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    Posted: 09-Feb-2006 at 13:28
I think this can be shown by the language.Where they were the majority their language became the dominant one.In Romania for example the slavs were assimilated by the numerous Romance-speakers because they were much less than them,and the goegraphy of the region helped the assimilation process.The same  thing happened also in Hungary.But in Russia the opposite thing happened because the Vikings were much less than the slavs,or in Poland where the slavs where more than the Baltic peoples they assimilated.
So the language of the people in a region shows us how many the newcomers were

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  Quote Sarmata Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 09-Feb-2006 at 16:03
Originally posted by Red_Lord

Originally posted by Sarmata

I thought the 3 main groups was Antes, Venedi and Sclaveni.


That's right.


What group are Polish.


Bulgars are Sclaveni(Slavini in Bulgarian)



The Polish were of the Venedi group.
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  Quote Emperor Barbarossa Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 09-Feb-2006 at 20:23
Originally posted by Sarmata

well Mosquito stated some previously, the Polish ones anyways, I know Jan Zizka was a famous Knight for the Czechs.

Yes, probably one of the most underestimated knights in history. He basically defeated crusading armies that vastly outnumbered his armies for five years, even when he was blind for the last three years of his life.

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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 10-Feb-2006 at 02:04
Originally posted by Palladin

I think this can be shown by the language.Where they were the majority their language became the dominant one.In Romania for example the slavs were assimilated by the numerous Romance-speakers because they were much less than them,and the goegraphy of the region helped the assimilation process.The same  thing happened also in Hungary.But in Russia the opposite thing happened because the Vikings were much less than the slavs,or in Poland where the slavs where more than the Baltic peoples they assimilated.
So the language of the people in a region shows us how many the newcomers were



That's a nonsense.

It may just be that Latin (Rumanian) was able to withstand other influences while Thracian, for instance, wasn't.

There's no thumb rule but it's clear that neither Slavs nor Magyars invaded the Balcanic-Danubian area in sufficient numbers to replace the natives (genetics prove it, btw)... they just happen to become dominant through control of leadership positions, surely.

This process is more clear in the Magyar case and more difusse in the Slavic case... but at some point Slavs surely were able to impose their language through socio-political leadership (Bulgarian and Serbian kingdoms particularly).

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  Quote NikeBG Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 10-Feb-2006 at 03:54
Originally posted by Palladin

I think this can be shown by the language.Where they were the majority their language became the dominant one.In Romania for example the slavs were assimilated by the numerous Romance-speakers because they were much less than them,and the goegraphy of the region helped the assimilation process.The same  thing happened also in Hungary.But in Russia the opposite thing happened because the Vikings were much less than the slavs,or in Poland where the slavs where more than the Baltic peoples they assimilated.
So the language of the people in a region shows us how many the newcomers were


I also think that's wrong and I'll point out why:
First, the whole of Eastern Europe, especially the near-Black Sea region, was a stage and route of many barbaric raids during the dark ages. Huns, Goths, Gepids, Bulgars, Avars etc. came by and plundered all they could find, including live-stock. And especially considering the fact that there were quite few strong fortresses to the north of the Danube limess (Roman border-fortification line), it's highly doubtful that much of the "Romance population" could've survived. Pretty much like what happened also on the Balkans with the Thracians (which were pretty much Hellenized and the Romanized before that anyway). And btw here I should ask about the "genetic researches", which show high percentage of "Thracian genes" in our (of the Bulgarians) blood - who has made these researches and when, with how many people and from where, and also from where do they have Thracian DNA (we haven't made DNA researches)?
Second thing to add is that Slavs inhabited the region to the north of the Danube (Pannonia, Wallachia etc.) since much earlier times than in the Balkans. If I haven't mentioned it before, Slavs (and also Bulgars, Avars etc.) quite frequently organized plundering raids to the south of the Danube River, took whatever they can and returned back to the north. Only in the 7th century they started also to settle to the south of the river. So in this way of logic present day Romania should be much more Slavic than "Romance". But, of course, one could ask why are the Romanians "Romance" today and the answer could be pretty much like the previous stated case about the Slavs - the fewer Romance people gained power and thus Romance language fained power too (I should note that Wallachia and Moldavia used Old-Bulgarian/Slavonic as ecumenical and administrative language until XVIIIc. before the Romancication began). Or maybe just the Wallachians, which came from the southern Balkans (or Northern Greece), were numerous enough. I can't say and this is a topic for another discussion anyway...



