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  Quote edgewaters Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Celts.
    Posted: 03-Apr-2006 at 17:12
Originally posted by reddrabs

Sorry to butt into a quarrel.

What do any of you mean by "Celt" - I have never seen any proof of Celtic languages beyond "this is different and olde, it is where Celts live [no definition of Celt beyond 'these are Celts!'} so I find it difficult to accept linguistics as location of a people!


The best evidence, of course, is the material culture. But we do have evidence of the language elsewhere. There are surviving fragments of Lepontic - the language of Cisalpine Gaul - written in a post-Etruscan alphabet, scattered fragments and references to the Galatian language, and pockets of other continental Celtic languages which persisted to the present day, eg Breton.

Still, Celts are mostly recognized as non-ethnic non-political grouping based primarily on material culture.

The term was used by Caesar for extremely polemic and political reasons - we must treat all his evidence with care.


True, but there was a culture which shared many traditions and features. It all depends on your definition of a "people". Are the Mayans a "people"? No more than the Celts - they are a collection of different ethnicities and dozens of languages who were never politically united, but we group them up for the reason that all those groups share a common culture. Same thing could be said about alot of different groups of the ancient world.

Academic evidence for the British Isles


Interestingly, neither Caesar nor any other Roman writer ever referred to the Britons as "Celts". They were always named Brittanii, the name thought to be derived from Pythias' accounts of encountering a race in the general area which he named the Prettanii.

-little evidence of invasion and large-scale migration since that period!


Well, aside from intriguing mythological traditions (such as those contained in the Irish Book of Invasions) there is some material evidence for the movement of people across the Channel - in both directions. Northern France, Britain, and the Netherlands appear to have been very intimately connected.

Once we get discussions on druids, I always ask for sources


Druids are mentioned in numerous Classical works. It is indicated that Druids are primarily a feature of the Britons, not the "Celts" (remember that the Romans distinguished between the two), although the druids were seemingly extending their sway across the area of Britonnic influence (eg, into Northern France and Belgium). The Romans do not mention the Druids as merely a religious sect - rather, they appear to have been administrators and enforcers of law, not very much unlike religious authorities in Judea.

Caesar is the chief source, but Posidonius writes of druids in Gaul in the 2nd century BC, they are mentioned by Pliny the Elder in his Natural History, Tacitus writes of them, etc. One thing that is also interesting to keep in mind is that Pytheas - who, if he went there, would have been in Britain much earlier, in the 4th century BC - may not have mentioned them. We don't have a copy of any of Pytheas' works, but they are referred to by other authors - none of whom mention anything about druids among the Prettanni.
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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Apr-2006 at 13:30
Evidence in the British islands shows tribes and what you could call nations/proto-nations speaking Celtic (Gaelic) languages in Great Britain, Little Britain (Brittany) and Ireland. We also have scarce Celtiberian (and even Lusitanian) inscriptions. We have a corpus of Latin "naturalists" (geographers and historians mostly) that mention detailedly dozens of tribes, calling them Galli and Galati (Gauls, Celts) and we see them using Gaul (the Latin name) and Celt (the Greek loanword) indistinctly. Call them Gauls or Gaelic if you prefer.

Do Gaelics exist? Well, Celts are (were) Gaelics by a different name.

...

Regarding the mythification of Celts in Britain and France specially, I agree that is much of a nationalist discourse. Also the lack of a name for the worse known pre-celtic peoples that raised Stonehenge and Karnac, among many other less spectacular monuments, favors a tendency to attribute all that eroneously to "the Celts", who serve as a generic anchor to the illiterate ill-known past.

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  Quote reddrabs Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 03-Apr-2006 at 11:54
Sorry to butt into a quarrel.

What do any of you mean by "Celt" - I have never seen any proof of Celtic languages beyond "this is different and olde, it is where Celts live [no definition of Celt beyond 'these are Celts!'}
so I find it difficult to accept linguistics as location of a people!

