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Jesus was Caesar ?

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: Regional History or Period History
Forum Name: Ancient Mediterranean and Europe
Forum Discription: Greece, Macedon, Rome and other cultures such as Celtic and Germanic tribes
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Topic: Jesus was Caesar ?
Posted By: erkut
Subject: Jesus was Caesar ?
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 16:25
''Jesus was Caesar / On the Julian Origin of Christianity'' By Francesco Carotta. http://www.carotta.de/eindex.html - http://www.carotta.de/eindex.html

''  Julius Caesar, son of Venus and founder of the Roman Empire, was elevated to the status of Imperial God, Divus Julius, after his violent death. The cult that surrounded him dissolved as Christianity surfaced.
A cult surrounding Jesus Christ, son of God and originator of Christianity, appeared during the second century. Early historians, however, never mentioned Jesus and even now there is no actual proof of his existence.  ''
 
My question is: Is there really no proof of Jesus Christ's existance ? Confused



Replies:
Posted By: hugoestr
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 17:32
Aren't the gospels historic proof of the historic existence of Jesus?

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Posted By: Akolouthos
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 18:18

We can, by taking all of the historical data from the beginning of the Christian era, state that it is almost certain that Jesus did exist. There is evidence going back to the middle of the first century, not the second. Both the Scriptures and the external testimony to the movement which He founded argue for his existence. While it cannot be decided with historical certainty, I think that the historical record alone argues for the extreme probability of his existence, and have yet to see an argument which throws this probability into sufficient doubt. If you are asking for a body, that is ruled out by the Christian narrative. Wink

-Akolouthos


Posted By: pekau
Date Posted: 15-May-2008 at 19:31

Doubt it. Both Christian and non-Christian offer good records and evidence of how Jesus did exist. Whether he was divine or not... well, we are still debating on that one.

But the connection is quite interesting. I remember a story about how he was tested into a question where people asked if tax should be paid to Caesar or God.


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Posted By: erkut
Date Posted: 16-May-2008 at 11:22
Well i didnt belive this at first, but than it makes me doubt...
What is the oldest record about Jesus?


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Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 16-May-2008 at 11:42
Originally posted by erkut

Well i didnt belive this at first, but than it makes me doubt...
What is the oldest record about Jesus?


Christian or non-Christian?


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Posted By: Aster Thrax Eupator
Date Posted: 16-May-2008 at 13:44
Consider that if thousands of people have had some kind of influence from this man, and hundreds of commentators (admittedly non-historical) from the gospels and other sources have said something about him, then it's pretty good evidence that he probably did exist. Moreover, regard that in the early Christian Byzantine councils and the earlier Constantines' council of Nicaea, that many had reports from people about this man. That's evidence enough for me

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Posted By: hugoestr
Date Posted: 16-May-2008 at 14:52
Look, the argument that there are a lot of similarities between Christianity and Emperor worship is a good one. There are. But my hunch is that the similarities stem from both Christianity and the Caesar cult drawing their inspiration from the mystery cults that were popular at the time in the pagan world.

And the insight on how the gospels can be interpreted as an allegory for the Roman civil war seems interesting. It would explain why some people could identify with the story (although it does beg the question on why were the gospels written in Greek, rather than Latin, if the main audience were the Romans.)

The conclusion that the Caesar cult and Christianity is the same is ludicrous.

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Posted By: pikeshot1600
Date Posted: 16-May-2008 at 16:24
Originally posted by hugoestr

Look, the argument that there are a lot of similarities between Christianity and Emperor worship is a good one. There are. But my hunch is that the similarities stem from both Christianity and the Caesar cult drawing their inspiration from the mystery cults that were popular at the time in the pagan world.

And the insight on how the gospels can be interpreted as an allegory for the Roman civil war seems interesting. It would explain why some people could identify with the story (although it does beg the question on why were the gospels written in Greek, rather than Latin, if the main audience were the Romans.)

The conclusion that the Caesar cult and Christianity is the same is ludicrous.
 
It has the makings of one of those Holy Grail best sellers though.
 
Somebody call Dan Brown.   LOL
 
 


Posted By: erkut
Date Posted: 19-May-2008 at 19:50
Ok i made a research one of my friend told me Cornelius Tacticus(AD.55-120), Flavius Josephus(AD.38-100) was mentioned about Jesus.

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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 19-May-2008 at 19:55
In addition, I don't think Caesar would, in any way, want to be associated with the unimportant and troublesome province of Judea.

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Posted By: flaja
Date Posted: 21-May-2008 at 03:55
Originally posted by hugoestr

Look, the argument that there are a lot of similarities between Christianity and Emperor worship is a good one. There are. But my hunch is that the similarities stem from both Christianity and the Caesar cult drawing their inspiration from the mystery cults that were popular at the time in the pagan world.

And the insight on how the gospels can be interpreted as an allegory for the Roman civil war seems interesting. It would explain why some people could identify with the story (although it does beg the question on why were the gospels written in Greek, rather than Latin, if the main audience were the Romans.)

The conclusion that the Caesar cult and Christianity is the same is ludicrous.
 

The last thing that any Jew would do is deify a human being.  Because Judaism was older than Rome was, the Romans exempted the Jews from emperor worship as a show of respect.

 

If Christianity originated among the Jews, then the first Christians had to have had some legitimate reason to believe that Jesus Christ was God.

 

BTW: Didn’t the 1st century AD Jewish historian Josephus mention Jesus? And should proof that Jesus Christ existed be limited to proof that the person Jesus Christ existed? If Jesus Christ never existed, how can you explain documentary evidence for the existence of Christians?



Posted By: Omar al Hashim
Date Posted: 21-May-2008 at 04:07
Originally posted by Constantine


Christian or non-Christian?

Bear in mind that any detailed records became Christian records. Early christians (1st & 2nd century) were hungry for information about Jesus and weren't about to throw away a source. Any suffiencently detailed record would have become a part of someones* Christianity.

The last thing that any Jew would do is deify a human being.  Because Judaism was older than Rome was, the Romans exempted the Jews from emperor worship as a show of respect.

 

If Christianity originated among the Jews, then the first Christians had to have had some legitimate reason to believe that Jesus Christ was God.


No doubt why Antoich and not Jerusalam was the place trinitarianism first took hold.

*As in, it may not have been sanctioned by the Church but it would have been christian.


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Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 21-May-2008 at 08:10
Originally posted by Omar

Originally posted by Constantine


Christian or non-Christian?
Bear in mind that any detailed records became Christian records. Early christians (1st & 2nd century) were hungry for information about Jesus and weren't about to throw away a source. Any suffiencently detailed record would have become a part of someones* Christianity.


Well I am not too certain that every early Roman record of Jesus was taken on board verbatim by the Christians.

