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Winterhaze13
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Topic: Sparta Vs. Athens Posted: 30-Dec-2004 at 09:58 |
Originally posted by DuxPimpJuice
Not outright victory for Sparta? Oh no, Sparta was just able to conquer much of Greece and pretty much reign free until the advent of Theban supremacy. |
That's because Athens was the only real rival to Sparta, when they eliminated Athens they eliminated any contest to their Greek supremacy. I'm not saying it wasn't outright victory in the end, but it was in no way an easy victory for Sparta.
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Indeed, history is nothing more than a tableau of crimes and misfortunes.
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French author, humanist, rationalist, & satirist (1694 - 1778)
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Lannes
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Posted: 30-Dec-2004 at 11:22 |
Originally posted by Winterhaze13
That's because Athens was the only real rival to Sparta, when they eliminated Athens they eliminated any contest to their Greek supremacy. I'm not saying it wasn't outright victory in the end, but it was in no way an easy victory for Sparta. |
This doesn't explain why the victory wasn't outright at all.
How much more 'outright' could it have been? Sparta and her allies crushed the power of Athens and her allies, and thusly accomplished their goal of ending Athenian power.
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Winterhaze13
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Posted: 30-Dec-2004 at 12:10 |
Originally posted by Lannes
Originally posted by Winterhaze13
That's because Athens was the only real rival to Sparta, when they eliminated Athens they eliminated any contest to their Greek supremacy. I'm not saying it wasn't outright victory in the end, but it was in no way an easy victory for Sparta. |
This doesn't explain why the victory wasn't outright at all.
How much more 'outright' could it have been? Sparta and her allies crushed the power of Athens and her allies, and thusly accomplished their goal of ending Athenian power.
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Once again I don't think you understand. The war was hard-faught and could have gone either way, but Sparta was able to capitalize on the Sicilian fiasco and win the war.
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Indeed, history is nothing more than a tableau of crimes and misfortunes.
-- Voltaire
French author, humanist, rationalist, & satirist (1694 - 1778)
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Lannes
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Posted: 30-Dec-2004 at 16:16 |
Originally posted by Winterhaze13
Once again I don't think you understand. The war was hard-faught and could have gone either way, but Sparta was able to capitalize on the Sicilian fiasco and win the war. |
Why does that make the victory incomplete? Besides, it wouldn't have been a fiasco if Spartan leadership hadn't arrived...
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Winterhaze13
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Posted: 27-Jan-2005 at 10:05 |
Suggested Reading:
Donald Kagan's The Peloponnessian War. A lucid and content filled book that will give you a very basic account of the war.
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Indeed, history is nothing more than a tableau of crimes and misfortunes.
-- Voltaire
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Miltiades
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Posted: 28-Jan-2005 at 01:00 |
I think the victory was either incomplete or complete depending on your definition.
Given the context of Greece at the end of the 5th C., the victory of
the Peloponnesian league (not to forget Thebes and Corinth) was quite
complete.
But Spartan hegemony lasted a relatively short while because the context of ancient Greece was what it was.
That is, any hegemonic power was the largely first among equals. If you
have a bipolar situation, and one power wins, it''s easier for the
victor to maintain superiority; if however, you have several states of
similar power, then shifting alliances and short term changes in power
can make all the difference.
Thus, when Corinth and Thebes became less supportive of Sparta, she
lost much of her power; when, further, Thebes gained somewhat in might
and leadership, a new hegemonic power appeared.
So compared with many wars, 404 was not a complete victory.
Miltiades
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jesusfreak1
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Posted: 28-Jan-2005 at 22:36 |
I cast my vote for Athens....life is not about war and fighting...its
about just about everything else and also I would rather live in Athens!
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conon394
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Posted: 29-Jan-2005 at 00:23 |
Lannes
Actually Id say the Spartan intervention
in Sicily was irrelevant to the campaigns fiasco status. Nicias alone was sufficient to ensure that.