Btw here are some results of "genetic researches", which I personally find extremely hard to believe:

1. " Racial Classification partly based on Coons book.

Bulgaria = 60% East Mediterranean ( mainly hellenistic Thracians ), 15% Alpine ( UP, Celtic impact? ) , 15% Dinaric , 5% Turanid ( NW Bulgaria, remains of semioriental Turkic Bulgars ), 5% Nordish ( Germanic invasion impact ) = 60% Med. / 15% Dinarik / 15% UP / 5% T / 5% N

Note 1: I believe that Coon's classification for Bulgaria would be something like the numbers bellow;
- East Mediterranean 60% (Thracians)
- Neodanubian 20% (Slavs)
- Dinaric 10% (Illyrians)
- Nordic 5% (Scandinavians)
- Turanid 5% (Turkic Bulgars)

Note 2: Considering there is a Alpine presence in Bulgaria and that some antropologists group them in the same category (both brahicephals of similar stature and similar facial configuration) I would say that Slavic Neodanubians cannt be more then 10% if even that much.

http://p083.ezboard.com/fbalkansfrm...picID=204.topic
http://www.geocities.com/zakus_1999/Races.html "


2. Or another one (on Bulgarian, from which I'll translate a part):
"In the Bulgarians there's 17% Celtic, 42% Thracian, 12% Slavic, 12% Bulgar blood and 17% of the Pelasgi tribe, which inhabited the Balkans before the coming of the Greeks.
The statistics is from genetic research of the so called "male" Y-chromozome. From feminine line the results are even more interesting.
"In the Central Balkans most covered is the haplogroup H, represented with around 40%. It descended 20 000 years ago from the region of modern day Southern France. It obviously shows a 40% Celtic origin of the modern day Bulgarians by mothers line. This, being put together with 17% by fathers line, makes us around 28% Celts, which is a real sensation..."

And for me nothing more than an attempt for sensation! Two researches, which defy any historical logic... 60% Thracians, 28% Celts, 17% Pelasgi - yeah, right!
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  Quote Isbul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 10-Feb-2006 at 11:40

I wonder how big was the population of the balkans before the slavs came..Any suggestions?

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  Quote NikeBG Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Feb-2006 at 07:02
My personal opinion is "extremely small, mainly concentrated in the south - Thessaloniki, Constantinople and Hellas - and in the high mountains". I just can't see how so much "Thracian" genetic material could've "survived"! Not to mention the Celtic one...
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  Quote Isbul Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Feb-2006 at 09:55
I dont know but the Tracians were big "nation" back in the ancients times.I wonder how can they "dissapear" so quikly.
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  Quote NikeBG Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Feb-2006 at 07:20
Hellenization, Romanization, countless barbaric raids. Of course, I've also heard that the Karakachans are descendants of the Thracians, but even if it is so, they aren't much...

P.S. Btw this is a discussion for the Slavic warriors, not for Thrace, so maybe someone could move the Thracian related posts to another or a new thread?
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  Quote Raider Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Feb-2006 at 07:33
Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Palladin

I think this can be shown by the language.Where they were the majority their language became the dominant one.In Romania for example the slavs were assimilated by the numerous Romance-speakers because they were much less than them,and the goegraphy of the region helped the assimilation process.The same  thing happened also in Hungary.But in Russia the opposite thing happened because the Vikings were much less than the slavs,or in Poland where the slavs where more than the Baltic peoples they assimilated.
So the language of the people in a region shows us how many the newcomers were



That's a nonsense.

It may just be that Latin (Rumanian) was able to withstand other influences while Thracian, for instance, wasn't.

There's no thumb rule but it's clear that neither Slavs nor Magyars invaded the Balcanic-Danubian area in sufficient numbers to replace the natives (genetics prove it, btw)... they just happen to become dominant through control of leadership positions, surely.