The author I have in mind at the moment is Tacitus, as I read his Annals and in it he specifically mentions Christ. His reference is a short one, simply naming him as a criminal who was crucified from Judaea under whose leadership the cult whose members call themselves "Christians" sprung up.

Tacitus has a take on Jesus and the Christians which is far from flattering. So far he is the earliest non-Christian source I have found which speaks about Jesus, and he was writing 80 years after the Crucifixion. Some have concluded the opposite to what you are suggesting - that Tacitus got his information source from the Christians themselves or their affiliates rather than from earlier Roman sources and archives


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Posted By: Akolouthos
Date Posted: 21-May-2008 at 16:48
Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

No doubt why Antoich and not Jerusalam was the place trinitarianism first took hold.
 
Could you elaborate a bit on that? I'm not exactly sure what is being referred to. As far as I know, the Antiochene "school" was generally home to many literalist exegetes, who tended to adopt *ahem* an Adoptionist Christological perspective. These men, such as Paul of Samosata, often had problems with orthodox trinitarianism.
 
-Akolouthos
 


Posted By: flaja
Date Posted: 21-May-2008 at 17:53
Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

Originally posted by Constantine


Christian or non-Christian?

Bear in mind that any detailed records became Christian records. Early christians (1st & 2nd century) were hungry for information about Jesus and weren't about to throw away a source. Any suffiencently detailed record would have become a part of someones* Christianity.

The last thing that any Jew would do is deify a human being.  Because Judaism was older than Rome was, the Romans exempted the Jews from emperor worship as a show of respect.

 

If Christianity originated among the Jews, then the first Christians had to have had some legitimate reason to believe that Jesus Christ was God.


No doubt why Antoich and not Jerusalam was the place trinitarianism first took hold.

*As in, it may not have been sanctioned by the Church but it would have been christian.
 

What church?

 

During the 1st century individual Christian congregations submitted to the authority of Paul and the original Apostles.  Tradition holds that as the Apostles died off they appointed successors which had authority over local congregations.  But by the mid-2nd century there were too many congregations to be administered by just a few apostolic successors.  And in the meantime heresies were already in the works long before the Apostles were all dead. The Apostles and their immediate successors never had any earthly authority to do anything about heresies other than warn people about them.  The power to excommunicate heretics and legally define what Christianity is did not rest in a single entity until the earthly leaders of the church had the backing of law that came with Constantine in the 4th century.

 

The Apostles had the ability to tell us what Christian doctrine is, but they had no earthly power to enforce it.



Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 21-May-2008 at 17:55
Originally posted by Constantine XI

Originally posted by Omar

Originally posted by Constantine


Christian or non-Christian?
Bear in mind that any detailed records became Christian records. Early christians (1st & 2nd century) were hungry for information about Jesus and weren't about to throw away a source. Any suffiencently detailed record would have become a part of someones* Christianity.


Well I am not too certain that every early Roman record of Jesus was taken on board verbatim by the Christians.

The author I have in mind at the moment is Tacitus, as I read his Annals and in it he specifically mentions Christ. His reference is a short one, simply naming him as a criminal who was crucified from Judaea under whose leadership the cult whose members call themselves "Christians" sprung up.

Tacitus has a take on Jesus and the Christians which is far from flattering. So far he is the earliest non-Christian source I have found which speaks about Jesus, and he was writing 80 years after the Crucifixion. Some have concluded the opposite to what you are suggesting - that Tacitus got his information source from the Christians themselves or their affiliates rather than from earlier Roman sources and archives
 
Ah these ancient historians. I mean, its so unreasonable to cite sources!
 
The thing is, reading Tacitus's work, one gets the feeling from the context the he is simply repeating what he was told by Christians or at least those who were familiar with their ideology.
 
That said, I do believe that there was a historical Jesus. Even if the records are sparse, we need to remember that many things which are later recognized as supremely important, were not recognized as being that big a deal at the time.


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Posted By: flaja
Date Posted: 21-May-2008 at 18:09
Originally posted by Constantine XI

Originally posted by Omar

Originally posted by Constantine


Christian or non-Christian?
Bear in mind that any detailed records became Christian records. Early christians (1st & 2nd century) were hungry for information about Jesus and weren't about to throw away a source. Any suffiencently detailed record would have become a part of someones* Christianity.


Well I am not too certain that every early Roman record of Jesus was taken on board verbatim by the Christians.

The author I have in mind at the moment is Tacitus, as I read his Annals and in it he specifically mentions Christ. His reference is a short one, simply naming him as a criminal who was crucified from Judaea under whose leadership the cult whose members call themselves "Christians" sprung up.

Tacitus has a take on Jesus and the Christians which is far from flattering. So far he is the earliest non-Christian source I have found which speaks about Jesus, and he was writing 80 years after the Crucifixion. Some have concluded the opposite to what you are suggesting - that Tacitus got his information source from the Christians themselves or their affiliates rather than from earlier Roman sources and archives
 

Have you given any consideration to the historical details presented in the New Testament that don’t pertain specifically to Jesus?

 

If Jesus Christ never existed, then the entire NT is something of a fraud.  If the NT was written close to the time period during which Christ supposedly lived, then it would be natural for it to include historical details in an effort to give the fiction some validity.

 

But if the NT was written long after the period during which Christ was supposedly living on earth, then would the writers have bothered to include historical details?  Would the writers have known about the details themselves?  Would the NT’s target audience have known enough about the historical details for the details to have any impact?  Or were the historical details themselves made up as a ruse for people who likely wouldn’t know or couldn’t verify history from decades earlier?

 

I think most historians and Bible scholars say that the earliest any of the NT was written was in the 2nd half of the 1st century.  The earliest (as far as I know) that anyone has dated a NT document is Thiede’s dating of the Gospel of John to around 46 AD.  But if the historical details in the Gospels are accurate, would we have reason to give the Gospels an earlier date, i.e., they were written closer to the time of Christ and may have been eyewitness accounts as Christian tradition maintains they are?  Would an earlier date give the Gospels validity as historical documents and not just religious polemics?



Posted By: flaja
Date Posted: 21-May-2008 at 18:13
Originally posted by Akolouthos

Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

No doubt why Antoich and not Jerusalam was the place trinitarianism first took hold.
 
Could you elaborate a bit on that? I'm not exactly sure what is being referred to. As far as I know, the Antiochene "school" was generally home to many literalist exegetes, who tended to adopt *ahem* an Adoptionist Christological perspective. These men, such as Paul of Samosata, often had problems with orthodox trinitarianism.
 
-Akolouthos
 
 

Trinitarianism is found in the NT.  So whether or not the first Christians were Trinitarian depends on whether or not you accept the NT as history. If you reject Trinitarianism, then you will find some way to discount the NT.