The term was used by Caesar for extremely polemic and political reasons - we must treat all his evidence with care.

Academic evidence for the British Isles
shows
-evidence of exchange of goods from the European mainland right back to Mesolithic times,
-little evidence of invasion and large-scale migration since that period!
-that copying a pot or design might mean that that pot or design is important but usually does not indicate more than that (I am wearing jeans as I type but am not American),
-being "Celtic" is important to groups in north-west Europe which really makes the water murky.

Once we get discussions on druids, I always ask for sources and, once I've crossed out Welsh and Irish tales, I find little. I do not trust these tales as literary truth!
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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 20:51
Originally posted by Turkish Soul

Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Turkish Soul

I was talking about ancient Celts


Do you already have enough? What do you need exactly?

 

I coould not find enough enformation about Celts in Turkish web sites.I will translate them information you gave all.My english is in the stage of upper intermiddiate.So somteimes I got problems. After I translate them into Turkish I will ask you some questions about Celts?I got some information about them but was not enough.



Fine. Ask your specific doubts.

Celts are also in the background of Turkey. As you may know a group of them was enlisted as mercenaries by some Hellenistc king who gave them the province that was to be known as Galatia, with capital in Ancyra, modern Ankara. That was their easternmost outpost anyhow.

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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 20:43
Originally posted by Paul

Originally posted by Maju

Celts are speakers of Celtic languages. That's clear enough. 

So Germans are speakers of Germanic languages. Wow! That makes Zimbabweans German, and Singaporeans, Jamacans too, Brunei to the Seychelles. Widely spread people these Germans



Well, Zimbabweans usually speak Shona and Ndbele (Sindebele) so far. English is so far just like Latin was in Poland or Hungary in the High Middle Ages: an official administrative tongue and lingua franca for inter-ethnic relations. Singapore is Chinese and Malayan, Brunei is exclussively Malayan.

Jamaican is English though, that's clear enough, isn't it? We don't usually call English German but Germanic, reserving German for a sepecific group of Germanic-speaking people - but with that little common-use correction, I do agree that "Jamaicans are German(-ic)".

Anyhow, such massive colonization as which happened in America or Australia in the last centuries, is not likely to have happened but very locally in other periods. A good example of this case could be the Orkney and Shetland islands, which seem very much Norwegian genetically (though not 100% - maybe about 50%).

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  Quote Turkish Soul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 17:51

Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Turkish Soul

I was talking about ancient Celts


Do you already have enough? What do you need exactly?

 

I coould not find enough enformation about Celts in Turkish web sites.I will translate them information you gave all.My english is in the stage of upper intermiddiate.So somteimes I got problems. After I translate them into Turkish I will ask you some questions about Celts?I got some information about them but was not enough.

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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 12:39

Originally posted by Maju

Celts are speakers of Celtic languages. That's clear enough. 

So Germans are speakers of Germanic languages. Wow! That makes Zimbabweans German, and Singaporeans, Jamacans too, Brunei to the Seychelles. Widely spread people these Germans

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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 11:47

Originally posted by Maju

the first and second links prove quite categorically you can't tell Anglo-Saxon from Britons by analysis of bones and teeth. Something you were denying was possible.

This sentence makes no logical sense.

 

I see nor relation. The first is about Copan, Mexico. The second is about technicalities on wether ancient remains should be reburied or what.  

No it's about telling where people where spent their younger years based upon teeth and bone analysis.

 


Let's see: I ask you for material to explain/support your thesis and the only rlevant link you give supports mine (the rest are too vague or totally unrelated)... and now you say that I'm chosing it.

You chose it.

 

Number one I never proposed a thesis, I simply reported to you what most modern archaeologists believe and then showed you an article from a highly respected and mainstream archaeology publication that's quite clearly shows this view.

Number two I never said you chose that the article I chose. You must clean your glasses more often.

