if mitannis spoke indo aryan and gave a sanskrit type name, it is pretty evident that they came from india/subcontinent or atleast their culture came from there because that is where migration put independent indo aryan and not any where outside india, outside india the family was undivided as indo iranian.
i remember barmakid family, which in sanskrit transliterates to pramukha who were the administrators of nava vihara from Balkh, barmakid name is an iranian or an arabic corruption of pramukha, nobody claimed that barmakids came from central asia as a third lineage of indo aryan migrants, they are assumed naturally as the locals who had naturalised into indic culture, so similar story must have been true for the mitannis.
The entire scenario how indians or indian influenced people landed up in western asia and became rulers or at least got influenced by it is unbelievable to say the least, the iranian or persian scenario could have been much more digestible, it is natural that iranians are agitated about mitannis not being iranian but indo aryan because as the migrationist theory explains that indo aryan migration route was india while iranian route was persia/middle east/western asia. i think this discovery itself demolishes the whole migration scenario itself, not to mention that mitanni contains middle indo aryan features as well, im not sure how many prakritic words are attested in mitanni inscriptions, but there are definitely signs of middle indo aryan which also negates migration scenario as well and places the indo aryan of mitanni origin firmly in india.
if mitannis were iranians, the biggest question would be indra, varuna, nasatyas are never an iranic deities, mitra is iranian as well as indian but it maybe clearly a borrowing due to the indian presence in iranian like mitanni people. How did the iranians ended up with indian deities in the first place? secondly the names which are clearly attested in the vedas and their transliterations in mitanni names. People object to things like why mitannis have Z instead of J when its true for iranians and not indians, in urdu we also use Z and its probably due to persian influence, so its clearly persian or so local dialect is influencing enough, or the cuneiform has limited means of writing down sanskrit and its sounds which are not native to the region.
regards
Edited by Hologram - 28-Jun-2019 at 05:42