Posted By: Akolouthos
Date Posted: 21-May-2008 at 19:09
Originally posted by flaja

During the 1st century individual Christian congregations submitted to the authority of Paul and the original Apostles.  Tradition holds that as the Apostles died off they appointed successors which had authority over local congregations.  But by the mid-2nd century there were too many congregations to be administered by just a few apostolic successors.  And in the meantime heresies were already in the works long before the Apostles were all dead. The Apostles and their immediate successors never had any earthly authority to do anything about heresies other than warn people about them.  The power to excommunicate heretics and legally define what Christianity is did not rest in a single entity until the earthly leaders of the church had the backing of law that came with Constantine in the 4th century.

 

The Apostles had the ability to tell us what Christian doctrine is, but they had no earthly power to enforce it.

 
Well, there were more than a few Apostolic successors. Indeed, everywhere they went the Apostles set up local Church organizations, to be administered by local presbyters and bishops who corresponded with the Apostles themselves. Furthermore, the Apostles certainly had the right to enforce decrees against heresy, as Scripture testifies. The process was redefined a bit after the death of the Apostles and the destruction of Jerusalem, but it has always been a part of Christian history. Although excommunication did not gain a legal dimension in a civil sense until after the Church was reconciled with the state during the Constantinian era, it was certainly practiced long before that.
 
Trinitarianism is found in the NT.  So whether or not the first Christians were Trinitarian depends on whether or not you accept the NT as history. If you reject Trinitarianism, then you will find some way to discount the NT.
 
I agree, but there were those who did not. You see, though the proper interpretation of Scripture takes account of the references to the co-eternality of the Son with the Father, and the divinity of the Spirit, there were many who, claiming to interpret Scripture, came to different, erroneous conclusions. All of them held to the same basic corpus of Scripture -- we're not talking about a canon here, at least not in a modern sense; what differed were their interpretations. The conflict between the Antiochene and Alexandrian schools was of major import in the Trinitarian and Christological debates of the fourth and fifth centuries, which is why I was wondering about -- and not disputing -- Omar's reference.
 
-Akolouthos


Posted By: flaja
Date Posted: 21-May-2008 at 22:16

Originally posted by Akolouthos

Well, there were more than a few Apostolic successors. Indeed, everywhere they went the Apostles set up local Church organizations, to be administered by local presbyters and bishops who corresponded with the Apostles themselves.

 

The Book of Acts and Paul’s Epistles indicate that Paul and the original 12 Apostles (with Iscariot’s replacment) had a role in ordaining the leaders of local congregations and all local (legitimate) congregations submitted to the authority of Paul and the Apostles on matters of doctrine and behavior (the Jerusalem conference regarding circumcision).  Tradition holds that the Apostles appointed successors, i.e., men who had the same authority that the Apostles had exercised on earth.  But eventually the number of local congregations became too great to be supervised by the Apostles’ sucessors.  The Apostolic successors were eventually replaced by bishops, and while these bishops had some authority over local congregations within their territory, the bishops themselves did not have to answer to anyone higher up on earth until the time of Constantine.

 

Furthermore, the Apostles certainly had the right to enforce decrees against heresy, as Scripture testifies.

 

Just how did they do this?  Could they kick a heretical congregation out of its church buildings?  Could they exile pastors and bishops whom they didn’t like as Constantine was able to do?

 

I agree, but there were those who did not. You see, though the proper interpretation of Scripture takes account of the references to the co-eternality of the Son with the Father, and the divinity of the Spirit, there were many who, claiming to interpret Scripture, came to different, erroneous conclusions.

 

An ever ongoing process.

 

All of them held to the same basic corpus of Scripture -- we're not talking about a canon here, at least not in a modern sense; what differed were their interpretations.

 

Actually heretics like Marcion were trying to create a canon of a sort as early as the mid-2nd century.  The Gnostics also created their own heretical writings and if the Gnostics were around during the lifetime of Paul, as some historians and Bible scholars maintain, their writings were likely around as well.  Chances are as long as the Paul and the Apostles were still around, no heresy could gain much headway because it could be countered by Apostolic authority. When the Apostles died, their authority died as well.

 

The conflict between the Antiochene and Alexandrian schools was of major import in the Trinitarian and Christological debates of the fourth and fifth centuries, which is why I was wondering about -- and not disputing -- Omar's reference.

 

This is odd.  The Biblical manuscripts that are usually used to prepare modern English translations of the Bible are associated with Alexandria, i.e., the Alexandrian Text Type.  For someone like me, these modern translations are heretical in the extreme.  Antioch was a Christian center from Apostolic times.  If heresy was to develop in either place, it would most likely have been Alexandria.

 



Posted By: Akolouthos
Date Posted: 22-May-2008 at 02:37
Originally posted by flaja

The Book of Acts and Paul’s Epistles indicate that Paul and the original 12 Apostles (with Iscariot’s replacment) had a role in ordaining the leaders of local congregations and all local (legitimate) congregations submitted to the authority of Paul and the Apostles on matters of doctrine and behavior (the Jerusalem conference regarding circumcision).  Tradition holds that the Apostles appointed successors, i.e., men who had the same authority that the Apostles had exercised on earth.  But eventually the number of local congregations became too great to be supervised by the Apostles’ sucessors.  The Apostolic successors were eventually replaced by bishops, and while these bishops had some authority over local congregations within their territory, the bishops themselves did not have to answer to anyone higher up on earth until the time of Constantine.
 
A wonderful summary. My only issue was with the phrase "just a few", as I felt it could be misinterpreted in an anti-episcopal context by someone unfamiliar with the history of the early Church. The expansion in this excerpt clears it up nicely. Clap
 
Just how did they do this [enforce decrees of excommunication]?  Could they kick a heretical congregation out of its church buildings?  Could they exile pastors and bishops whom they didn’t like as Constantine was able to do?
 
An interesting question. As I noted, the civil penalties developed as a response to heresy only after the reign of Constantine (well, I can think of one exception, but it's an anomaly); the ecclesiastical penalties have always been an interior church matter.
 
How could the Apostles enforce their decrees? By excluding the heretical members from the Body of Christ, of course. Scripture itself is testament enough to this. Whether or not the individual Christian congregations wished to follow these decrees or not would be a matter of some importance, but the fact that the Apostles felt themselves capable of telling the Chrisitian communities who they should and should not associate with is amply recorded.
 
Could they kick individual members out of their church buildings? Hm. That's a tough one. I suppose it would depend in what context each Christian community found itself, and this would be determined by geographical, political, cultural, and economic factors; I can think of several situations. If the community was meeting in a synagogue, they would not own the building, and thus such a decree would be difficult to enforce. If the community was meeting in a private home, it would depend on which faction the homeowner belonged to -- in this case, however, if the homeowner sided with the heretics, the legitimate Apostolic body would simply meet somewhere else (although certainly under threat of reprisal from the heretical body). If they were meeting in a communally owned/used "home", as in the case of the later so-called "house churches", it would be easier for the Apostles to enforce their authority.
 
