of course there is a conection between all of those events.
The Hispaniards were invaded by the Muslims. They have 7 centuries to accumulate hate. And when they had the chance they did.
Meanwhile:
(1) They transformmed themselves into a warrior society, where the fighters were at the top of the social pyramid.
(2) They become a fanatic Christian society, intolerant with the invaders (Muslims) and to the suspected collaborators (Jews)
So, when they captured Granada, they decided to get rid of all the opposing religions at the same time. They call the Inquisition to make sure Christianity impossed on the masses. They expeled the Jews for the same reason. And, at the end of the reconquist there was a need to continuing fighting and conquering new lands for the mass of warriors that existed in Spain: America fullfill that necesity.
So, everything make sense from the historical point of view. It is not that I approve it at all, but those are the reason why that happened.
Ikki, why exclude the inquisition from the equation? Didn't it, like the reconquista, have a "cleansing" objective? Also, I'm not sure where you are drawing the connection between the objectives of attaining spices and trade with the reconquista. What you are saying is very interesting, please just clarify a little so I can better understand. :)
pinguin, so you are saying that because Spain developed a "warrior class" through its conflict with the Moors and Jews, you believe that because of the need to keep the warriors busy they the monarchy decided to fund Columbus' exploration and colonize the new world?
Thank you for your replies guys. This is indeed a very interesting topic and I'd really like to learn more about it if you guys can help. Anyone else that may have some input please share! :)
The initial premise for the proposed expedition of Columbus was to find a faster, more direct route to the Far East in order to trade for the highly prized Far Eastern products. This is clearly stated in the history books. The spreading of Catholic Christianity aspect was secondary, in the sense that Columbus did not initially portray himself as a missionary and/or crusader. However, that mindset was assumed to be held by every Spanish subject at the time. The main issue of Columbus was to convince Ferdinand and Isabella that he could make Spain the richest, most powerful country in Europe by finding that direct all-water route to the Far East.
...pinguin, so you are saying that because Spain developed a "warrior class" through its conflict with the Moors and Jews, you believe that because of the need to keep the warriors busy they the monarchy decided to fund Columbus' exploration and colonize the new world?
Pretty much indeed. Nobody in Spain planified to discover the New World. It was really a lucky strike. But once they have it, the need to colonize the New World and of conquer New People served as a scape valvule for the social pressure of Spain itself.
Spain was a very rigid society, with a few landowners on the top and a mass of poor people that very often suffered from hunger, pest and lots of problems. The proffesion of the arms was one of the only chances a poor Spaniard has to scalate the social ladder. Besides, there were lots of noble people in poor conditions, particularly the second or third children, and many others that just have the title but not the money, and they wanted to have it.
It is very well know that most of the Conquistadors, including Columbus, were people of middle or low social conditions that wanted to make money. Even more, people like Pizarro didn't know how to write! Others were relative poor fellows or poor nobles who want a chance, like the case of Cortes. In the Americas social differences stopped, and only courage counted to make its own fortunes. It is not very well know, but the rate of survival of the Spanish conquerors was quite low.
And it is not strange they did in the Americas exaclty what they did in Spain during the reconquist of Moorish lands. They founded towns, repopulated fields, fight the "infidels", impossed religion to the masses, build churches to spread the religious mentality and national identity, and founded universities, to spread Greek-Roman civilization they believe it was theirs own.
All the Spanish conquestors, for example, were devotees of Santiago (Saint James the Moors' killers), which has its temple in Santiago of Compostella. Santiago was the saint of the Reconquist, a magical figure that directed the Spanish armies and that gave Spain an identity and a couse, and a figure that still directed them today. Besides you can count dozens of cities in the Americas with the name of Santiago.
In short, for the fighters, there was no difference between the reconquist, the control of Northern Europe, the fight with the Turks, the conquest of North Africa or the Colonization of the Americas. It was all theirs "manifest destiny" to spread Spain culture and the Christian faith, both in its spiritual aspect as in its materialistic aspect (very materialistic indeed). They wanted to do that to the whole world.
Interesting perspective penguin. Did you read any specific books which make this connection? Which books or resources would you recommend to me to read further?
In fact, it is an integration of facts that go with the culture I live in.
