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Execution of Converts Under Islamic Law

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Akolouthos View Drop Down
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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Execution of Converts Under Islamic Law
    Posted: 30-Mar-2006 at 01:11
Originally posted by Azimuth

yes sure if it wasnt rape case then its adultery, although proving a rape case my differ in islamic countries and the western ones.

as far as i know in the west a woman can get naked with a man and start kissing and touching and at the moment of the actual sex may accure , IF the woman said the magic word "No" and the man continued then its a "rape" case.

while i guess in our culture and courts , this story is not a rape case, since both the man and the woman knew that what they are doing( the nudity and the foreplay) will lead to sex.

An essential clarification, that! I do wish that my compatriots in the West would realize that it is not so much the action, but also the series of decisions that lead up to the action, that endanger us. If we did not place ourselves in increasing degrees of morally objectionable positions, we would not ever come close to the abyss of violating law, civil or divine. By making compromises, great and small, along the path to a morally reprehensible position, we weaken our resolve and almost ensure our inevitable floundering in the morass of moral (and, for that matter legal) decay/disobedience.

-Akolouthos

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  Quote Mira Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 30-Mar-2006 at 02:18
Originally posted by azimuth

Mira i understand that you worked in Dubai Poilce, just wanted to ask , what is the punishment of Adultery in UAE? i never heard of stonning in UAE.

In the UAE, an adulterer faces 80 lashes, imprisonment and a huge fine, unless s/he chooses to marry their partner in crime.

The reason stoning is not carried out in most places is because there's no Qur'anic evidence supporting it.  Even the ahadeeth quoted to support that punishment are arguably weak.

It is also worth mentioning that Islam is not the only religion that condemns adulterers to a punishment.  The Bible (Old Testament) calls for that, too:

"If a man is found sleeping with another man's wife, both the man who slept with her and the woman must die." [Deuteronomy 22: 22]

"If a man commits adultery with another man's wife-with the wife of his neighbor-both the adulterer and the adulteress must be put to death." [Leviticus 20: 10]



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  Quote Mira Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 30-Mar-2006 at 14:44
Azimuth,

I forgot to mention that the above only applies to Muslims.  Non-Muslims, on the other hand, face imprisonment, sometimes fines, and deportation.
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  Quote TeldeInduz Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 31-Mar-2006 at 00:26

Good postings Sparten! Your right that Zia didnt get the laws passed through parliament, though I always assumed they were laws, just not applied.

Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Sparten

In the case of Pakistan, that's somethig I just read the other day in the newspaper: that law is from the times of Zia Ul-Aq and hasn't been reverted. Women need to bring 4 or 5 witnesses to prove the rape (near impossible) and they risk prision for adultery (they don't stone them at least).


Again, wrong. Bad form to get you information from the newspaper. The Pakistani law on rape is based on the Pakistan Penal Code 1948, sec 320, as well as the Sexual Offences Acts 1956, 63, 99, and obviously relevent case law. Again, the requirement for rape is for it to be proved beyond reasonable doubt that a man had sexual intercouse with a woman, knowing or suspecting (Satnam Singh case), that she was not consenting.

Yeah, basically. Rape crimes dont use the laws Maju was talking about. There's not many rape cases prosecuted and rape convictions obtained in conservative Pakistan - women's rights groups and western media see this as a sign that the judicial system is failing rape victims and that it's because of these non existent laws. Rather they're unaware that, at least in the NWFP, raping a woman would mean tribal warfare and a lot of use of the AK-47 and RPG which serves as a good deterrent in some respects.

I think your basic point is correct that these arent laws, since there is the preamble you talk about that curtails the jurisdiction of the Shariah benches, and also they've never been used to secure a rape conviction so that all rape prosecutions and convictions in Pakistan would have been made under the Sexual Offences Acts under the Pakistan Penal Code.

Originally posted by Sparten

 

The "law" you and Mira posted are not laws at all, they were based upon white paper, which the government of Zia published in 1979. That was never passed  into law. And even if it had been it would never have been applicable, since under the Pakistan legal system, a law passed by parliamnet can only be changed by Parliament.