 



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  Quote Socrates Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 10:03

Originally posted by Maju


As Engels said: any constitution of the state is a constitution of the army.

As Marx said(my translation from serbian):The evil is not within  men, it comes from the private property......funny how all evils come from outside for communists...i guess Buddha, Lao-Tsu and Jesus were on the wrong trail all along...if it was up to Marx, Freud and Jung would never accomplish anything- after all, men r not evil by nature-they r corrupted with private property-what I can't understand is how-if they r not prosponed(sp) for it .

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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 08:39
Originally posted by Paul

Originally posted by Maju

The first and the second link are unrelated, but the two last ones are relevant.

the first and second links prove quite categorically you can't tell Anglo-Saxon from Britons by analysis of bones and teeth. Something you were denying was possible.

I see nor relation. The first is about Copan, Mexico. The second is about technicalities on wether ancient remains should be reburied or what.  


Yes, Heinrich Harke believes in the Anglo-Saxons as a small military elite similar to the Vikings and Normans. It's an old article, very radical in it's day, refuting the pushed the native population west or genocided them opinion. And backing it up with firm evidence.

It's sparked a lot of research since. And subsequently more and more finds of early Anglo-Saxons and Britons living together and becoming one in a few generations have been uncovered. And as I stated above, Briton towns didn't disapear Anglo-Saxons moved into them and they continued to thrive for centuries.

However since this article other people have put forward different theories for the relationships between the Anglo-Saxons and Britons living together and becoming one. Military elite it one, but also many others such as traders, refugees, immigrants, foriegn artisans and so on. One theory say a mixture of relationships, intially conquest in the east but more a cultural influence later in the west.

Which theory of Anglo-Saxon role you choose to believe is up to you. It's not believing the dumb genicide and replacement theory that's important.



Let's see: I ask you for material to explain/support your thesis and the only rlevant link you give supports mine (the rest are too vague or totally unrelated)... and now you say that I'm chosing it.

You chose it.



One can imagine that a simmilar pattern could well apply to Celtic invasions.

True if the Celts came that would be one way. There could be others too.

But unlike with the Anglo-Saxons the evidence they came at all isn't that solid.

If they didn't come, how is it that Irish and Welsh speak Celtic. Shouldn't they speak Basque or Tartessian or some other pre-IE language?


Also you need to be more specific who the Celts are. The La Tene Culture travelling from Switzerland to Britain, the Gauls, the La Tene culture conquering the Gauls then leading the Gauls to Britain. The Spanish. The La Tene culture conquering the Spanish then leading them to Britain. So many options and 'celt' such a non-specific term to describe such a specific event.



Celts are speakers of Celtic languages. That's clear enough. La Tne is 100% Celtic (that's prety clear) but there are Celts without La Tne (Iberian Celts, for instance, whose last Celtic continental influence was Hallstatt).

There is no La Tne in Iberia: the Celts of Iberia arrived with Urnifields and early Hallstatt but were cut from the continent by Greek and Iberian expansion and remained isolated from other Celts later on. They never adopted druidism (Vacceans are dubbed as atheists by Pliny, for instance)  nor experienced La Tne. Instead they suffered, like their Iberian neighbours and rivals, the strong influence of Phoenicians. Though Iberians seemed more apt than Celts to adopt civilized manners.

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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 08:26
Originally posted by Socrates

I think Paul was right saying that Anglo-Saxons had some ''special traits'' to offer to indigenous populations-how can u explain that their culture and lang. became dominant?If AS were just a bunch of thugs-why would anyone accept their language:Fear?

Sure.

Obviously domination isn't kept merely by military means (a propaganda branch is also useful, and bribery and odd alliances are always possible). But just look at Mexico or North Africa: places where the native languages and religion have been removed to marginal areas, while the population remains largely native in the genetic plane. Those transformations happened as fast or faster than that of British "Anglization". I see no problem in accepting it.