However, you can take a look at the lives of the Conquistadors, particularly Pizarro. To the cult of Santiago of Compostella. To the Reconquist. Or to read the life of Miguel de Cervantes, the author of Don Quixote, that represent the typical character of the Golden Age's Spain: the poor soldier deep in poverty.
Notice that Don Quixote is the archetype of the warrior (ridiculous, but it repressents Spain's mentality of chivalry). The same stereotype can be found in the Cid, in Pizarro, Cortes or any other conquistador. Self made men that enriched themselves through fighting, and that always killed because of a superior cause (they though)
I can't recall a single book that show all this topic as a single thing.
There is ONE major difference between Colombus and Pizzaro: about 75 years. Their motivations and the basis they've used to fulfil them were completely different.
As Ikki said there is no or alomost no influence of the Inquisition upon Colombus. On the countrary there are two different direct influences of the end of the Reconquistas upon the Discoveries: 1) Relieved earlier from the morish burden, the Portugese had all the time they needed to explore the Atlantic. So when the Spaniards deceided to join the adventures only the great unknown of the central Altantic was left. 2) Of course the fall of Grenada allowed the Catholic Sovereigns to spend their money on something else than the wars. Actually more their attention than their money.
Amirsan, i saw that you want to saw a link between Inquisition and Culumbus-Expansion. Well, there isn't, but, if we change the word Inquisition for Church, the things change, because the Church was a great supporter of that expansion and consolidation, until more or less 1550.
The only link between Inquisition and Exploration is indirect, that is, the State. Althought most of the time the conqueror expansion was a private enterprise, the state was always supporting that expansion and then consolidatin that expansion. At the same time, as a cause consecuence, the state developed the hispanic Inquisition, under the rule not of the Pope but of the King for reinforce his authority.
That is the only relation between both Inquisition and Expansion.
There is ONE major difference between Colombus and Pizzaro: about 75 years. Their motivations and the basis they've used to fulfil them were completely different.
True because the motivations not always was the same, mainly Reconquista in continental América see Cortés, Alvarado, Pizarro, Valdivia... But modern, commercial in the first stages of the castillian expansion in the african Atlantic, with Columbus, and then again in the Far Orient.
There is ONE major difference between Colombus and Pizzaro: about 75 years. Their motivations and the basis they've used to fulfil them were completely different.
They got something in common: the search of GLORY. Both were looking for establishing themselves as great people throught theirs achievements. People to be recorded in history.
Columbus believed he was the second more important man for the Catholic faith after Jesus Christ!
Pizarro was more modest. He just wanted to be as importan as Hernan Cortes, the conqueror of a civilization.
So, both have the same motivations. The very hispanic ideal of becomming heroes in life. Of doing something transcendent that changed history.
I want to float one more theory. Before the fall of Granada and the
inquisition the spice roots to spain all flowed through musim lands.
Even if the spices were being purchased from Italians, the Italians
were purchasing them from Arabs. So by puchasing spices the spaniads
were directly or indirectly funding their enemies. This raises two
questions:
1) In a society such as 15th centuary spain, were the spainiads happy to do buisness (ie purchase spices) with the Arabs?
2) Were the Arabs willing to sell spices to the spaniads, or sell spices to intermediatries who would sell them to the spanish?
Then you add the possiblity that the spices could be obtained without
having to trade with the arabs. By a direct route with the Indies
across the sea.
Yes. The search for the spices is pretty much the standard theory and it has a lot of reasoning behing it. People tend to think spices served only for giving flavour to food, but some also served to preserve meat! that was a important factor in populations of those times that were always at risk of suffering from hunger. Besides, the problems were never the Arabs, a kind of fellows that, with all the fightings and conflicts, were able to have relative good relations with Venetians, East Romans and other Christians. In fact, the first centuries of contact with Muslims where relatively bening, but that changed with the radicalization of Islam around the 12th century. However, the real problem started when the Turks strangulated the trade of Asian goods with an increase in taxes. That was really the driven force for the Portuguese explorations, which were followed by the Spaniards and then by British, French and Dutchs.
But all those were the logical reasons to develop alternative routes of trade to bypass Muslims. Those were not the things that motivated the warriors and fighters that build the Spanish Empire. The last ones were moved by glory, faith, courage, lack of respect for the enemy, and ambition of power. Money was just a consecuence of their rise into power.
I want to float one more theory. Before the fall of Granada and the
inquisition the spice roots to spain all flowed through musim lands.