This process is more clear in the Magyar case and more difusse in the Slavic case... but at some point Slavs surely were able to impose their language through socio-political leadership (Bulgarian and Serbian kingdoms particularly).
When the Magyars arrive to the Carpathian Basin, the area was sparsely populated, and definitively the Magyars had a higher population than the remaining "natives". That's why Magyars assimilated the locals and not vice versa.
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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Feb-2006 at 09:29
All those assumptions that invaders, wether Magyars, Slavic or whatever were more numerous than the natives of the Balcans, I find them most unbelievable:

Peasants usually don't migrate. Even when forced by wars they normally find refuge the closer the better. If they can, they return to their lands, if not they stabilish nearby. Migration to cities, long distance migrations and mass genocides were rare then - and we have no indication taht they happened in the Dark Ages. In fact the pposite is closer to the truth: migration from cities to the nearby rural areas.

In any case, ancient cities weren't that big, so the rural population remained much the same.

If Magyars, Cumans, Slavs, etc. would have starred massive migrations in "empty lands", we would not find Rumanian language, we would find a massively diferent genetics (and phenetics)... instead, taking as arbitrary reference the Romance speaking Rumanians, Hungarians, Bulgarians and Yugoslavs aren't really diferent genetically.

But Southern Slavs are markedly different from Northern Slavs in genetic terms, while Hungarians don't look Mongoloid but in small proportion. (Also Hungarians, particularly had the barbarian paractice of capturing women slaves massively and moving them to their homeland, what may have influenced in an unknown degree the genetics of the Panonnias. But in any case those women came from the region in 1000 km around - Germany, Italy or the Balcans mostly).

Thracians didn't die out, nor did Illyrians nor Dacians... they were aculturized and assimliated first by Romans and Greeks, then by Slavs and Magyars.

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  Quote Raider Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Feb-2006 at 09:55

Originally posted by Maju

All those assumptions that invaders, wether Magyars, Slavic or whatever were more numerous than the natives of the Balcans, I find them most unbelievable:

Peasants usually don't migrate. Even when forced by wars they normally find refuge the closer the better. If they can, they return to their lands, if not they stabilish nearby. Migration to cities, long distance migrations and mass genocides were rare then - and we have no indication taht they happened in the Dark Ages. In fact the pposite is closer to the truth: migration from cities to the nearby rural areas.

In any case, ancient cities weren't that big, so the rural population remained much the same.

If Magyars, Cumans, Slavs, etc. would have starred massive migrations in "empty lands", we would not find Rumanian language, we would find a massively diferent genetics (and phenetics)... instead, taking as arbitrary reference the Romance speaking Rumanians, Hungarians, Bulgarians and Yugoslavs aren't really diferent genetically.

But Southern Slavs are markedly different from Northern Slavs in genetic terms, while Hungarians don't look Mongoloid but in small proportion. (Also Hungarians, particularly had the barbarian paractice of capturing women slaves massively and moving them to their homeland, what may have influenced in an unknown degree the genetics of the Panonnias. But in any case those women came from the region in 1000 km around - Germany, Italy or the Balcans mostly).

Thracians didn't die out, nor did Illyrians nor Dacians... they were aculturized and assimliated first by Romans and Greeks, then by Slavs and Magyars.
1. Hungarians keep their language and their culture unlike Bulgars. This shows that Hungarians assimilated the others. This would be impossible if a handful Magyars would have been lived among a large native population.

2. Ancient Hungarians were neither asian nor mongoloid. By the way large numbers of immigrants settled in the country during medieval times and there were also great population losses. (Mongol invasion, constant warfare against the Ottomans etc.)

3. There is no continuation in the ancient cities of Pannonia. This is a proven fact. The local population expelled, died out, assimilated.

4. Where are the graves? If there was a large number of rural population, graves and other relics should have been remained.

Major slav population lived only in today Western Slovakia and they still live there. They are the Slovaks.

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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Feb-2006 at 22:36
Originally posted by Raider

1. Hungarians keep their language and their culture unlike Bulgars. This shows that Hungarians assimilated the others. This would be impossible if a handful Magyars would have been lived among a large native population.

