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King John
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Topic: Spread of English in the world Posted: 02-Dec-2007 at 19:49 |
Actually for English you want to go with the OED (Oxford English Dictionary) this will give you meaning and usage. According to the OED America is frequently used as the name of the USA.
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Posted: 02-Dec-2007 at 23:52 |
Originally posted by JudahMacabee15
... In any event, here's another source. American Heritage Dictionary "America: 1. the United States of America."
If I were to call you "gay" I might be wrong. I cannot validate the statement by saying it refers to you being in a jovial state, Words have meanings, the same applies here Penguin.
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If you call me "gay" I would answer in the standard chilean way:
"Please, lend me your sister to make the test"
I don't care about your twisted explanations. The fact is the U.S. institute of culture of the U.S. embassy in Chile is called "Northamerican institute of Culture". If they used the term "American" that would mean "pan-american".
Besides, British will understand this. Call soccer with its real name: football
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King John
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Posted: 03-Dec-2007 at 00:14 |
I assume it has a Spanish name, what is that name? What does your last sentence (Besides, British will understand this. Call soccer with its real name: football) have to do with anything? It is a pointless, inane, and irrelevant sentence that has no place in this post let alone this thread, you're better than that.
P.S. Please see my above post about the OED and how it defines America. The OED as I said above gives not only definitions but usages. Under "America" usage meanings the OED states: the name of the United States of America.
Edited by King John - 03-Dec-2007 at 00:29
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elenos
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Posted: 03-Dec-2007 at 00:17 |
I use half a dozen different dictionaries to investigate the right shades of meaning when not satisfied. The OED and the MW are top among them. No one book contains every meaning nor could they for English is a changing language that moves with the times.
Although frowned upon in some quarters it's permissible to borrow words from another language or make up your own words to suit the occasion. Those who insist on strict use are called pendants, those who play with words call themselves creative. The general rule is immediate possession of the term in question. Those who choose to call themselves Americans are American. The term has that meaning because of general agreement to call those who live in North America as Americans, but not the Canadians.
The present use may not have been the original meaning of the word but it is now. Tough titty for those who are being pedantic. With the English language the current flow of common usage among the general population and not the origins count the most.
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elenos
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Constantine XI
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Posted: 12-Mar-2008 at 19:34 |
Ok so the original question was, had English mostly become a world language because of America?
Credit for the spread of English is deserved by both the USA and UK.
The British Empire did much of the spade work in creating an English
language segment of the world. Much of the Commonwealth now possess
permanent English speaking communities which endure from one generation
to the next. This is very much a British achievement.
It was during the inter-war period that British power and influence
began its quiet but real decline, to be realised with proper
decolonisation post-WWII. And it was during this same period that the
USA truly began to shine so bright culturally that she did so enough
for the outside world to see her as well. She was at the forefront of
media production, which she continued with ever greater enthusiasm up
to our own day.
It was after WWII that the USA found herself with the ability and the
willingness to project both her cultural and military power as widely
as possible. In doing so, she helped elevate English to a level which
no other language had before enjoyed. With a majority of top 100
corporations being American (with the second most being British) after
WWII, and with vast media production to boot, people around the world
found learning English to open doors to highly attractive opportunities.
I think that the British Empire most firmly cemented sustainable
English speaking communities around the world, which will endure for
generations. America was more effective at spreading English globally,
but their ability to sustain that depends on the economic and cultural
advantages that come with knowing English. America made English a
global language like no other nation in history before had done, though
that spread will probably be less sustainable in the long term compared
to English being used in the Commonwealth. It is a fine achievement
nonetheless, and a testament to the cultural and economic vitality of
the USA in the 20th century.
Edited by Constantine XI - 12-Mar-2008 at 19:39
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gcle2003
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Posted: 12-Mar-2008 at 20:02 |
Originally posted by Brian J Checco
They certainly don't know English in China because of the British; they certainly don't speak it in Russia because of the British
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The Russian Imperial family in the late 19th - early 20th century spoke English with each other and so did the high courtiers. It wasn't because they were ingluenced by the USA. The lower aristocracy spoke French. The middle class often spoke German. One of the reasons that some people were so convinced Mrs Anna Andersen was Anastasia was that she spoke English so perfectly.
Edited by gcle2003 - 12-Mar-2008 at 20:03
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Sarmat
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Posted: 12-Mar-2008 at 22:02 |
The Russian Emperial family actually also spoke perfect German and French, the last two were the most popular languages of Romanovs. It's very natural seems the members of the Tsar's family were supposed to have the perfect education which included studying of all the major European languages, besides the international language of the time i.e. French.
The reason why the family of Nicholas II was perhaps a little more inclined to speak English is because the empress, Alexandra Fedorvona was raised at the English court (she was German BTW).
Regardless, the most popular language of the Russian nobility always was French. Just check for example "War and Peace" a large part of the novel is actually written in this language.
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gcle2003
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Posted: 13-Mar-2008 at 10:09 |
Originally posted by Sarmat12
The Russian Emperial family actually also spoke perfect German and French, the last two were the most popular languages of Romanovs.
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I said they used English speaking to each other and a few senior courtiers. Apart from anything else, I have that directly from Prince Dmitri Romanov when I was writing about Anastasia in the mid-1950s: Mrs Anna Andersen herself, when I interviewed her in 1957, spoke perfect English, though granted by that time she might have learnt it anyway.
Of course the family used French, German (and of course Russian) speaking to other people.
It's very natural seems the members of the Tsar's family were supposed to have the perfect education which included studying of all the major European languages, besides the international language of the time i.e. French.
