Ancient Macedonian language

 

 

Kapetanopoulos make step by step analysis, any word and sentence(latin,Greek,Englih) and proove simply what were the Curtious mistakes regarding with the others ancient writers.

 

 

But as Akritas understood, they are not open to other opinions. We post evidence and they don't accept them while they have no evidence but just misunderstandings about what ancient Greeks said because they have never study greek history or greek linguistics.

 

So, that's why I don't like when these threads start. It's pointless to continue..

 

For one more time....

 

We gave you example that we don't understand other greek dialects even today.

 

And the point here is the word "easily". It means that it would be easier for the crowd, which consisted not only of Macedonians but other Greeks as well,  to understand the attic greek than the macedonian which indicates that it was more difficult (not impossible) for them to comprehend the macedonian.

 

Firstly, the assumption that macedonian and greek were mutually incomprehensible is not true. What is true is that it was not easily understood by other Greeks.

Even your argumentation which i made bold, is against your assertion. Alexander I, obviously spoke a language comprehensible to the rest of greeks while he was in the olympics, otherwise they simply couldnt understand a thing from what he said. Not only that but his exact words according to Herodotus were:

"Men of Athens... Had I not greatly at heart the common welfare of Greece I should not have come to tell you; but I am myself Greek by descent, and I could not willingly see Greece exchange freedom for slavery.... If you
prosper in this war, forget not to do something for my freedom; consider
the risk I have run, out of zeal for the Greek cause, to acquaint you with
what Mardonius intends, and to save you from being surprised by the
barbarians. I am Alexander of Macedon."

If Alexander I as Macedonian, spoke a language incomprehensible to Greeks then obviously the Persian General Mardonius wouldnt appoint him (i remind you that during Persian wars, Macedonia was a vassal to Persians) as his words-transporter to greeks.

Furthermore, during the 5th century, we have classical Greek tragedists such as Euripides writing, producing and presenting some of the great
greek tradegies in Pella. For example Iphigenia in Tauris was written in Pella. Its apparent, a tragedy played in attic greek wouldnt be presented to the wide Macedonian audience if that tragedy was incomprehensible to the macedonian audience.

The examples are many but to make it short i would like to remind you that the vast majority of personal names in ancient Macedonia as well as the toponyms are in Greek something very peculiar for non-Greek speakers as to the fact that all army terms from unit organization, to weapons, to ranks, to unit locations etc are all in Greek and all these words have a full meaning in greek language, they are not simply regularizations as it happened with foreign languages.
I think that these simple arguments are enough to demolish any position to the contrary.

Thank you Neoptolemos And i have a couple thinks to post.

 

One is the Macedonian poetry 

So we listen from the people that are against in the Greek language  that maybe only the royal Macedonian family and possibly the Macedonian nobility spoke greek.

Then..

 

If so, how come Greek was the language that ordinary Macedonians like Posidippus, Adaeus, Heggesepus or Phaedimus also wrote poetry in?

 

Why did they wrote to a so called from the propagandists, "foreign" language and didnt use theirs?

 

Why didn't all the rest of neighbouring countries (Illyrians, Paeonians, etc) who used also Greek, at least their elite, didnt wrote Greek poetry?

http://www.chs.harvard.edu/publicati..._posidippus.pg

http://ancienthistory.about.com/libr...anth_bio3a.htm

 

What are the origin of the below sentence  ? Greek or English?