His blundering opposition in the assembly turned what Alcibaldes had envisioned
as a mostly diplomatic venture into a potential nightmare (since Nicias lacked
the courage to either correct the impression he wanted full scale invasion or
to insist on more initial cavalry support). Once in Sicily Nicias essentially
vetoed every militarily sound proposal put forward by either Lamachus or
later Demosthenes. If Athens had been more fortunate Nicias not Lamachus would have been killed,
clearing the way for a competent general to finish the investment of Syracuse and
resolution of the siege, well before Sparta ever
bestirred herself to action. As for the debate on the completeness of
victory, it was very complete victory, for.
The Athenian empire was dissolved, while Sparta was
converted into her willing tool.
Edited by conon394
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Lannes
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Posted: 29-Jan-2005 at 09:06 |
Originally posted by conon394
Lannes
Actually Id say the Spartan intervention in Sicily was irrelevant to the campaigns fiasco status. Nicias alone was sufficient to ensure that. His blundering opposition in the assembly turned what Alcibaldes had envisioned as a mostly diplomatic venture into a potential nightmare (since Nicias lacked the courage to either correct the impression he wanted full scale invasion or to insist on more initial cavalry support). Once in Sicily Nicias essentially vetoed every militarily sound proposal put forward by either Lamachus or later Demosthenes. If Athens had been more fortunate Nicias not Lamachus would have been killed, clearing the way for a competent general to finish the investment of Syracuse and resolution of the siege, well before Sparta ever bestirred herself to action. |
The problem with this is that the Syracusans would've entered into a treaty with the Athenians had Gylippus not arrived. The only thing that dissuaded the Syracusans from entering into negotiations with the Athenians was the news of Gylippus' arrival (after he had dodged the interecption vessels).
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conon394
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Posted: 29-Jan-2005 at 13:09 |
Lannes
Gylippus, may have turned the tide for Syracuse,
but had Nicias been even remotely competent, he (Gylippus) never would had the
chance to.
Aside from stopping Lamachus rather sound plan of an initial
surprise attack on Syracuse, he
showed lassitude and indecision at every decisive moment.
For example, he was dismissive of Gylippus at first and diverted
inadequate resources to catch his tiny flotilla, when he finally acted.
Even when Gylippus finally appeared, Nicias, should have aggressively
challenged his polyglot force (the army of Syracuse
was predictably still in a state of poor order). Had he driven Gylippus back
for even a day or two, the Athenians could probably have finished the circumventation,
and sealed the fate of Syracuse.
Also its hard to escape the sense that had Lamachus lived, double walls of
encirclement would have been finished already. While he was alive the Athenians
seemed able to finish siege works at rates that amazed the Syracuse.
With Nicias in sole command not only does work seem slower, but the Athenians react
without any vigor, often being caught off guard.
Had Nicias agreed with Demosthenes and withdrawn (at a time
when the Athenians could have safely done so) after the failed attempt to
secure the Syracusian counter wall, the Athenians might have a black eye, but
hardly the disaster that followed.
And perhaps not even a very bad loss, the Athenians could
have withdrawn to Thurii, had Demosthenes say stayed with only a part of new
fresh reinforcing army he could most likely have prevented any aid to Sparta
from Syracuse as well.
Edited by conon394
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Lannes
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Posted: 29-Jan-2005 at 13:24 |
I don't disagree with that.
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Posted: 03-Feb-2005 at 21:59 |
I find the question: which Greek-state was the greatest misleading. In what area? Moreover, the question is potentially gender-relative. I, as a woman, if I were to somehow transported back in time, in which of the two cities would I want to live? Athens or Sparta?
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conon394
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Posted: 05-Feb-2005 at 03:07 |
Taygeti
Athens, of
course.
I can only assume you are referring to the canard of women were better
off in Sparta
But how? And which
women.
Given that population estimates are necessarily imprecise,
at around the 440 or 430 B.C. the total populations of Athens
and Sparta were
Athens
Citizen Population: ~150,000
Metrics (permanent resident foreigners): ~ 100,000
Slaves: ~100,000
Sparta
Spartans: ~ 40,000
Non-Helot, Non Citizens (mostly the periokoi): ~75,000
100,000
Helots: ~250,000
Now, the claim for women being better off in Sparta
is usually predicated on the right to own property and the fact that like men,
women underwent a compulsory education (This mainly to make them physically
fit to bear strong children, period. Dont imagine the state cared if they
could read or what their personal desires might be).