... Why didn't a part of south slavs accept Avar language( their cruelty was beyond any doubt)


As has been discussed in other topics: Hungarians are (mostly) natives of the Pannonias who probably spoke Slavic languages at some period. Slavs themselves were invaders in the Balcans, anyhow.

... or why don't Chinese speak Mongolian,etc.


The Chinese case is most outstanding, comparable to that of Persia and Romania (Latin/Romance speaking Europe). My guess is that their own solidly stabilished culture, associated to the imperial tools of domination (administration, bueraucracy, scribes, priests) was seductive enough for the invaders who felt a "complex of inferiority" in comparison. The case is that, most  (but not all) "Romans", Persians and Chinese kept their language and partly their culture despite being invaded by barbarians. At least in China and Romania, these barbarians adopted largelly or fully the native imperial tongue along with other imperial cultural traits. That happened too in Persia, I believe.

The diference between Spain and Britain is that most Spaniards spoke Latin (even if a vulgar dialect) and that there was an administration and a liturgy written in that language. The Goths had nothing to compete with that but their military power. Also the Goths themselves had been legitimized as Roman "allies".

Instead in Britain the literacy and the Romanization was surely much smaller. Rome had abandoned the territory to its own forces and the invaders had no mutual recognition with the former legality. They werent even Christians initially...

I think that explains all.


I know-there r cases and cases-strangely, according to u , the IE's were always able to impose their own language and culture-although a very small minority...Since u think they had nothing more to offer than brutal force, that's a ...well- a certain phenomenon in the history...



Brutal force is the state. Of course brutal force has griots or trouvateurs and druids or priests to glorify its wielders. It's not just a matter of mere violence but it is that as well and essentially.

As Engels said: any constitution of the state is a constitution of the army.

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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 05:37

Originally posted by Maju

The first and the second link are unrelated, but the two last ones are relevant.

the first and second links prove quite categorically you can't tell Anglo-Saxon from Britons by analysis of bones and teeth. Something you were denying was possible.

 



Most interesting is the article of British Archaeology:


Large numbers of native Britons have never yet been recognised in the archaeological
record. My own research, however, suggests that evidence for the Britons can in fact be
found, and in places where archaeologists have hitherto rarely looked - that is, in Anglo-
Saxon settlements and cemeteries. It should not really be a surprise to find them there, as
the 7th century laws of King Ine of Wessex contain regulations for Britons, in a way that
implies their close co-existence with Anglo-Saxons, often as slaves or serfs.


This means invasion, subjugation and a hierarchical assimilation.


Evidence of this sort suggests two distinct phases of interaction between native Britons
and Anglo-Saxons - immigration in the 5th/6th centuries resulting in ethnically divided
communities and regions; and increased mixing of the two groups in the 7th/8th centuries,
leading to the assimilation of the natives into Anglo-Saxon society.


So what was I saying? Invasion, subjugation and hierarchical assimilation through the generations. Slowly the Britons (Celts) became Anglo-Saxon by force of facts.



More of that very interesting article that fully supports my thesis:


In the first phase, about half the male adults in Anglo-Saxon inhumation cemeteries were
buried with weapons; and where there are enough skeletal data, it appears the men with
weapons were, on average, one to two inches taller than their weaponless brethren. Other
skeletal evidence suggests this was probably not the consequence of different diet and
health. There is also strong evidence that the men of post-Roman Germanic populations on
the Continent were one to two inches taller than Romano-British men. We may, therefore,
accept the stature difference in post-Roman England as evidence that about half the male
population in `Anglo-Saxon' communities was of native British stock.


So we have two types: "tall warriors" and "short serfs". The warriors look Germanic, the serfs Celto-Roman. Probably genetic analysis would confirm those ethnic differences.