An ever ongoing process [the interpretation of Scripture/developmet of heresy].
 
Isn't it just. LOL
 
Actually heretics like Marcion were trying to create a canon of a sort as early as the mid-2nd century.  The Gnostics also created their own heretical writings and if the Gnostics were around during the lifetime of Paul, as some historians and Bible scholars maintain, their writings were likely around as well.  Chances are as long as the Paul and the Apostles were still around, no heresy could gain much headway because it could be countered by Apostolic authority. When the Apostles died, their authority died as well.
 
Which is why I used the qualifier "at least not in a modern sense". Thank God -- quite literally, in fact -- that Marcion's canon wasn't accepted; can you imagine a Christianity divorced from the Old Covenant which it fulfilled?
 
I think it is likely that Gnosticism was working its way into Christianity by the time of St. Paul's epistles -- it had certainly done so by the time of John's writings, as is apparent from their focus. After all, there were some gnostic and proto-gnostic groups throughout the Near-East before the advent of Christianity.
 
That the Apostles battled heresy in general, and that John battled Gnostic influences in particular, is apparent from Scripture. I don't think we can say that their authority "died" with them, though. After all, their purpose in appointing successors -- at least as interpreted in orthodox Christianity -- was to pass on the Apostolic Tradition and authority. Christ's promise of the Holy Spirit -- which would guide the Church -- as well as the writings of Saint Paul on the subject of the Church bear this out.
 
This is odd.  The Biblical manuscripts that are usually used to prepare modern English translations of the Bible are associated with Alexandria, i.e., the Alexandrian Text Type.  For someone like me, these modern translations are heretical in the extreme.  Antioch was a Christian center from Apostolic times.  If heresy was to develop in either place, it would most likely have been Alexandria.
 
Well, it's quite interesting, actually. The first arch-heresy of the Ecumenical era actually originated in Alexandria out of Antiochene theology. LOL Arius, presbyter of... Baucalis? in Alexandria (which had also been fertile ground for the Church in the time of the Apostles, especially owing to the presence of certain complimentary elements of Logos theory) was allegedly a disciple of Lucian of Antioch. Ultimately, the excesses of both the Alexandrine and Antiochene schools led many astray. While there were many orthodox theologians from each, there were many heretics who, following the tendencies of each school to the extreme, injured the Body of Christ. The history of the first four -- and even more specifically, the last two -- ecumenical councils is largely, though not entirely, a narrative of the struggle for supremacy between the two schools.
 
As for the manuscripts, it is a mess, isn't it? The Alexandrinus, more and more, is used as a base text, and even when this is not the case -- as in the King James Bible -- many Bibles have footnotes/sidenotes noting that the Alexandrian codex omits certain pieces of the text in a condescending way that implies that they are not a legitimate part of Scripture. It is, to say the least, rather annoying. I do value textual studies, but it does bother me when Christian scholars recklessly edit the received biblical text.
 
-Akolouthos


Posted By: flaja
Date Posted: 22-May-2008 at 04:14

Originally posted by Akolouthos

A wonderful summary. My only issue was with the phrase "just a few", as I felt it could be misinterpreted in an anti-episcopal context by someone unfamiliar with the history of the early Church. The expansion in this excerpt clears it up nicely.

 

I don’t get your meaning.  Did I use the expression “just a few”? Both the Roman Catholic and Anglican Churches claim Apostolic succession.  But what we now know as the Roman Catholic Church did not exist until well after the time of Constantine; the lineage of bishops, cardinals (an un-Biblical office) and popes (another un-Biblical office) back to Paul and the original 12 Apostles cannot possiblly be verified. And if the Anglican bishops and arcbishops are legitimate successors to what the Catholics had, the Anglicans have to explain why God let His officials on earth to become so corrupt that the Anglicans had to depose them.

 

It kills me when a modern congregation claims to be a New Testament church.  Without Apostles or their legitimate succesors, a New Testament church is impossible.  As far as I know every existing denomination is more or less corrupt.  Congregations that have congregational polity by making themselves the sole authority of doctrine and behavior defy the Bible because New Testament churches submitted to the authority of the Apostles.  Congregations that have episcopalian polity by submitting to a hierarchy of bishops, arcbishops etcetera, also defy the Bible because such elaborate hierarchies did not develop during Biblical times, i.e., before the last Apostle died, and thus may not be Biblical.  And congregations that have presbyterian polity are just variations on the first two.

 

How could the Apostles enforce their decrees? By excluding the heretical members from the Body of Christ, of course.

 

But what was there to keep heretical congregations from claiming to part of the Body of Christ?  Just because person A says that person B is not a Christian does not mean that person B canot still claim to be a Christian.

 

Scripture itself is testament enough to this. Whether or not the individual Christian congregations wished to follow these decrees or not would be a matter of some importance, but the fact that the Apostles felt themselves capable of telling the Chrisitian communities who they should and should not associate with is amply recorded.

 

But, unlike the church that had the backing of the state, the Apostles had no physical means to enforce their decrees.  I realize that once the Apostles were dead on earth, there needed to be some way to use legal/physical force to maintain legitimte doctrine and practice.  But entrusting the church to the power of the state, which happened with Constantine, was not a good solution.

 

If they were meeting in a communally owned/used "home", as in the case of the later so-called "house churches", it would be easier for the Apostles to enforce their authority.[/qote]

 

How so?  Even in Paul’s day and age Christian services held in private homes often became drunken orgies.  Paul condemned such behavior and the faithful would follow Paul’s lead.  But neither Paul, nor the faithful, had any way of keeping the drunks from claiming to be Christians. The ability of heretics to masquerade as legitimate Christians has plagued the church since day 1.

 

Which is why I used the qualifier "at least not in a modern sense". Thank God -- quite literally, in fact -- that Marcion's canon wasn't accepted; can you imagine a Christianity divorced from the Old Covenant which it fulfilled?

 

The rejection of Marcion’s cannon by the majority of the people who called themselves Christian did not prevent a few from accepting Marcion’s heresy while still claiming to be Christian.  Ultimatey the survival of legitimate Christian doctrine is in God’s hands.  Legitimate Christians won’t always be in the majority of people who claim to be Christian.  We’ve likely been in the minority during several periods of history, and we likely are in the minority now.

 

I think it is likely that Gnosticism was working its way into Christianity by the time of St. Paul's epistles -- it had certainly done so by the time of John's writings, as is apparent from their focus. After all, there were some gnostic and proto-gnostic groups throughout the Near-East before the advent of Christianity.

 

As Solomon said, there is nothing new under the sun and this includes Satan’s tactics.  He has seldom come up with any new heresy; he mostly repackages the old ones.

 

That the Apostles battled heresy in general, and that John battled Gnostic influences in particular, is apparent from Scripture. I don't think we can say that their authority "died" with them, though.

