Arabs before islam

Everybody has his own assumptions. What is for sure is that, your assumption to "probably he" or "he might" does not prove anything. Actions are louder than words.
Words of the Quran the prophet uttered states clearly (Chapter 2, verse 256) "There is no compulsion in religion"
Action of the prophet: I already mentioned various non-Muslim communities that existed during the time of prophet and continued to exist despite his death.
Therefore, no proof you have that the Prophet Muhammed has decided a general policy that no other religion is permitted. Especially that he convyed a different messege and acted different to what you claim.

So now you are contradicting yourself. You claim previously that Prophet Muhammed has instituted not accepting any religion, then you declare here that "it seems probable that Muhammad himself introduced the pratice of allowing conquered people to keep their religion in surrendering to his armies w/o fight".
Yemen falling in 630 is an explaination of what? His armies were capable of exiling those who did not convert to Islam. Neither anyone attempted so for the Jews of Yemen after it became part of the prophet's state.

Actually so far, your only proof against her is that he destroyed the idols as a hint of not accepting other than Islam in Mecca and thus, forcing all to be Muslims. However, you need a stronger evidance that contradict the common biography of the prophet.
First, you need to explain, if he was forcing all to be Muslims, how comes he allowed amnesty to Meccans?
Second, you need to explain too that why didn't all the Meccans became Muslim right away after the conquest?
Third, you need to prove a massacre or an exile to those who didn't convert, that will show a switch of his policies. In fact, all even those who prosecuted him and his followers were forgiven except a small number that were convected of capital crimes to convert Muslims before their exile out of Mecca.
fourth, you need to show us that if he intended to capture Mecca and force all to be Muslim convert, why does he after the Meccans ratified the peace truce, and were given a second chance of re-instituting the truce back with three options, they refused it and declared it a clash? You have to explain why would he give them a second chance if he is so eager to convert them?

All of my points are explained in the following Wikipedia paragraph:

The conquest of Mecca

Main article: Conquest of Mecca

The truce of Hudaybiyya had been in force since two years. ^[26][27]. The tribe of Khuz'aah was in friendly relationship with Muhammad, while on the other hand their enemies, Banu Bakr had aliance with Meccans.^[26][28] A clan of Bakr made a night raid against Khuz'aah, killing few of them ^[26][28]. Meccans helped their allies Banu Bakr with weapons and according to some sources few Meccans also took part in the fighting ^[26]. After the fighting Muhammad offered Meccans following three conditions^[29].

1. The Meccans were to pay blood-money for those slain among Khuza'ah tribe. Or
2. They should have nothing to do with Banu Bakr. Or
3. They should declare the truce of Hudaybiyya null.

The Meccan replied that they would accept only the third condition^[29]. However, soon they realized their mistake and sent Abu Safyan to renew the Hudaybiyya treaty, but now his request was declined by Muhammad. Muhammad began to prepare for a campaign. ^[30].

In 630, Muhammad marched on Mecca with an enormous force, said to number more than ten thousand men. After some scattered skirmishes, in which only twenty-four Meccans were killed,[reference needed] the Muslims seized Mecca. Muhammad promised a general amnesty to all but a few of the Meccans. Most Meccans converted to Islam, and Muhammad destroyed the idols in the Kaaba. Henceforth the pilgrimage would be a Muslim pilgrimage and the shrine a Muslim shrine.

I'm not here to debate the tolerance of Christianity. According to you, Muhammed said no other religion is permitted in Arabia. No religion, at all. That is in severe contradiction of reality. So, why did they leave many non-Muslims to exist after his death? I repeat again one example, why do we have communities of Yemeni Jews for the last 1400 years? Was the prophet request (according to you) hard to deliver? I dont think so.