The author then mentions:
  1. Berinsfield (Oxfordshire) - example of "comunity model" (segregation), where Saxons and Britons did not mix even if they lived in the same settlement.
  2. Stretton-on-Fosse (Warwickshire) - example of "warband model", where Saxons marry native women, creating a mestizo community.
The second phase, after maybe 8-10 generations, does show an assimilation:


This situation changed gradually throughout the 7th and 8th centuries. A drop in average
male stature by one inch in `Anglo-Saxon' cemeteries in Wessex suggests that more native
groups, previously buried in cemeteries that cannot be identified, were now adopting
Anglo-Saxon culture and burial practices. In addition, in existing Anglo-Saxon settlements
the disappearance of the stature differential between men with and without weapons
suggests more intermarriage between ethnic groups. The appearance of Celtic names in the
Wessex royal house (for instance, the 7th century king Ceadwalla) suggests that the elite
too became mixed.


Yes, Heinrich Harke believes in the Anglo-Saxons as a small military elite similar to the Vikings and Normans. It's an old article, very radical in it's day, refuting the pushed the native population west or genocided them opinion. And backing it up with firm evidence.

It's sparked a lot of research since. And subsequently more and more finds of early Anglo-Saxons and Britons living together and becoming one in a few generations have been uncovered. And as I stated above, Briton towns didn't disapear Anglo-Saxons moved into them and they continued to thrive for centuries.

However since this article other people have put forward different theories for the relationships between the Anglo-Saxons and Britons living together and becoming one. Military elite it one, but also many others such as traders, refugees, immigrants, foriegn artisans and so on. One theory say a mixture of relationships, intially conquest in the east but more a cultural influence later in the west.

Which theory of Anglo-Saxon role you choose to believe is up to you. It's not believing the dumb genicide and replacement theory that's important.

 



One can imagine that a simmilar pattern could well apply to Celtic invasions.

True if the Celts came that would be one way. There could be others too.

But unlike with the Anglo-Saxons the evidence they came at all isn't that solid.

 

Also you need to be more specific who the Celts are. The La Tene Culture travelling from Switzerland to Britain, the Gauls, the La Tene culture conquering the Gauls then leading the Gauls to Britain. The Spanish. The La Tene culture conquering the Spanish then leading them to Britain. So many options and 'celt' such a non-specific term to describe such a specific event.

 



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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 05:12
Originally posted by Socrates

I think Paul was right saying that Anglo-Saxons had some ''special traits'' to offer to indigenous populations-how can u explain that their culture and lang. became dominant?If AS were just a bunch of thugs-why would anyone accept their language:Fear?Why didn't a part of south slavs accept Avar language( their cruelty was beyond any doubt),or why don't Chinese speak Mongolian,etc.I know-there r cases and cases-strangely, according to u , the IE's were always able to impose their own language and culture-although a very small minority...Since u think they had nothing more to offer than brutal force, that's a ...well- a certain phenomenon in the history...

Basically what I was saying was the Anglo-Saxons came to the country, lived amongst the locals, married them and quickly became a single people, the English.  Although the Anglo-Saxons were a small minority, more Anglo-Saxon customs were adopted than Briton ones. The English, though mostly ethnicaly Briton were mostly culturally Anglo-Saxon. The Anglo-Saxons themselves as you say must have had something to offer, to be the lesser people but become culturally more dominant. What it was there are many theories, all backed up by some evidence. Maju speculates conquest is correct and speculates the others are wrong.



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  Quote Socrates Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 02:28

I think Paul was right saying that Anglo-Saxons had some ''special traits'' to offer to indigenous populations-how can u explain that their culture and lang. became dominant?If AS were just a bunch of thugs-why would anyone accept their language:Fear?Why didn't a part of south slavs accept Avar language( their cruelty was beyond any doubt),or why don't Chinese speak Mongolian,etc.I know-there r cases and cases-strangely, according to u , the IE's were always able to impose their own language and culture-although a very small minority...Since u think they had nothing more to offer than brutal force, that's a ...well- a certain phenomenon in the history...