But lets step back a bit which women, not helots and not the
periokoi, so a tiny percentage of the overall population. In what context did
these supposedly privileged Spartan women live, a totalitarian society that
makes Stalins Russia
look tame: Freedom of travel, no: Freedom of speech, no; Occupation, no: State
directed Eugenics, etc
Only something like 10 percent of women in Sparta
even had the chance to enjoy this lovely freedom within a totalitarian context.
Certainly helot women got none of these benefits (and a lot of bonus
negatives), the periokoi women probably resembled the Greek norm (but still within
a framework of relative servitude to the Spartans).
In contrast the slave population in Athens
is roughly 28 percent. So the hypothetical time traveling women (assuming a
random chance placement) can opt to either shoot for the 10% of women in Sparta
who are privileged within a totalitarian society or Athens, where she only has
a 30% chance of ending up a slave (in the Greek state most notable for its leniency
toward slaves) .
But then is the whole secluded women thing about Athens For now let me just point out that the paradigm
of oppressed women at Athens is largely based on the works of aristocrats
writing for aristocrats (maybe Plato can afford to keep his wife in seclusion
all day, but I cant see how the mass of Athenian living day to day can, Oh but
of course in Platos view they dont matter anyways) I am not trying to say women enjoyed equal rights in Athens,
they did not (nor in Sparta nor in
Victorian England nor in 15th century Spain,
etc.) But, I do think that in general women were no worse off in Athens
then any other Greek State.
Better off in fact because of the various legal protections extended by the
Democracy at Athens to all of its citizen
s and even it metrics and slaves.
Edited by conon394
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Lannes
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Posted: 05-Feb-2005 at 09:22 |
Originally posted by conon394
Now, the claim for women being better off in LACE>SpartaLACE> is usually predicated on the right to own property and the fact that like men, women underwent a compulsory education (This mainly to make them physically fit to bear strong children, period. Dont imagine the state cared if they could read or what their personal desires might be). |
Spartan women also had to do hardly a fraction of the homemaking work that women in other cultures slaved their lives away on. Meaning, a woman was not just a house slave in the world of the Spartans.
Surely Hipparete could tell us how glorious life was for an Athenian woman...
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Posted: 05-Feb-2005 at 18:59 |
Lannes has a point. Spartan women, in comparison to women from other Greek cities, were spared some of the everyday menial chores. Therefore, Spartan women were better off than other Greek womenat least on this field. Having said that, the menial everyday chores were done by helot women.
chemas-microsoft-comfficeffice" />>>
Which brings me to the rather significant point made by Conon394, namely, "which women?" The helot women, the periokoi women, or the Spartan women? In light of this question I would have to admit that my initial question was rather nave. While I tried to narrow the subject "Sparta vs. Athens" along the lines of a gender perspective, I must now concede that I overlooked the class perspectivea rather important one.
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Along these lines one could argue, that a Periokoi woman was better off than a Helot woman, but that a Spartan woman was better off than a Periokoi woman. Not to mention that a rich Spartan woman was better off than a poor Spartan woman. Same argument could apply to their Athenian counterparts.
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For the sake of our argument however, lets focus only on aristocratic women; aristocratic Athenian women vs aristocratic Spartan women. Which of the two were better off?
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I would argue that Spartan women were better off, on the basis---and here I would quote Conon394---- "women being better off in Sparta is usually predicated on the right to own property"
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Own and inherit property. Economic power. A very significant, solid, power that should not be so easily UNDERESTIMATED, (especially because of its potential to evolve into political power)
As far as Platos supposed indifference towards women. I would vehemently beg to differ but lets not go there.