 

Their authority died with them in the sense that after they died they could not object when someone distorted their teachings.  Once Paul was gone from the earth anyone could say that Paul said X and Paul wasn’t around to say “I did not say X.” As long as the Apostles were on earth, what they could tell you in person would trump anything that a heretic could say they said in writing.

 

After all, their purpose in appointing successors -- at least as interpreted in orthodox Christianity -- was to pass on the Apostolic Tradition and authority. Christ's promise of the Holy Spirit -- which would guide the Church -- as well as the writings of Saint Paul on the subject of the Church bear this out.

 

But there are many a heretic who claims to be filled witt the Holy Spirit.  And this brings up the question: how do you verify that what someone accepts as the Holy Spirit is really the Holy Spirit.  If Satan disguised himself as the Holy Spirit, how would a heretic know the difference?

 

As for the manuscripts, it is a mess, isn't it?

 

No.  God saw to it that the Bible’s original autographs were were complete, innerrant, inspired and infallible (CI cubed; I don’t know how to make exponents on this net) and then they were accurately and faithfully copied and then accurately and faithfully translated when the need arose.

 

[quote]The Alexandrinus, more and more, is used as a base text, and even when this is not the case -- as in the King James Bible -- many Bibles have footnotes/sidenotes noting that the Alexandrian codex omits certain pieces of the text in a condescending way that implies that they are not a legitimate part of Scripture. It is, to say the least, rather annoying. I do value textual studies, but it does bother me when Christian scholars recklessly edit the received biblical text.

 

I became a Christian when I was about 4 years old.  But I was not raised in a Christian home and have never been a member of any church and I do not now attend services anywhere because I won’t associate with lukewarm Christians and hypocrites.  I have never used any translation but the Authorized King James, but I didn’t care about the translation issue until the late 1990s.  The hostility of modern Bible advocates and the emptiness of their anti-AKJ arguments are what made me King James only.

 



Posted By: Akolouthos
Date Posted: 22-May-2008 at 05:43
Originally posted by flaja

I don’t get your meaning.  Did I use the expression “just a few”? Both the Roman Catholic and Anglican Churches claim Apostolic succession.  But what we now know as the Roman Catholic Church did not exist until well after the time of Constantine; the lineage of bishops, cardinals (an un-Biblical office) and popes (another un-Biblical office) back to Paul and the original 12 Apostles cannot possiblly be verified. And if the Anglican bishops and arcbishops are legitimate successors to what the Catholics had, the Anglicans have to explain why God let His officials on earth to become so corrupt that the Anglicans had to depose them.
 
I would be Orthodox, which would add an entirely new third category -- or rather a first. Wink
 
What I meant was that certain groups -- specifically congregational polities that tend to equate the roles of presbyter and bishop -- would take such a statement to deny the value of the episcopacy. I understand that you and I would both agree as to the authentic nature of both roles, although we would probably disagree as to how the roles are to be practically interpreted and applied. I just wanted to clear up something that, while correct, could have been misinterpreted.
 
As to your critique of the Roman Church and the Anglican Church, I certainly agree. The Roman Church has broken with the Apostolic Tradition, and the Anglican Church has, rather disingenuously, attempted to pay lip service to the Apostolic Tradition while repudiating it at every turn. As for the lineage of bishops, we can establish it historically, although in certain cases without absolute certainty. Still, while Apostolic Succession is essential to the composition of the Church, true Apostolic Succession is more than an enumeration of the bishops: it is the protection of the original, incorrupt Apostolic Tradition through the ages. Once again, on this I think we would agree, even if we disagreed as to how to interpret the point.
 
It kills me when a modern congregation claims to be a New Testament church.  Without Apostles or their legitimate succesors, a New Testament church is impossible.
 
Aye, it is certainly a misuse of terminology. Still, we Orthodox hold that we are the continuation of the New Testament Church, which is a separate thing entirely. The Apostolic Era ended when John died ca. A.D. 96 (subject to interpretation); the Church, as the Body of Christ, continues through the ages.
 
As far as I know every existing denomination is more or less corrupt.  Congregations that have congregational polity by making themselves the sole authority of doctrine and behavior defy the Bible because New Testament churches submitted to the authority of the Apostles.  Congregations that have episcopalian polity by submitting to a hierarchy of bishops, arcbishops etcetera, also defy the Bible because such elaborate hierarchies did not develop during Biblical times, i.e., before the last Apostle died, and thus may not be Biblical.  And congregations that have presbyterian polity are just variations on the first two.
 
Here we have an interesting situation, and one that is seldom laid out so plainly. I would say the the fact that the Apostles set out successors, coupled with the promises of Christ and the ecclesiastical theology of the Pauline corpus does endow the Church with Apostolic authority after the death of the apostle John. To say otherwise would, to my mind, be a denial of the fact that the Church of Christ is the temple of the Spirit. congregational and presbyteral governance are both inadequate, both scripturally and historically. The former denies the role of elders and overseers in governance, the latter equates the roles of the two. From inferences in the New Testament and the letters of Ignatios of Antioch, we can determine that the monarchical episcopate was a fact in Apostolic times. While the titles of archbishop, etc. are not to be found in the Holy Scriptures, they are consistent with it; indeed, they are simply a development within the Apostolic Tradition. In the Orthodox Church the roles of bishops, archbishops, metropolitans, and patriarchs are consistent with the episcopal organization of the Church as outlined by the Scriptures -- they are simply an application of Scriptural organization to a larger Church, much as the centralized Apostolic organization, as seen in the Council of Jerusalem, gradually gave way to the episcopal form as the Church developed in the New Testament period. The title of pope could also be consistent, if its use were not distorted by the Romans in a manner that is inconsistent with both Scripture and Tradition.
 
And yes, every Church, including my own, is corrupt to some degree in that it is composed of mere and fallible men. But we know that "as for man, his days are as grass: as a flower of the field, so he flourishes." Men's lives and accomplishments are ephemeral; the Word of God is not. The Apostle speaks of heavenly treasures carried in earthen vessels -- the inerrant doctrines of the Apostles will be carried by men who are subject to sin and self-importance. That said, the preservation of the inerrant doctrines of the Apostles are guaranteed by Christ's promises, both of the Holy Spirit to the Church and that the gates of Hell would not prevail against her.
 
But what was there to keep heretical congregations from claiming to part of the Body of Christ?  Just because person A says that person B is not a Christian does not mean that person B canot still claim to be a Christian.
 
Oh, anyone can claim to be a Christian -- just look at the Jehovah's witness or Mormon on your doorstep. That said, not everyone who claims to be a Christian is a Christian. God's use of the authority of the Apostles and their episcopal successors was enough to regulate matters in a way that transmitted the authentic Scriptures to us; after all, I haven't found the "Infancy Gospel of Thomas", the "Gospel of Judas", or any other gnostic works in my canon.
 