They definitely werent passed through Parliament/National Assembly from what I've read.

Originally posted by Sparten

The fact that we have a bad reputation is Unfortunatly true. Strange, we have had women PM, Govenors, Govenors State Bank, High Court Judges and one Supreme Court Judge, Army Generals, ete, etc,etc. Lots of business leaders are women.

Ay, and dont forget now airforce pilots . I think the image has more to do with Western media portrayal, for exampe, the Mukhtar Mai case which received worldwide attention despite being only one (gang) rape case. The outrage by the Western media on this case was that why werent the men arrested terminated - yet they were charged (in an anti-terror court), and an appeal found their guilty convictions to be unsafe. This all sounds very normal to me in any law case, yet foreign media are crying out for blood, which creates a very biased atmosphere for a retrial. Negative reps in the eyes of the such ignorant foreign media is predictable but not of much consequence.



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  Quote TeldeInduz Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 31-Mar-2006 at 14:35
Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Sparten

if what you are saying about Pakistan and Nigeria is true then these judges must be captured and punished for abusing the law.

If it was not rape it would obviously be adultry or fornication. If you make an accusation of rape, and its disproved then since sexual intercourse did take place by your own admission, then well it could well be adultry or fornication for both parties if such a crime exists as it does in many countries e.g United States.

There's no such "crime" in the USA... it may be in some of those ultra-conservative states of the Bible-Belt but not in the USA as a whole. In fact people probably has more sex-out-of-marriage in the USA than in almost any other place of the world.

Sparten is right on the ball actually. You can verify that about half the states in America have adultery as a criminal offence - and the law is applied. The following article is from 2004:

Like 23 other states, Virginia still might prosecute if a husband or wife has consensual sex outside the marriage. Ten states, including Virginia, have anti-fornication statutes as well, prohibiting sex before marriage.

http://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn/articles/A62581-2004Sep 4.html 

http://encarta.msn.com/encyclopedia_761564013/Rape_(law).htm l 

Before you start verbally isolating America on this, the law is also present in Europe in some countries according to this article (whether it's used is a different matter, I havent checked).

In France, Germany, Austria and other countries in Europe, as well as in some of the states of the United States, adultery is a criminal offence, punishable by imprisonment or fine.

http://58.1911encyclopedia.org/A/AD/ADULTERY.htm 



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  Quote TeldeInduz Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 31-Mar-2006 at 18:27

Originally posted by Maju

In any case, you can't say that because the woman couldn't prove rape it was "fornication" or "adultery": it may have been rape anyhow but it can't be proven - much more likely, considering the absurd requirement of 4 witnesses (nothing less!) - normally rapes happen in dark hidden alleys not in the middle of the marketplace!

No. Your newspaper is wrong, and the Pakistani judicial system isnt very well explained in most of the websites I've seen. I'll explain it for you.

"The popular perception of the Zina Ordinance, largely based on the image carried in the press, is that a raped woman must produce four male witnesses against the accused for a conviction. The legal position that a conviction leading to a tazir punishment can be maintained on the basis of other evidence, including that of the woman herself, is generally absent in the popular understanding of the Zina Ordinance."

That is to say that your press might say that all these women pressed for rape convictions but were denied convictions for lack of producing 4 witnesses. The truth is that these women were permitted "tazir" evidence which means that any witnesses, DNA, forensics are all acceptable in such cases. 

After the Tazir case is completed, the accused is either imprisoned for rape (usually life), or the accuser that fails to prove that she was raped using tazir evidence gets accused of zina (adultery is a crime for both men and women in Pakistan - section 497, Pakistan Penal Code or from the Ordinances - whichever is law). An adultery trial ensues, but in 95% of cases the woman is freed.

As Sparten points out the Hudood Ordinance was just a white paper that probably enacted as a law (see end). It describes the punishment of Zina from Tazir as public flogging Public flogging has been banned in Pakistan since 1996.