Not necessarily: the question is more about the power dynamics. Mexicans are 80-90% native American maybe but most speak Spanish exclussively. Same about North Africans, who are 90% Berber of blood but speak Arabic. Etc.

In the case of Magyars, the tribes were able to dominate and terrorize a lot of other people. At some time they stabilished a kingdom and, while Latin was surely the main written language, Magyar was a language of prestige, while other tongues such as Slavic or Romanian (vulgar Latin) weren't.

In the case of Bulgarians, the Slavic element was at least as powerful as the Bulgarian (Turkic) one. Instead Thracians were assimilated in that process, maybe willingly, maybe beacuse the Thracian identity was seen as "Byzantine" - therefore rival.

I can't say for sure, but I can say that you can't just put genetic borders that resemble linguistic ones but you can't either make any clear differentiation between Balcanic peoples in the genetic plane.

2. Ancient Hungarians were neither asian nor mongoloid. 

I don't know that for sure but they could well be. They were Turkic or Uralic - weren't they? Anyhow, if they came from Finland, there's no significative Finnish markers either in Hungarian genetics, if they came form Russia, the same. Hungrian genetics are not anomalous in their region - if anything they are "too western" and not "too eastern" - and tha can only be explained because of the continuity of the substratum since Paleolithic times (Hungary was about the easternmost area of Magdalenian)


3. There is no continuation in the ancient cities of Pannonia. This is a proven fact. The local population expelled, died out, assimilated.

Proven by who, where is the proof?

I take the assimilation but not the genocide - and these are two very different cases. It is the case of Mexico and that of the USA. I say that there have been many "Mexicos" and very few (if any) "USAs" in history.


4. Where are the graves? If there was a large number of rural population, graves and other relics should have been remained.

We know what we have found... not what we haven't found. Not long ago another forummer was trying to find out something abot a very large structure (city) in your area, near Timisoara, yet it seems that nobody has dedicated much effort to that - despite of the fact that it is big and evident.
   
Major slav population lived only in today Western Slovakia and they still live there. They are the Slovaks.


So what? It's self evident that Slavic infiltration in the Balcans passed by the Pannonias and that it was the Magyar invasion (plus German colonization of Austria) what separated Northern and Southern Slavs. Yet most of these "central Slavs" were surely assimilated into Magyars or Germans (Austrians).

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  Quote Raider Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 03:41
Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Raider

1. Hungarians keep their language and their culture unlike Bulgars. This shows that Hungarians assimilated the others. This would be impossible if a handful Magyars would have been lived among a large native population.

Not necessarily: the question is more about the power dynamics. Mexicans are 80-90% native American maybe but most speak Spanish exclussively. Same about North Africans, who are 90% Berber of blood but speak Arabic. Etc.

In the case of Magyars, the tribes were able to dominate and terrorize a lot of other people. At some time they stabilished a kingdom and, while Latin was surely the main written language, Magyar was a language of prestige, while other tongues such as Slavic or Romanian (vulgar Latin) weren't.

In the case of Bulgarians, the Slavic element was at least as powerful as the Bulgarian (Turkic) one. Instead Thracians were assimilated in that process, maybe willingly, maybe beacuse the Thracian identity was seen as "Byzantine" - therefore rival.

I can't say for sure, but I can say that you can't just put genetic borders that resemble linguistic ones but you can't either make any clear differentiation between Balcanic peoples in the genetic plane.

2. Ancient Hungarians were neither asian nor mongoloid. 

I don't know that for sure but they could well be. They were Turkic or Uralic - weren't they? Anyhow, if they came from Finland, there's no significative Finnish markers either in Hungarian genetics, if they came form Russia, the same. Hungrian genetics are not anomalous in their region - if anything they are "too western" and not "too eastern" - and tha can only be explained because of the continuity of the substratum since Paleolithic times (Hungary was about the easternmost area of Magdalenian)


3. There is no continuation in the ancient cities of Pannonia. This is a proven fact. The local population expelled, died out, assimilated.

Proven by who, where is the proof?

I take the assimilation but not the genocide - and these are two very different cases. It is the case of Mexico and that of the USA. I say that there have been many "Mexicos" and very few (if any) "USAs" in history.