But, unlike the church that had the backing of the state, the Apostles had no physical means to enforce their decrees.  I realize that once the Apostles were dead on earth, there needed to be some way to use legal/physical force to maintain legitimte doctrine and practice.  But entrusting the church to the power of the state, which happened with Constantine, was not a good solution. 
 
Agreed in principle. Although we should note that the interrelation between Church and State was to cause great pain for both parties down through the ages. The sanctification of the State by the Church is not so much the problem -- indeed, this could be an orthodox solution; what was problematic was the abuse of this relationship by the State and, to a lesser extent, the Church. I speak here of the East, not the West; in the West, the Church abused the relationship far more than the State.
 
How so?  Even in Paul’s day and age Christian services held in private homes often became drunken orgies.  Paul condemned such behavior and the faithful would follow Paul’s lead.  But neither Paul, nor the faithful, had any way of keeping the drunks from claiming to be Christians. The ability of heretics to masquerade as legitimate Christians has plagued the church since day 1.
 
Of course, but their claim and its validity are two separate things. And yes, it has plagued and continues to plague the Church.
 
The rejection of Marcion’s cannon by the majority of the people who called themselves Christian did not prevent a few from accepting Marcion’s heresy while still claiming to be Christian.  Ultimatey the survival of legitimate Christian doctrine is in God’s hands.  Legitimate Christians won’t always be in the majority of people who claim to be Christian.  We’ve likely been in the minority during several periods of history, and we likely are in the minority now.
 
Indeed, Marcion's heresy persisted for well over a century.
 
I would certainly say that authentic Christians are in the minority of those who call themselves Christians now, but has this not always been so? I suppose we could look at it two ways: 1) membership in the body of Christ, and 2) perfection in the Body of Christ. By the first standard, there are around 300 million, by the second there are none. There will never be a perfect Christian; the only perfection is to be found in union with Christ who is perfection. All of us are hypocrites, and all of us are damned without that free gift of grace which God gives us. That said, God's voluntary, philanthropic condescension to mans imperfection has given us an out: Christ, the theanthropos. Through union with the God-man, and only through union with him, we may be saved from our slavery to sin and the devil. In the Church, the Body of Christ, which was promised by Christ as a bulwark against which the wiles of the Devil would not prevail, and which was further explained in the Holy Epistles of Scripture, we have the opportunity for sanctification through our communion with Him in the Eucharist, through our following of his will (by which we make ourselves His sheep), and through our personal relationship with Him in prayer. Outside of this context, we are, in essence, worshipping another Christ.
 
As Solomon said, there is nothing new under the sun and this includes Satan’s tactics.  He has seldom come up with any new heresy; he mostly repackages the old ones.
 
Aye; too true, too true. Which is why we see Gnosticism, Arianism, Nestorianism, and the detestable theology of the Cathars and Paulicians creeping up in the modern era. Indeed, much of Reformation theology is just cobbled together from the heresies of the preceding fifteen centuries, and a rejection of the equally abhorrent herestical developments of the Roman Church.
 
Their authority died with them in the sense that after they died they could not object when someone distorted their teachings.  Once Paul was gone from the earth anyone could say that Paul said X and Paul wasn’t around to say “I did not say X.” As long as the Apostles were on earth, what they could tell you in person would trump anything that a heretic could say they said in writing.
 
Which I would agree with, if it weren't for the promise of Christ. I understand that the Apostles could no longer condemn heretical doctrine after their deaths, but the Holy Spirit could. It is the Holy Spirit which guides the Church, and it is the Holy Spirit which preserves her from doctrinal error, though she is composed of wretched men. Thus has authentic doctrine been preserved through the ages. And what the Spirit says trumps everything else Man may say for me.
 
But there are many a heretic who claims to be filled witt the Holy Spirit.  And this brings up the question: how do you verify that what someone accepts as the Holy Spirit is really the Holy Spirit.  If Satan disguised himself as the Holy Spirit, how would a heretic know the difference? 
 
A heretic could not; a Christian could, but only within the context of the Apostolic Tradition. Often in the history of the Church, when many learned, powerful bishops have deserted the truth of Christ, their decisions have been overruled by the minority, and even by the consensus of the laity who participate in the universal priesthood (read: priesthood of all believers). To say that the Spirit has deserted the Church is to say that faith in the Logos is a dead faith, for the Logos Himself said that the Spirit would testify of Him.
 
If you will indulge me in a story: Once, an early Christian monk was sitting in his cell in the desert and the devil came to him in the form of Christ. The devil, in this form, ordered the monk to abase himself and worship him. The monk responded by closing his eyes and saying: "I do not wish to see Christ in this life." The moral of the story is that we have to be content with what has been revealed, and test everything that the devil tries to throw at us against this. The evil one is treacherous, and only adherence to the authentic Truth that is Christ can overcome him.
 
No.  God saw to it that the Bible’s original autographs were were complete, innerrant, inspired and infallible (CI cubed; I don’t know how to make exponents on this net) and then they were accurately and faithfully copied and then accurately and faithfully translated when the need arose.
 
Agreed. I assume that we would also agree that the canon used by the Church and promulgated in the latter part of the fourth and early part of the fifth century is the authentic canon -- this would include the so-called Apocrypha, which were a part of the Septuagint, which was the Scripture of the Apostles and the New Testament era.
 
I became a Christian when I was about 4 years old.  But I was not raised in a Christian home and have never been a member of any church and I do not now attend services anywhere because I won’t associate with lukewarm Christians and hypocrites.  I have never used any translation but the Authorized King James, but I didn’t care about the translation issue until the late 1990s.  The hostility of modern Bible advocates and the emptiness of their anti-AKJ arguments are what made me King James only.
 
I use the King James primarily because it is derived from the textus receptus. Modern arguments against it based on its "poor" translation ignore the fact that other translation rely on incomplete manuscripts. I would much rather be working with a complete set of data transmitted in slightly imperfect form than an incomplete set of data transmitted perfectly -- and I doubt any translations based upon the omissions in the Alexanrine codex are done perfectly, we humans being what we are.
 
That said, I am a bit worried at the repudiation of all community oriented Christianity. After all, the reception of the Eucharist is the essence of our faith, as expounded by Christ in the Gospels and Paul in his epistle to the Corinthians. This simply must be done in community, for we can no more disregard other members of the community for their imperfections than our own limbs can disregard our other limbs for their imperfections. There is certainly a point where a limb amputates itself from the body, through necrosis, but this is an extreme situation. Lukewarm Christians and hypocrites need to be in the Church to learn how to be flames of the Spirit and fully committed to the Gospel. There is a point where they must be cut off, but this is always to be done with love, and with an aim to encouraging the diseased member of the Body of Christ to seek treatment. Christianity simply cannot be carried on alone, as Scripture testifies. This will always, even if begun with good intentions, become an exercise in very human pride and judgment, rather than divine humility and love. Corporate worship is the essence of the Christian faith, and even the most distant hermit is a member of a community. In Scripture it is so as well: the perfect Body of Christ is composed of imperfect members -- it only becomes perfect through the divine infusion of the God-man, our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ.
 