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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 02:08
The first and the second link are unrelated, but the two last ones are relevant.

Most interesting is the article of British Archaeology:


Large numbers of native Britons have never yet been recognised in the archaeological
record. My own research, however, suggests that evidence for the Britons can in fact be
found, and in places where archaeologists have hitherto rarely looked - that is, in Anglo-
Saxon settlements and cemeteries. It should not really be a surprise to find them there, as
the 7th century laws of King Ine of Wessex contain regulations for Britons, in a way that
implies their close co-existence with Anglo-Saxons, often as slaves or serfs.


This means invasion, subjugation and a hierarchical assimilation.


Evidence of this sort suggests two distinct phases of interaction between native Britons
and Anglo-Saxons - immigration in the 5th/6th centuries resulting in ethnically divided
communities and regions; and increased mixing of the two groups in the 7th/8th centuries,
leading to the assimilation of the natives into Anglo-Saxon society.


So what was I saying? Invasion, subjugation and hierarchical assimilation through the generations. Slowly the Britons (Celts) became Anglo-Saxon by force of facts.



More of that very interesting article that fully supports my thesis:


In the first phase, about half the male adults in Anglo-Saxon inhumation cemeteries were
buried with weapons; and where there are enough skeletal data, it appears the men with
weapons were, on average, one to two inches taller than their weaponless brethren. Other
skeletal evidence suggests this was probably not the consequence of different diet and
health. There is also strong evidence that the men of post-Roman Germanic populations on
the Continent were one to two inches taller than Romano-British men. We may, therefore,
accept the stature difference in post-Roman England as evidence that about half the male
population in `Anglo-Saxon' communities was of native British stock.


So we have two types: "tall warriors" and "short serfs". The warriors look Germanic, the serfs Celto-Roman. Probably genetic analysis would confirm those ethnic differences.

The author then mentions:
  1. Berinsfield (Oxfordshire) - example of "comunity model" (segregation), where Saxons and Britons did not mix even if they lived in the same settlement.
  2. Stretton-on-Fosse (Warwickshire) - example of "warband model", where Saxons marry native women, creating a mestizo community.
The second phase, after maybe 8-10 generations, does show an assimilation:


This situation changed gradually throughout the 7th and 8th centuries. A drop in average
male stature by one inch in `Anglo-Saxon' cemeteries in Wessex suggests that more native
groups, previously buried in cemeteries that cannot be identified, were now adopting
Anglo-Saxon culture and burial practices. In addition, in existing Anglo-Saxon settlements
the disappearance of the stature differential between men with and without weapons
suggests more intermarriage between ethnic groups. The appearance of Celtic names in the
Wessex royal house (for instance, the 7th century king Ceadwalla) suggests that the elite
too became mixed.



One can imagine that a simmilar pattern could well apply to Celtic invasions.

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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Feb-2006 at 23:26
Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Paul

That there was a clear Celticasation of Britain is currently what's under dispute. Quoted above in a previous post the museum keepers of two of the greatest collections of [so called]Celtic artifacts in the world. Both disagree they are Celtic at all. And both believe them the work of the indiginous populations of their countries not foriegn invaders.

That there was any invasion is now also under dispute. The theory of Celtic invasion of Britain was invented when Celtic goods similar to those of La Tene were found in Britain and Ireland. To date this is the only evidence for invasion. If however they are made by British and Irish not invaders then there's no evidence of invasion.

What's the meaning of all that: don't British minorities (those not Anglo-Saxonized) speak Celtic languages or what?

Dou you mean that Gaelic of Welsh are not Celtic?

 

A long time the British were Celtic because much evidence. Buildings, artifacts, race and language.

Buildings thought to be celtic have long since shown to be older than thought and comtemporary ones in different styles, artifacts are considered to have been made locally not brought over by invaders, old racial theories have long since been shown to be nonsense.

So now your proposing we base a whole invasion upon a language.

One even linguists can't agree upon much about.