The reason why the family of Nicholas II was perhaps a little more inclined to speak English is because the empress, Alexandra Fedorvona was raised at the English court (she was German BTW).
Regardless, the most popular language of the Russian nobility always was French. Just check for example "War and Peace" a large part of the novel is actually written in this language.
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I said that was true of the Russian aristocracy at large. War and Peace is anyway outside the time period I mentioned.
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Cryptic
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Posted: 13-Mar-2008 at 14:33 |
So...
English is the global language due to the seeds planed by the British Colonial Empire and the rise of the United States as a super power. The British Empire faded and the U.S. will not remain a super power forever.
How long will English stay the global language? Will it change in the coming generations towards Mandarin, Hindi, Arabic or maybe to the joy of France, revert back to French?
Originally posted by Sarmat12
The Russian Emperial family actually also spoke perfect German and French. |
As a side note, French was also the prefered language of the Polish upper classes until the 1950s.
Edited by Cryptic - 13-Mar-2008 at 14:39
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Constantine XI
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Posted: 13-Mar-2008 at 14:54 |
Originally posted by Cryptic
So...
English is the global language due to the seeds planed by the
British Colonial Empire and the rise of the United States as a super
power. The British Empire faded and the U.S. will not remain a
super power forever.
How long will English stay the global language? Will it
change in the coming generations towards
Mandarin, Hindi, Arabic or maybe to the joy of France,
revert back to French? |
It's a difficult question to answer. Mandarin will increase in
importance, but having studied it for a few years myself I can assure
you it will not take the place of English. It is extremely difficult to
learn, far more so than a language such as English. Besides that, a
large portion of China's commercially successful population is in the
south of the country. While they may write the same, they speak a
different language. Mandarin and Cantonese make poor candidates for
globally dominant tongues simply because learning them as a second
language is enormously difficult.
Hindi? Well, not all that much of India speaks Hindi. If I'm not
mistaken, more speak English in India. If anything, India may be one
place where English grows in importance. I don't see Hindi becoming the
next lingua franca.
Arabic? Well it does have a good base of hundreds of millions who speak
it as a first language. And many more learn it in order to better
connect with the religion of Islam, which is a growing faith. But the
Arabic speaking world is going to have to offer the globe something
culturally and commercially that can fill the gap left by a US decline.
And so far I'm simply not seeing it.
French, well it is indeed a very beautiful language. But very few
people speak French as a first language (compared to a dozen other
languages). French language and culture are rich and vibrant, but then
so is Spanish and Portugese - two languages with multiple times more
speakers than French. Just as classicists will always adore Latin and
Attic Greek, so also will the culture conscious find the French
language endearing. But just as Latin and Attic Greek have not made a
comeback as a lingua franca because of some limited patronage, neither
will French. Without more economic power and geopolitical influence, I
can't see French extending its reach on a scale comparable to the
English language.
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Balkh-Aryan
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Posted: 21-Mar-2008 at 23:45 |
I thing the question is wrong. The British empire existed as a world's empire before the U.S.A. to became something mere than a regional leader in Northern America. And the British spreads their language in a whole (actually about 20% before I WW, and about 25% before II WW) of the World, but in Europe and the lands which was not English colonies it was not so popular. much more fas a French which was the language of the aristocracy and bourgeoisie. The French was fashionable. The people which knows French passed for culture people, which is funny, because for example the German culture is not less great than French one. Just a snobbery. anyway, the Indians (from India) and the other Asian and African people under British rule get to learn English more than a century before U.S.A. to rise as a major power. From the other point of view the people in Europa and Japan, as the Latin America also had have no idea to learn English before the American domination after the World Wars. That's why when You ask so, You've got to to define more accurately "where". England have its contribution, America also. Well, but yet, should American speak English if there was not England? Me personally, became to learn English, because everybody knows it. I never have any idea to travel to U.K. or U.S.A., but if I wont to travel somewhere else I should speak a lot of languages it there was not the English...
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Jonathan4290
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Posted: 03-Apr-2008 at 22:07 |
I voted yes, that America is more responsible for spreading English than any other nation, for a simple reason. The British Empire was almost always more powerful than the French and yet it was only when America became a huge power that English became the dominant language as opposed to French.
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Posted: 20-Apr-2008 at 09:45 |
english spread all the world because United State. United State is a weathy country and they make movie for everyone watch theri influence spread all over the world and many people want to go to United State to study and every one known english, we play their game and chat with each other by english,... we known english because United State.
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Ikki
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Posted: 20-Apr-2008 at 14:34 |
English was a worlwide language used for international communication in states of all the corners of the world when americans didn't know what exist in the middle of the Rocky Mountains. In this sense, i can't agree with Constantine XI, english was global language in a level so high and different than any other in history before the rise of USA to the superpower level, no, is the British Empire guys.
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flaja
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Posted: 21-May-2008 at 00:50 |
The primary cause for the spread of the English Language is the British Empire. The primary cause for the spread of the English Language since the end of World War II to regions outside of the British Empire/Commonwealth is American TV, movies and (what gets laughingly called) music.
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Richard XIII
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Posted: 21-May-2008 at 09:53 |
1 British Empire 2 Hollywood (USA) 3 Internet
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Vorian
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Posted: 21-May-2008 at 13:00 |
Before WWII, most people didn't know English except from those that were under the British empire. English became truly international during Cold War. Just an example from my country, despite being somewhat a British puppet for a century, the intellectuals and rich (the commoners did not speak foreign languages at all) spoke french rather than British.
Nowadays, you won't find a Greek under 30 that doesn't know at least basic English
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