-Akolouthos


Posted By: flaja
Date Posted: 22-May-2008 at 15:44

Originally posted by Akolouthos

 

I would be Orthodox, which would add an entirely new third category -- or rather a first.

 

I don’t know much about Greek Orthodox doctrine, but I do respect the Greeks for preserving the Greek record of the NT.  One of the issues that I have run across in my research on the King James only issue is how the Greek term monogenesis should be translated.  Most modern English translation say it means unique, but modern day Greeks can pretty much read the NT in its origianl Koine Greek form and they insist that the word means only-begotten.  Without the Greek record, today’s heretics would be having a run-a-way field day.

 

What I meant was that certain groups -- specifically congregational polities that tend to equate the roles of presbyter and bishop -- would take such a statement to deny the value of the episcopacy. I understand that you and I would both agree as to the authentic nature of both roles, although we would probably disagree as to how the roles are to be practically interpreted and applied. I just wanted to clear up something that, while correct, could have been misinterpreted.

 

There are some people who think the modern day pastor is the be all to end all when it comes to church leadership.  There are others that say the modern day pastor has no Biblical foundation while some say that elder, bishop, pastor and presbyter are all one and the same office.  There are passages in the Book of Acts that do seem to back up this claim.  But I see where a congregation can have too many chiefs and not enough Indians.  I think a congregation should be governed by something akin to the U.S. Constitution- separation of powers and a system of checks and balances so no one can play the dictator and you have more chances to stop heresy if you have more people in positions of leadership.  But too many people with authority and too many checks and balances can be as paralyzing to a church congregation as it too often is with the federal government.  The more people that have to have their say the more likely a church is to not make vital decisions.

 

Aye, it is certainly a misuse of terminology. Still, we Orthodox hold that we are the continuation of the New Testament Church, which is a separate thing entirely. The Apostolic Era ended when John died ca. A.D. 96 (subject to interpretation); the Church, as the Body of Christ, continues through the ages.

 

I tend to use the term congregation because the church is the entire Body of Christ.  But many congregations (and practically all that have congregationsal polity) tend to see themselves as the sole Body of Christ and thus the only real church.

 

In the Orthodox Church the roles of bishops, archbishops, metropolitans, and patriarchs are consistent with the episcopal organization of the Church as outlined by the Scriptures

 

Can you give me the Scriptural references to back this up?  For a while now I have been trying to find a concise explanation regarding what the NT says about church polity.  I have the AKJ in MS Word format and I have been using the search function off-and-on to find references to apostles, elders, deacons etcetera, but I am bound to miss something with this process.  And most of what I can find on the net is designed to uphold some preacher’s or denomination’s preferred slant.  I hadn’t thought about what the Greek Orthodox Chruch may say on the matter.

 

-- they are simply an application of Scriptural organization to a larger Church, much as the centralized Apostolic organization, as seen in the Council of Jerusalem, gradually gave way to the episcopal form as the Church developed in the New Testament period.

 

I agree that the earthly structure of the NT church was bound to change over time for the simple fact that 12 + 1 men would eventually be unable to do the physical work that administering hundreds and thousands of local congregations would require.  I am just concerned that the expanded earthly church ramain consistent with the spirit, if not the letter, of the Bible.

 

And yes, every Church, including my own, is corrupt to some degree in that it is composed of mere and fallible men.

 

But can a godly man be fallible when he is doing God’s work with the benefit of God’s guidance?  I cannot tell you how many time modern translation advocates have told me that the Bible is not infallible because man had a role in preparing it.  Some people don’t even think the original autographs are infallible because humans were the ones to put ink to paper.  Claiming that God’s power cannot compensate for man’s shortcomings is denying the supreme power of God.

 

Agreed in principle. Although we should note that the interrelation between Church and State was to cause great pain for both parties down through the ages.

 

I’ve always said that the worst thing to ever happen to Christianity was the formation of the Roman Catholic Church and the second worse thing to happen was the Reformation.  Authority without orthodoxy is useless when it is not dangerous.  But orthodoxy without authority can be ineffectual.

 

I would certainly say that authentic Christians are in the minority of those who call themselves Christians now, but has this not always been so?

 

Possiblly not during Apostolic times, but likely not since then.

 

Indeed, much of Reformation theology is just cobbled together from the heresies of the preceding fifteen centuries, and a rejection of the equally abhorrent herestical developments of the Roman Church.

 

I’ve never thought of the Reformation in this way before, but now that you say this it hit me that there is no stream of Reformation theology that I totally agree with.

 

If you will indulge me in a story: Once, an early Christian monk was sitting in his cell in the desert and the devil came to him in the form of Christ. The devil, in this form, ordered the monk to abase himself and worship him. The monk responded by closing his eyes and saying: "I do not wish to see Christ in this life." The moral of the story is that we have to be content with what has been revealed, and test everything that the devil tries to throw at us against this. The evil one is treacherous, and only adherence to the authentic Truth that is Christ can overcome him.

 

I never learned the Russian, but while Ronald Reagan was negotiating nuclear arms reduction agreements with the Soviet Union he liked to quote a Russian proverb that said “trust, but verify”.  Too many of today’s self-proclaimed Christians trust, but don’t verify.

 

Agreed. I assume that we would also agree that the canon used by the Church and promulgated in the latter part of the fourth and early part of the fifth century is the authentic canon -- this would include the so-called Apocrypha, which were a part of the Septuagint, which was the Scripture of the Apostles and the New Testament era.

 

I follow Athanasius, which most Protestants do.  I’ve seen it claimed that Athanasius’ canon includes the Apocrypha, but I have never seen any documentation for the claim.  Traditionally the Apocrypha was printed with Protestant English Bibles, but as a separate section since its Biblical authencity is considered to be doubtful. Eventually the Apocrypha was dropped from printings of the King James to save production costs.  I don’t use the Apocrypha as a general rule, but this is likely because I don’t have ready access to it.  Personally I haven’t studied the issue well enough to venture any comment on whether or not it should be in the canon.

 

I use the King James primarily because it is derived from the textus receptus. Modern arguments against it based on its "poor" translation ignore the fact that other translation rely on incomplete manuscripts.

 

Incomplete and likely intentionally fraudulent manuscripts that likely arose during the persecution of Diocletian.

 

That said, I am a bit worried at the repudiation of all community oriented Christianity. After all, the reception of the Eucharist is the essence of our faith, as expounded by Christ in the Gospels and Paul in his epistle to the Corinthians.

 

The Eucharist, as a physical act on our part, has no role in our salvation.  We are saved by faith in Christ, not by works or ritual of our own doing.