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conon394
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Posted: 07-Feb-2005 at 23:40 |
Taygeti
Own and inherit
property. Economic power. A very significant, solid, power that should
not be so easily UNDERESTIMATED, (especially because of its potential to evolve
into political power)
But of course it (apparent
property rights) manifestly did not evolve into any political power for women
at Sparta at any time from the archaic classical era to dissolution
of Sparta as an independent political entity. The property
right such as it was, I would note was still a property right inside of a totalitarian
context. The Spartan state allowed only a very narrow range of economic
activities for Spartans to undertake. A Spartan
women, unlike her Athenian counterpart would also have to face the day to day uncertainly
that she was part of a tiny click that ruled over a vast pool of resentful
slaves and near slaves (Athens noted during and for centuries after the classical
period for its liberal; treatment of slave never faced the potential slave
rebellions of Sparta or Rome or Chios) In any case the overall evidence is
thin, and late. I find the current trend has many modern historians bending
over backwards to read into the evidence support for strong independent women
at Sparta, but at the same time bluntly asserting the closeted oppressed Athenian
in the face of any opposing facts.
A good example is Sue
Blundell Women in ancient Greece. She is ready to reject the ideal that Aristophanes
as a useful source for woman in Athens. So we mush reject his tendency to suggest women
were anything but closeted or meek, his suggestions about the lives of Athenian
women are mere comic devices and such. But when it comes to Sparta suddenly Aristophanes is a solid reference for assertive,
athletic Spartan women?
It seems to me a quick
review of the historical record shows women at Athens wielded as much if not more political power then
those at Sparta. Pericles pleaded with them to be restrained in the
face of casualties as a result of his controversial policies during the Peloponnesian
War. Demosthenes on several occasions harangues the assembly by asking what their
wives will think of them if they vote this way or that (suggesting of course
they took an interest and were aware of the politics of the day).The
priestess of Athena play a pivotal role in supporting the arguments of Themistocles
on how the wooden wall should be interpreted and what actions to take as a
result of that interpretation.
I stand by my assertion the
standard view of women at Athens is
largely built out of the works of aristocratic men like Xenophon, Plato, and Aristotle
and a bit of Thucydides. All of whom share the common characteristic of being ideologically
biased against and frankly detached from there own state (excepting Aristotle
of course a non-native). Yes, I realize
Plato elaborated a functional role for women in his ideal state (and at least
some academics have felt this is the result of, not in contrast the Democracy
at Athens) But like Sparta it is within
the context of an ideal totalitarian state (I realize I am perhaps being unfair
to Plato, but he happily served with thirty and seems largely to have left his
pro-women ideals safely in the realm of theory).
For the sake of our
argument however, lets focus only on aristocratic women; aristocratic Athenian
women vs. aristocratic Spartan women. Which of the two were better off?
Perhaps the wives of the bluest
blooded Athenian aristocrats were secluded, but I seriously doubt they lived
oppressed lives, or slaved away at weaving. More likely they supervised the household
tasks much as their Husband supervised the external estate. More importantly
just dont feel it a fair point. Its rather like suggesting women were well
off in Elizabethan England because a woman was the ruling Monarch. I prefer to
see which state provided the better life (more equitable and more fair) for the
most people man or woman. Based on that I think there can be little argument
that the answer is Athens.
The recent surge of interest
in Greek religion and Greek magic has seen several books published detailing Greek
curse tablets (often strips of lead with curse inscribed on them directed
against rivals in love or business etc). The ones from Athens show a surprisingly different place then the Athens as seen by Plato, or Xenophon (Perhaps because they
often involve the lives of the mass of non aristocrats, metrics and slaves of
little interest the aforementioned pair). Most interestingly one can find references
to Athenian women (based on their names as typical of citizen women) as tavern
owners and gold smiths, brothel operators, pot painters, etc. These hoi polloi women of democratic Athens would never be respectable in the eyes of Plato, and
might never enjoy the benefits of Spartan totalitarian luxury, but I willing to
bet they might have been just as satisfied with their lives.