 



Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Paul


The burial site was Pagan from very early in the migration, so included people born in Germany and Denmark, tooth records showed this. What was interesting was the supposedly Christian Britain's buried in the same place, obviously adopting the Saxon faith.



Obviously you are not talking of Celtic Britons: you are talikng of Anglo-Saxons of British ancestry. They were already totally assimilated into the Anglo-Saxon culture, whatever their ancestry.

What being demonstrated there is Anglo-Saxons, migrated from Germnay and Denmark. Didn't displace the local population, drive them west and build new towns. Instead they moved into existing British towns, lived amongst the locals and as a minority. But whats more important within a few generations the whole town was living in a culture more influenced by the culture of the migrants.



I'm not so sure that two individual genomes show much about that. Can you offer a link to your source anyhow, so I know what are we talking about.

Now you completely lost me. I'd have thought links about genetics was your thing.

Perhaps you mean this kind of stuff,

http://www.physicstoday.org/vol-57/iss-1/p20.html

http://www.britarch.ac.uk/ba/ba77/column3.shtml

http://www.britarch.ac.uk/ba/ba10/ba10feat.html

http://www.bbc.co.uk/radio4/science/thematerialworld_2004042 2.shtml



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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Feb-2006 at 21:18
Originally posted by Paul

That there was a clear Celticasation of Britain is currently what's under dispute. Quoted above in a previous post the museum keepers of two of the greatest collections of [so called]Celtic artifacts in the world. Both disagree they are Celtic at all. And both believe them the work of the indiginous populations of their countries not foriegn invaders.

That there was any invasion is now also under dispute. The theory of Celtic invasion of Britain was invented when Celtic goods similar to those of La Tene were found in Britain and Ireland. To date this is the only evidence for invasion. If however they are made by British and Irish not invaders then there's no evidence of invasion.

What's the meaning of all that: don't British minorities (those not Anglo-Saxonized) speak Celtic languages or what?

Dou you mean that Gaelic of Welsh are not Celtic?

 



Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Paul


The burial site was Pagan from very early in the migration, so included people born in Germany and Denmark, tooth records showed this. What was interesting was the supposedly Christian Britain's buried in the same place, obviously adopting the Saxon faith.



Obviously you are not talking of Celtic Britons: you are talikng of Anglo-Saxons of British ancestry. They were already totally assimilated into the Anglo-Saxon culture, whatever their ancestry.

What being demonstrated there is Anglo-Saxons, migrated from Germnay and Denmark. Didn't displace the local population, drive them west and build new towns. Instead they moved into existing British towns, lived amongst the locals and as a minority. But whats more important within a few generations the whole town was living in a culture more influenced by the culture of the migrants.



I'm not so sure that two individual genomes show much about that. Can you offer a link to your source anyhow, so I know what are we talking about.

I have the impression that you get to excessive conclussions from little material...

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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Feb-2006 at 17:03
Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Paul

The refutiation of Celtic Britain isn't arguing against small numbers coming over, but mass migration and replacement.

I don't mean to refute "Celtic Britain" (whatever that means) I just mean that:

  1. There was no mass replacement of poulation (genetics demonstrate that quite clearly)
  2. There was a clear Celtization of all or most British peoples

I say that the Celtization was done via invasion. That invasion was surely gradual, going through several phases between 1300 and 200 BCE - and history offers us some good examples of how it could happen in the invasion of Caledonia by the Scots (Irish), for instance: the Scots never repalced the Picts or other peoples that lived in Scotland, they just conquered them, imposed their conditions, transfered their ethnical name (the c**try is nowadays still called Scotland) and their language was accepted as main one (until the English gained influence).

Simmilar episodes ssurely happened in previous centuries. I see no mistery about that. We can see the same pattern in the Arabization of North Africa, the Turkification of Anatolia, the Romanization of Gaul and Hispania, etc.