 

Lukewarm Christians and hypocrites need to be in the Church to learn how to be flames of the Spirit and fully committed to the Gospel.

 

They don’t need to be running the church, which is the case where I live.

 

and even the most distant hermit is a member of a community.

 

How so?



Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 22-May-2008 at 20:02

I'm not sure I see any point in people who believe firmly in the Bible considering it as evidence in whether Jesus was a historical figure or not.

I happen to agree that the overwhelming likelihood was that he was historical (if not, then it must have been someone else with the same name) but at least the possibility that he wasn't enters into my universe.

Erkut originally asked


My question is: Is there really no proof of Jesus Christ's existance ?

That the New Testament says he did is hardly 'proof', except to a committed believer. I don't believe Erkut was asking whether the Bible is proof of Jesus' existence (or Christ's).

Hugo asked:


Aren't the gospels historic proof of the historic existence of Jesus?

and the answer is that while they are certainly to some extent evidence, they are not proof, except again to the committed believer.

The earliest version of Josephus' chief mention of Jesus that we have a text of is from the early fourth century (though Josephus's work is first century). That says

Originally posted by Eusebius


And there lived at that time Jesus, a wise man, if indeed it be proper to call him a man. For he was a doer of wonderful works, and a teacher of such men as receive the truth in gladness. And he attached to himself many of the Jews, and many also of the Greeks. He was the Christ.
8. When Pilate, on the accusation of our principal men, condemned him to the cross, those who had loved him in the beginning did not cease loving him. For he appeared unto them again alive on the third day, the divine prophets having told these and countless other wonderful things concerning him. Moreover, the race of Christians, named after him, continues down to the present day.”

There is another earlier reference to Josephus mentioning Jesus. Midway through the third century Origen wrote:


"Flavius Josephus, who wrote the "Antiquities of the Jews" in twenty books, when wishing to exhibit the cause why the people suffered so great misfortunes that even the temple was razed to the ground, said, that these things happened to them in accordance with the wrath of God in consequence of the things which they had dared to do against James the brother of Jesus who is called Christ. And the wonderful thing is, that, though he did not accept Jesus as Christ, he yet gave testimony that the righteousness of James was so great; and he says that the people thought that they had suffered these things because of James." (On The Gospel Of Matthew, 1:15) [om]

"For in the 18th book of his Antiquities of the Jews, Josephus bears witness to John as having been a Baptist, and as promising purification to those who underwent the rite. Now this writer, although not believing in Jesus as the Christ, in seeking after the cause of the fall of Jerusalem and the destruction of the temple, whereas he ought to have said that the conspiracy against Jesus was the cause of these calamities befalling the people, since they put to death Christ, who was a prophet, says nevertheless-being, although against his will, not far from the truth-that these disasters happened to the Jews as a punishment for the death of James the Just, who was a brother of Jesus (called Christ),-the Jews having put him to death, although he was a man most distinguished for his justice. Paul, a genuine disciple of Jesus, says that he regarded this James as a brother of the Lord, not so much on account of their relationship by blood, or of their being brought up together, as because of his virtue and doctrine" (Origen, Against Celsus, 1:47) [oa]

(Origen's reference to books and sections have been challenged.)

There is another reference (apparently) to Jesus in Josephus when he wrote:

"...Festus was now dead, and Albinus was but upon the road; so he assembled the sanhedrim of judges, and brought before them the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ, whose name was James..."

(I'm unsure what the earliest text of this passage is.)
 
Tacitus doesn't mention Jesus. He merely records:
Consequently, to get rid of the report, Nero fastened the guilt and inflicted the most exquisite tortures on a class hated for their abominations, called Christians by the populace. Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus, and a most mischievous superstition, thus checked for the moment, again broke out not only in Judaea, the first source of the evil, but even in Rome, where all things hideous and shameful from every part of the world find their centre and become popular. Accordingly, an arrest was first made of all who pleaded guilty; then, upon their information, an immense multitude was convicted, not so much of the crime of firing the city, as of hatred against mankind. Mockery of every sort was added to their deaths. Covered with the skins of beasts, they were torn by dogs and perished, or were nailed to crosses, or were doomed to the flames and burnt, to serve as a nightly illumination, when daylight had expired
This is good evidence that there were Christians in Rome in Nero's time, but then I don't think anyone has ever doubted that.
 
A few things are obvious.
(a) in the time between Josephus' writing the texts and the compilation of the extant texts there is plenty of opportunity for Christian interpolators to modify them. In particular when Eusebius attributes to Josephus "He was the Christ", there is a direct clash with Origen who says that Josephus did not believe in Christ.
(b) Obviously there needs to be drawn a distinction between 'Christ' and 'Jesus' here. Joseph quite probably accepted that Jesus existed (at least by repute) but refused to accept him as the Christ. That's a reasonable position that happens to be my own.
(c) textual arguments aren't going to get anyone anywhere. 
(d) the existence of Christians does not prove the validity of anything Christians believe (or else we would be straight into paradox) including the historical existence of Jesus - let alone anything theological.
 
On the other hand, pretty well every religion one can name had a known founder or, occasionally, more than one. It's also true that folk legend usually has some basis in fact, even when in detail what is described is unacceptable physically (like the miracles associated with any religious founder). In particular it does seem very likely that the founder of the breakaway Jewish group called Christianity was called Jesus (and in fact that he had a predecessor / collaborator called John.
 
I feel myself that that also applies to the Acts of the Apostles and the Epistles, which are probably very good historical records of what the people involved did and believed, even if one rules out the miracles.


-------------


Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 23-May-2008 at 03:18
Originally posted by gcle

Tacitus doesn't mention Jesus. He merely records:
Consequently, to get rid of the report, Nero fastened the guilt and inflicted the most exquisite tortures on a class hated for their abominations, called Christians by the populace. Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus, and a most mischievous superstition, thus checked for the moment, again broke out not only in Judaea, the first source of the evil, but even in Rome, where all things hideous and shameful from every part of the world find their centre and become popular. Accordingly, an arrest was first made of all who pleaded guilty; then, upon their information, an immense multitude was convicted, not so much of the crime of firing the city, as of hatred against mankind. Mockery of every sort was added to their deaths. Covered with the skins of beasts, they were torn by dogs and perished, or were nailed to crosses, or were doomed to the flames and burnt, to serve as a nightly illumination, when daylight had expired
This is good evidence that there were Christians in Rome in Nero's time, but then I don't think anyone has ever doubted that.
 
Quite correct, I should have been more carefuly distinguishing Christ from Jesus - the terms have become interchangable in common usage.


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Posted By: Nick1986
Date Posted: 03-Jun-2012 at 19:14
I don't buy it. Christianity was an underground, subversive religion precisely because they refused to worship the emperor

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Me Grimlock not nice Dino! Me bash brains!



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