As a complete aside: You
might suppose that the oppressed women of Athens or of Greece generally might resent their lot in life vs. Spartan
women. But when push came to shove its notable that women in Athens and other misogynistic backwaters like Argos and Plataea turned out to defend their cities. In contrast the
supposedly privileged Spartan women did little if anything to aid in the
defense of their polis when Epaminondas attacked Sparta in the 4th century. What does this mean
idunno, just thought I chuck it in
Edited by conon394
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Posted: 08-Feb-2005 at 23:27 |
"But of course it (apparent property rights) manifestly did not evolve into any political power for women at Sparta at any time from the archaic classical era to dissolution of Sparta as an independent political entity. "
You are right to point out that their economic power did not evolve into a political power for Spartan women and that is why I had written it had the potential. Unless of course you are willing to concede to me the argument that women can exert indirect political power. By this I have in mind the mother of Agis IV, the biggest landlord in Laconia c.240 BCE. If we are to believe Plutarch, her son King Agis IV and her brother Agesilaus attempted to persuade her to join their land reform efforts. A perceptive reader should note here that persuasion by words is required when force is not an option. In other words, she was in control of her own property and no one (not even her brother and son) could belittle her. According to the same author, once his mother was "turned over" to her sons cause she actively lobbied other rich landowning Spartan women on the premise that they traditionally had great control over their husbands. Supposedly, it was these women who were the biggest obstacle to Agis IV, because any land reform would have diminished their power. Of course you could always argue that my timeframe (245-241 BCE) is not the same as the period that we are discussing, mainly 4th century. Impasse!chemas-microsoft-comfficeffice" />>>
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But when it comes to Sparta suddenly Aristophanes is a solid reference for assertive, athletic Spartan women? >>
True >>
>>
I realize I am perhaps being unfair to Plato, but. seems largely to have left his pro-women ideals safely in the realm of theory. >>
Hmmmand what is one to make of the two women, Lastheneia of Mantinea and Axiothea of Phlius, who were reported to have been Platos disciples alongside the likes of Aristotle? (Diogenes Laertius Plato 45-46) (something tells me that you will come back to me with the argument that Lastheneia and Axiothea were also said to wear mens clothing, and therefore)>>
>>
I prefer to see which state provided the better life (more equitable and more fair) for the most people man or woman. Based on that I think there can be little argument that the answer is Athens. >>
I suspect that when examined in depth, the question Sparta vs. Athens becomes exponentially complicated. Mostly, because the comparative lines (I suspect) are drawn between political ideologies. Totalitarianism vs. democracy; communality vs. individualism, equality vs. liberty, and unwittingly the measuring stick is a modern one (not long ago Athens was compared to the US, (still is) while Sparta to Nazi Germany and later USSR)>>
>>
As a complete aside: You might suppose that the oppressed women of Athens or of Greece generally might resent their lot in life vs. Spartan women. But when push came to shove its notable that women in Athens and other misogynistic backwaters like Argos and Plataea turned out to defend their cities.
Taking into consideration that defeat meant the death of males (i.e. fathers, brothers, sons) and the rape and enslavement of females (i.e. daughters. mothers, sisters) I suspect fear and self-preservation was right up there alongside patriotism.>>
privileged Spartan women did little if anything to aid in the defense of their polis when Epaminondas attacked Sparta in the 4th century. What does this mean idunno, just thought I chuck it in>>
Neither do I..
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Idanthyrus
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Posted: 15-Feb-2005 at 23:11 |
Somebody made earlier a point about the Persian-Spartan alliance being critical to Sparta's defeat of Athens. Please correct me if Im wrong, but that alliance was made after the destruction of the Syracusian expedition no? The writing was already on the wall for Athens.
IMO the necessities of the ongoing intrigues and political struggles in Athens made the Syracusian expedition, or something like it, rather inevitable. Athens simply bit off more than it could chew. Perhaps if the Athenians had followed Pericles's advice to avoid trying to add to her empire before the rest of it was even secure, things might have turned out differently.
Hey, Is it just me or are there alot of foreboding parallels between imperial Athens and the modern United Stateslace in Thucydides... Scary
Edited by Idanthyrus
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Sharrukin
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Posted: 15-Feb-2005 at 23:29 |
It's just you. The United States is not commandeerng the fleets of its allies, or occupying its allies lands without their permission, or creating tributary regions composed ot its allies, and is not coveting the funds of its alliances.
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Idanthyrus
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Posted: 15-Feb-2005 at 23:52 |
Did I mention those things specifically? I was thinking more of the Athenian debates, but ok
A few of the arguments in paticular which illustrated the lack of distinction for Athenians between fighting for "democracy" and fighting for Athens own benefit were interesting.
Edited by Idanthyrus
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