Even if the spices were being purchased from Italians, the Italians
were purchasing them from Arabs. So by puchasing spices the spaniads
were directly or indirectly funding their enemies. This raises two
questions:
1) In a society such as 15th centuary spain, were the spainiads happy to do buisness (ie purchase spices) with the Arabs?
2) Were the Arabs willing to sell spices to the spaniads, or sell spices to intermediatries who would sell them to the spanish?
Then you add the possiblity that the spices could be obtained without
having to trade with the arabs. By a direct route with the Indies
across the sea.
The main problem of your theory is that the 'Arabs' (ie those the Spaniards were fighting against) weren't those through the territory of whom, the spice trade was passing (the Mameluks and the Turks). So it wouldn't have changed anything really.
Although, I know at least one person who has shared your theory... Columbus himself. In one of his letters to Isabella, he tries to convince the Queen to found his expedition by showing that the benefits of 5 years of trade would be enough to set up an enormous crusade to re-conquer Constantinople. (source G. de Poumarède, Pour en finir avec la croisade) But Poumarède precises that this type of argument was extremely common in the 15-16th c. and wasn't really taken seriously (at that time, the pope himself was heavily involved in trade relationships with the Muslims through the port of Ancona).
Finally, what was really missing in 15th century Spain was gold. Two resaons for that, the kingdom was only exporting raw material (wool) and the traditional source of gold (West Africa) was drying up. So, if you want another hypothesis (potentially totally wrong): after the begining of the Granada war (1484) the trade with North Africa, through which gold was coming into the Peninsula, ended and suddenly (1) the Spaniard needed gold (2) the Spaniards needed a new trade to invest in.
Finally, what was really missing in 15th century Spain was gold. Two resaons for that, the kingdom was only exporting raw material (wool) and the traditional source of gold (West Africa) was drying up. So, if you want another hypothesis (potentially totally wrong): after the begining of the Granada war (1484) the trade with North Africa, through which gold was coming into the Peninsula, ended and suddenly (1) the Spaniard needed gold (2) the Spaniards needed a new trade to invest in.
This is a great point. In fact, the main objetive of the iberian expansion in África during the XV century wasn't the spices, but the gold from western África as you say. The supply of gold wasn't cut with the war of Granada but with the succes of the portuguese in the search and captation of gold in the gulf of Guinea (see the fundation of the colony "Elmina", that is, "The Mine") Who cut the supply of gold was the own portuguese, who was competing with the castillians since a century because the african sources, a competition that wasn't totally lost for the spanish until the 80's of the XV century. Before that date, the castillians at least since the final years of the XIV century (that is, lightly less ancient that the portuguese, who begin their exploration in the 40's of the XIV century) put all their efforts in deny the portuguese initiative, so you can see they conquering Canary Islands wich provide to the europeans with slavery (for the tropical plantations in the Mediterranean sea) dyeings and then sugar, tradiying with North África from Morocco to Trípoli (very important aragonese trade, and here i answer to the first question of Omar al Hashim) but too riding for slaves and fishing, and finally triying to take gold and other goods in the Gulf of Guinea. This heavy race between the two oceanic iberian powers finished with a succes of the portuguese in the atlantic front, when they signed a treaty where Castille only had rights in Canary Islands and the african coast in front of these. This is the reason why few years after, they exploit the Columbus offer, at the moment that the Catholic Kings could saw the oportunity of expand the kingdom (according with the international law and the treaties signed) not only in North África but too in the Atlantic where they have a lot of vassals very interested in commerce and conquest.
Why the iberians was searching gold (the details of this need a proper thread), why Portugal win the competition and why Castille don't focused on this oceanic race before the fall of Granada can be expanded, but i want say a few things about the spices. The portuguese only search the way to Asia, the direct way to the spices, after they was well stablished in África. So, the search of the spices like the gold should be understood because the demands of the european economy, not in the contrary. The spice trade was by this time controlled by muslims, i'm sure that the oriental trade was disrupted when the turks cut the trade ways of the Black Sea where the genoeses had their factories, but i don't know exactly if the spices where arriving too from Crimea. The question sure is that the venetians monopolize the trade with Mamluk Egypt from where the main spice route come to Europe, and that they close this trade to other europeans like the genoese, with the expansion of the european economy this trade was very profitable and i'm not surprised (umm, this is the first time that i think about this) that the leif motiv of the iberian expansion wasn't not the cut of the trade, but the chance of get great profits like the venetians was getting, triying to evade the echelon of the muslims who increase the price of the product for the european traders.