Article 3 of the Abolition of Whipping Act, 1996 states that "Except in cases where the punishment of whipping is provided for as hadd, the sentence of whipping provided under any law, rule, or regulation for the time being in force shall stand abolished". Hadd punishments have never been handed out in Pakistan, so any public flogging offences given under the Zina through Tazir punishment will be illegal. This in effect is evidence that the white paper or whatever of the Hudood Ordinace is nullified in Pakistan, since the punishment for Zina under Tazir is public flogging. 

Section 10 of the Hudood Ordinance states that the Zina under Tazir is punished by a prison sentence and with flogging of 30 stripes - How can the law for the Hudood Ordinance be in existence, when the punishment stated in it has been banned?

Originally posted by Maju



This law has no other purpose that to scare women and allow indiscriminate rape under the law. It is a terrorist law - you just can't defend it unless you don't mind to be the most hatable machoist of this forum!

What's there to defend when you cannot quote the law properly? 

The first part of your statement that it allows indiscriminate rape under the law, it doesnt and for the reasons explained above - it is theoretically as possible to obtain a rape conviction in Pakistan as it is in the West using forensics which are equally valid in Pakistan as part of a prosecution case for rape there. 

Originally posted by Sparten

 
Originally posted by Maju

This is something that is true of killing in self defence also, if it was not self defence, its murder.  Its a paradox law students the world over learn, and  its not something inherent to "Islamic" Law, if there is such a thing.


Not at all: first because it is not killing and then because it can also be manslaughter, in many grades.



Self defence is actually a subset of manslaughter. Self defence/manslaughter is inadvertent, unintentional whereas murder is intentional.

Originally posted by Maju

]

Anyhow having sex consensually can't be made a crime. And also, making free sex a crime is used, at least in this case to favor rape.

Consensual sex, underage or even adulterous, is a crime in many countries.

Originally posted by Maju



This is a lwa to promote rape and violence against women. Nothing else.

If it's a law. What's clear is that it's not applied in its original form.

  • The laws of Pakistan must be in agreement with the constitution of Pakistan that under Article 25

          25.

(1) All citizens are equal before law and are entitled to equal  protection of law.

(2) There shall be no discrimination on the basis of sex alone.

(3) Nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the protection of women and children.

 

The laws (real or not) you talk about clearly do discriminate based on sex in the evidence required. Therefore they are unconstitutional.

  • Article 97 of the Pakistani Constitution says
    97.

Subject to the Constitution, the executive authority of the Federation shall extend to the matters with respect to which [Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament)] has power to make laws, including exercise of rights, authority and jurisdiction in and in relation to areas outside Pakistan:

Provided that the said authority shall not, save as expressly provided in the Constitution or in any law made by [Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament)], extend in any Province to a matter with respect to which the Provincial Assembly has also power to make laws.

The laws you talk about were never passed by Parliament/Assembly.

  • Finally, as Sparten mentioned the most obvious point is that the Shariat Courts are not allowed to make rulings on Muslim personal law (or Sharia law). 

"(Any) law does not include the constitution, Muslim personal law, any law relating to the procedure of any court or tribunal or, until the expiration of three years, any fiscal law, or any law relating to the collection of taxes and fees or insurance practice and procedure." - Article 203. 

This means that the the laws you describe concerning rape and adultery are outside of the purview of the Sharia benches or the Sharia courts. Therefore it's only legally possible for rape convictions in Pakistan to be tried in criminal courts. The criminal courts do not use the laws you describe. The criminal courts use constitutional laws as well as the Enforcement of Sharia Act (1991) (- which the Pakistan Penal Code must be in compliance of), shown here:

http://www.pakistani.org/pakistan/legislation/1991/actXof199 1.html 

20.
Rights of women not to be affected.
Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, the rights of women as guaranteed by the Constitution shall not be affected

The constitution guarantees

25.

(1) All citizens are equal before law and are entitled to equal protection of law.

(2) There shall be no discrimination on the basis of sex alone.

(3) Nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the protection of women and children.

Therefore the laws you refer to about requiring 4 male witnesseses or whatever cannot be law because they contradict the Enforcement of Shariah Act (1991).

 



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