That their was no mass replacement of population is a long held view backed up by huge archaeological evidence. Nowadays genetics seems to be saying a similar thing, so two camps agree. [A similar debate is going on in French Archaeology]

That there was a clear Celticasation of Britain is currently what's under dispute. Quoted above in a previous post the museum keepers of two of the greatest collections of [so called]Celtic artifacts in the world. Both disagree they are Celtic at all. And both believe them the work of the indiginous populations of their countries not foriegn invaders.

That there was any invasion is now also under dispute. The theory of Celtic invasion of Britain was invented when Celtic goods similar to those of La Tene were found in Britain and Ireland. To date this is the only evidence for invasion. If however they are made by British and Irish not invaders then there's no evidence of invasion.

 



Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Paul


The burial site was Pagan from very early in the migration, so included people born in Germany and Denmark, tooth records showed this. What was interesting was the supposedly Christian Britain's buried in the same place, obviously adopting the Saxon faith.



Obviously you are not talking of Celtic Britons: you are talikng of Anglo-Saxons of British ancestry. They were already totally assimilated into the Anglo-Saxon culture, whatever their ancestry.

What being demonstrated there is Anglo-Saxons, migrated from Germnay and Denmark. Didn't displace the local population, drive them west and build new towns. Instead they moved into existing British towns, lived amongst the locals and as a minority. But whats more important within a few generations the whole town was living in a culture more influenced by the culture of the migrants.



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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Feb-2006 at 15:58
Originally posted by Paul

The refutiation of Celtic Britain isn't arguing against small numbers coming over, but mass migration and replacement.

I don't mean to refute "Celtic Britain" (whatever that means) I just mean that:

  1. There was no mass replacement of poulation (genetics demonstrate that quite clearly)
  2. There was a clear Celtization of all or most British peoples
I say that the Celtization was done via invasion. That invasion was surely gradual, going through several phases between 1300 and 200 BCE - and history offers us some good examples of how it could happen in the invasion of Caledonia by the Scots (Irish), for instance: the Scots never repalced the Picts or other peoples that lived in Scotland, they just conquered them, imposed their conditions, transfered their ethnical name (the c**try is nowadays still called Scotland) and their language was accepted as main one (until the English gained influence).

Simmilar episodes ssurely happened in previous centuries. I see no mistery about that. We can see the same pattern in the Arabization of North Africa, the Turkification of Anatolia, the Romanization of Gaul and Hispania, etc.


The burial site was Pagan from very early in the migration, so included people born in Germany and Denmark, tooth records showed this. What was interesting was the supposedly Christian Britain's buried in the same place, obviously adopting the Saxon faith.



Obviously you are not talking of Celtic Britons: you are talikng of Anglo-Saxons of British ancestry. They were already totally assimilated into the Anglo-Saxon culture, whatever their ancestry.

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  Quote Paul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 22-Feb-2006 at 02:12

Originally posted by Maju

C'mon Paul: the British did colonize India: it was the jewel of the British colonial empire! They may not have "colonize" it by moving masses of population but that's not my point - and you know it.

DNA testing can't tell you the ethnicity of a person: it can tell you something about his or her genealogy but not the adopted ethnicity. Obviously all Britons (at least all Britons of England) became Anglo-Saxons eventually, the same they have became Celts earlier.

Genetically Yorkshire and Norfolk are the two more Anglo-Saxon (or Danish Viking, impossible to tell) regions in all Britain - yet they are still 60% Briton. If we would DNA-test modern English, none or almost none would pass the "Anglo-Saxonity test". But that's logical: Anglo-Saxons, as Celts before them, were always a minority - but powrful minority who imposed their rules.

The refutiation of Celtic Britain isn't arguing against small numbers coming over, but mass migration and replacement.

The burial site was Pagan from very early in the migration, so included people born in Germany and Denmark, tooth records showed this. What was interesting was the supposedly Christian Britain's buried in the same place, obviously adopting the Saxon faith.

 

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