Spain was of course very interested in this trade, because they have a great native commercial community that not only was tradiying with África, but had a lot of ships sailing between Italy and Flandre, isn't a surprise that the better ships and sailors of this time in Europe was the iberians, with the northern spaniards in a prominent point, and wasn't a surprise too that traders and sailors from atlantic Castille had supported the atlantic offer of Columbus.
Ups, the match Manchester-Chelsea, sorry see you again
Hi Maharbbal, i was searching in the net any article or book well made and with good references but i can't find anything.
Contrary, i know that any book about the later middle age about the
Iberian Peninsula will talk about this, specially because i talk too
about the aragonese expansion wich is very famous in history (the
catalan comercial expansion) because their expansion in the XIV-XV across all the Mediterranean sea was strong. If you are interested, there is a book
about the specific relations between Aragon and North África
Masiá de Ros, Á.La Corona de Aragón y los Estados del Norte de África. Política de Jaime II y Alfonso IV en Egipto, Ifriquiya y Tremecén, Barcelona, 1951.
I know a book wich have very good information about the specific trade
between Castille and the atlantic África (Morocco) wich is
"España en el África atlántica" of Rumeu de Armas, an historian of my homeland who i hate with all my soul
But it's impossible that you could read it. Search about all this because i
know that the andalusian traders had activity not only in Morocco but
too in present Argelia and Tunisia, althought the castillians are
famous in this time because they were sailors and had ships with wich
the aragonese trade with África.
A few information, i can translate it if anybody want:
"Jaime II, igual que sus predecesores, sintió un gran interés por el norte de África, zona de
interés político, pero sobre todo comercial, para los monarcas aragoneses y para los comerciantes
de los Estados marítimos de la Corona de Aragón. Las relaciones se mantuvieron con Egipto,
Túnez, Bugía, Tremecén y Marruecos, aunque la intervención catalano-aragonesa se dejó sentir
con mayor fuerza en el Magreb oriental. Ello era el resultado del tratado de
Monteagudo-Calatayud, firmado en el año 1291 entre los reyes Sancho IV de Castilla y Jaime
II de Aragón, por el cual se repartían el área de influencia de las respectivas Coronas en el Norte
de África, estableciendo como divisoria el río Muluya, dejando para los castellanos la parte
oeste, Ceuta, y para los aragoneses la parte este, en dirección a Bugía y Túnez. Jaime II, más que
pensar en la conquista territorial consideraba el espacio norteafricano como bases y escalas
navales complementarias de las islas Baleares, Sicilia y, más adelante, Cerdeña, como una
importante fuente de recursos económicos y humanos, como fuente de tributos, de milicias y de
esclavos.En Egipto, las embajadas de Jaime II a Egipto buscaban obtener importantes préstamos
para el rey de Aragón, garantizar la seguridad de los peregrinos que iban a Tierra Santa y
mantener las ventajas conseguidas por los mercaderes catalanes. En las relaciones con Ifriqiya
predominó la actividad de tipo político-diplomático, buscando zonas de influencia y reyes
tributarios, para lo cual se firmaron numerosos tratados, como los de 1301 o 1308 con Túnez,
o el de 1309 con Bugía., buscando siempre favorecer las relaciones comerciales existentes. En
Tremecén y Marruecos, la diplomacia aragonesa trabajó a varias bandas: Marruecos, Granada
y Castilla, cuyas rivalidades y diferentes objetivos geoestratégicos las hacían muy fluctuantes,
tratando de compaginar los intereses políticos con los mercantiles, y desde 1304 el sultán
marroquí se declaró vasallo de Jaime II, que obtenía el pago de 10.000 dinares de oro."