If we assume you are right that Muhammad is not accepting any other religion, then we should ponder why many communities continued to practice their religion during the time of Muhammed and after Muhammed? Yemen came into Islam before the fall of Mecca. However, the Jews of Yemen were allowed to continue practicing Judaism even till now after 1400 years, there are still many Yemeni Jews. Christian of Najran, Jewish tribes around Madinah (that did not participated in the fight against Muhammed) and many more were not forcefully converted or kicked during the era of Muhammed.
The historical fact that Muhammed destroyed the pagan symbols over the Ka'bah is not a hint that ever person in conquested Arabia should be a Muslim forcefully, because of the examples I gave earlier of other non-Muslim communities continuing to exist in Arabia after Muhammed conquest.
It is rather a continuation of the story that even pagan Meccans believed. Pagan Meccans knew Ka'ba was built before those pagans god were placed. Some even attributed it to Ebraham the prophet, others to Adam. Whatever the case is, the fact that Muhammed decided that the Ka'ba must be cleansed of all dieties and shall be return back to it is old status is a disputable issue, but never a proof of forcing Islam. A tradition kept by most just Muslim rulers. That is why there are Christians who continued to exist in Palestine, Syria, Iraq, Egypt, Jordan....etc and Jews all over despite over a 1000 year of Muslim rule and culture. Wasn't it easy to force them to convert or exile? Im sure it was. Spain tried it in 1492 fall of Granada. Less than a 125 year, and no Muslim can be traced anymore in Spain by 1611 AD.

Check again your resources. Allah means simply the god. It is not a seperate pre-Islamic god. "Rabb" is the master or the lord. Again, not a seperate god. You can hear in Arabic literature "The Rabb of the sheeps" the lord or owner of the sheeps. Also, even Christian Arabs use the word "Rabb" to identify the God. Al-lat, Al- Uzza, Manah...and all hundred of gods are all "rabbs" or again Gods.  Allah is not different. It is derived from the combination of Al-Elah or "the God".  One of the gods "Al-Lat" is actually derived from El Elahat or the goddess. Simply, Elah is also god. More information are found here:

Etymology

Most linguists believe that the term Allāh (Arabic: ألله‎) is derived from a contraction of the Arabic words al (the) and ʾilāh (deity, masculine form) - al-ilāh meaning "the god". Also, one of the main pagan goddesses of pre-Islamic Arabia, Allāt (al + ʾilāh + at, or 'the goddess'), is cited as being etymologically (though not synchronically) the feminine linguistic counterpart to the grammatically masculine Allāh. If so, the word Allāh is an abbreviated title, meaning 'the deity', rather than a name.

I have read that, before Islam, the Arab lands were famous in a very different light, in a negative one to be precise. They used attack on the caravans passing the deserts, known for statue and fire worshipping, killing burrying their children in the sand and most of the missorder which was known around.

Many believe, that Allah sent the Holy prophet Muhammad to Arabia especially for that, to bring order into one the most ashamed places by him! Especially, taking into account the fact that the Holy Kaaba was located there and was surrounded by all those stone and fire worshipers! 

Now, after the Holy prophet Muhammad, Arabia has been blessed and it gave arise to the great Khaliphat (which greatly affected us - Uzbeks also), also now it has all the oil, the wealth just keeps coming out underneath them!   you lucky guys!!

Oh ok

then it seems like the source you are using replaced the term Al Aarebah with Al Muta'arribah.

if not then what tribes where put under al arab ala'arribah?

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about the lizard eating thing, this was introduced by the Abyssinians, there is a Hadith when the Abyssinians came to Madina , they started eating lizards and when they presented it to the prophet he refused to eat it and the companions asked him if its "haram" forbidden to eat lizard, he told then no its not Haram but he is disgusted from it .

that means this lizard eating thing came to arabia through africa.

Yeah lizards, we eat them, in the UAE primarily the dhab sort of lizard, its popular with the more nomadic arabs as they are pretty mobile.

The problem with the idea of female infanticide in the context of ancient Arab societies was that the environment of the desert was so harsh, that such a practice would have destroyed tribes.  On the other hand, a numerically superior ratio of females to males naturally encouraged polygamy which was practiced in ancient Arab societies and even into Islamic societies into the 20th century.