"El norte de Africa fue el taller experimental del comercio
catalanoaragonés y el ámbito de creación de las primeras fortunas mercantiles
de la Corona. Siempre fue una ruta relativamente modesta, en cierto sentido
popular, hecha de un comercio de pequeñas cantidades y muchas comandas. No
obstante, y a pesar del riesgo del corsarismo (vinculado al comercio de
esclavos), en esta zona se sumaban ventajas económicas y políticas: la
debilidad de las flotas africanas dejaba el transporte en manos catalanas, y
las divisiones y rivalidades entre los sultanes facilitaban la imposición de
una especie de protectorado militar del rey de Aragón en la zona. Los
mercaderes de Barcelona,
Valencia, Mallorca y
Sicilia iban a los mercados del norte de Africa (Túnez, Bona, Bugía, Argel) a
vender paños y productos
muy diversos, agrícolas e industriales, y adquirir cera, cuero, coral, esclavos
y oro, además de productos exóticos. La ruta ofrecía un saldo favorable, y
proporcionaba primeras materias para los talleres catalanes y oro para las
compras de especias en el Mediterráneo oriental."
"Pero también se formó un importante foco de actividad
comercial en el suroreste de Andalucía. Sus grandes animadores fueron los
hombres de negocios genoveses establecidos en aquella zona, los cuales, aparte
del interés que mostraron por los productos de la tierra andaluza, proyectaron
su actuación sobre el norte de
África."
"El foco meridional se localizaba en el triángulo formado por Sevilla y
la costa atlántica de Andalucía. Los principales animadores del
comercio en esa zona fueron los hombres de negocios italianos allí
asentados, en especial los genoveses, que contaban con importantes
colonias en Sevilla. Cádiz y otras ciudades. Andalucía ofrecía
importantes productos, tanto agrarios como mineros, pero era a la vez
plataforma imprescindible para el comercio con la región africana del
Sudán, en donde se buscaban ansiosamente oro y esclavos, y con las
islas Canarias, proveedoras de azúcar. Los genoveses exportaban
productos alimenticios, como aceite, vinos y, en años buenos, trigo y
arroz, pero también atún, pescado salado, cera, cueros, pieles,
cochinilla (un colorante muy estimado) y mercurio de Almadén. En
contrapartida, los genoveses traían a tierras hispanas manufacturas
textiles (desde paños de Florencia hasta telas de seda damasquinada o
telas ligeras de lino y algodón), especias (pimienta, jengibre,
canela...), herramientas, papel, resina, etcétera.
Al margen de los dos focos señalados es preciso hacer referencia a la
actividad marítima de la Corona de Castilla en el Mediterráneo. El
principal puerto era el de Cartagena, en donde había una importante
colonia de mercaderes genoveses. Por lo demás los marinos vascos se
mostraron muy activos en el Mare Nostrum, hasta el punto de convertirse
en los intermediarios del comercio realizado entre la Corona de Aragón e Italia. También encontramos mercaderes castellanos en el tráfico mercantil entre la isla de Mallorca, el Norte de Africa e Italia."
"Entre 1403 y 1443 los marinos castellanos aseguran el comercio de
Mallorca con el norte de África, con Cerdeña y Sicilia, con Génova,
Salerno y Nápoles; para Vicens, estos marinos "al servicio de Génova,
le llevarán la sal de Ibiza y el trigo de Sicilia, Apulia y Sevilla. Al
servicio de Barcelona, acarrearán hasta la ciudad arenques y seda, pero
especialmente cuero andaluz y portugués, lanas y cochinilla", y según
Alvaro Santamaría exportan a África "laca, almástica, rubia, gala,
cleda, urchilla, regaliz, azafrán, fusteta, antimonio, especiería y
pasas; a Italia cera..., lana..., cueros de Granada, de Mallorca y de
Lisboa..., tejidos de Mallorca y de Valencia; a Niza quesos, lanas,
añinos, cueros, tejidos y sal de Ibiza; a Galicia vino y paños"
bruxellats; a Flandes alumbre y grana. Se importa de África cera, nuez
moscada, grana, quesos y plumas de avestruz; de Sicilia algodón y
trigo; de Flandes rubia, hilo de hierro y de latón y tejidos."
See too this horrible map about the western mediterranean:
Look the limits of the Treaty of Monteagudo (1291) where Castille and Aragon take differents spheres in África, present Morocco for Castille, the other land to Aragón; then in the Treaty of Tordesillas (1294) wich wasn't only a delivery of the world but of North África, Portugal have now his sphere in Morocco (kingdom of Fez), Castille have Tremecén and Aragón from Árgel to the Orient.
A last thing, Amirsan, can you give us a short account of the theories of your book? Thanks
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