4. Where are the graves? If there was a large number of rural population, graves and other relics should have been remained.

We know what we have found... not what we haven't found. Not long ago another forummer was trying to find out something abot a very large structure (city) in your area, near Timisoara, yet it seems that nobody has dedicated much effort to that - despite of the fact that it is big and evident.

   
Major slav population lived only in today Western Slovakia and they still live there. They are the Slovaks.


So what? It's self evident that Slavic infiltration in the Balcans passed by the Pannonias and that it was the Magyar invasion (plus German colonization of Austria) what separated Northern and Southern Slavs. Yet most of these "central Slavs" were surely assimilated into Magyars or Germans (Austrians).
1. You can't be serious. In medieval times nationalism and forceful assimilation was unknown. Hungary was a country with low population density and the kings aided foreign settlers. Do you know that our first king said "A kingdom of one language and custom is weak and powerless." You said that Hungarian was a language of prestige. In this case Slavonians, Slovaks, Germans and Romanians (if you accept the daco-roman continuity theory) why not were assimilated? Do you know that the the ethnic distinction of the Alans and Cumans remained till XVIII. century?

2. Magyars never lived in Finnland. Ancient Hungarians came from the steppes of Europe.

We live here (in the Carpathian Basin) more than  a thousand years. Do you think this is not enough time to mix with neighbouring people, immigrants etc. to create genetic similarities?

3. As far as I know there is no historian who said else.

4. Of course the found graves are Hungarians and the unfounds are all Slavic by coincidence. These is nonsense. Or You said there is a two century long, world wide Hungarian conspiration? Dan Brown should write a book about it.

Central (?) Slavs assimilated and Slovaks and Slavonians not. Why? The only possible logical solution: these slav population was very low in numbers and lived together with people of different origins.

PS:

Hungary is not on the Balkans. Check a map.



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  Quote Scytho-Sarmatian Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 04:28
Maju has some issues about east-central European peoples, but a lot of what he says seems to go against the facts.  Try not to take him too seriously.

Update: I just found out Maju is a "she."  Sorry about that!


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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 09:00
Originally posted by Raider

1. You can't be serious. In medieval times nationalism and forceful assimilation was unknown. Hungary was a country with low population density and the kings aided foreign settlers. Do you know that our first king said "A kingdom of one language and custom is weak and powerless." You said that Hungarian was a language of prestige. In this case Slavonians, Slovaks, Germans and Romanians (if you accept the daco-roman continuity theory) why not were assimilated? Do you know that the the ethnic distinction of the Alans and Cumans remained till XVIII. century?

National identity was never non-existent, tough - of course - it wasn't as enhanced as modernly. But there were kingdoms born from nations, wether truly popular (Vasconia and Navarre) or product of the dominating nation: France, England, Hungary - or other more unclear cases as wel: Germany, Poland, etc.

Anyhow when you make someone your slave you don't learn his/her language: you force him/her to learn yours. Masters don't work for their slaves: it's the other way around (and learning languages is a work).

2. Magyars never lived in Finnland. Ancient Hungarians came from the steppes of Europe.

We live here (in the Carpathian Basin) more than  a thousand years. Do you think this is not enough time to mix with neighbouring people, immigrants etc. to create genetic similarities?

Or to assimilate the natives. Much more likely always. If the Hungarians would have been at some time a clearly different "race" they would still have clear markers in larger or smaller ammount that would denote their origin. And, while these exist, their ammount is truly small.


3. As far as I know there is no historian who said else.

As far as I know there's no historian who said anything. All we know is that Magyars irrupted in Europe and they are dicted as criminal hordes by Germans and Italians. And that one century later, after the decissive battle of the Lech, they adopted Christianity and became another member of the European commnunity of nations.

But at least I know little more about Magyars before their formation as a kingdom.


4. Of course the found graves are Hungarians and the unfounds are all Slavic by coincidence. These is nonsense. Or You said there is a two century long, world wide Hungarian conspiration? Dan Brown should write a book about it.


I'm not knowledgeable enough but the same phenomenon is found among Britons: they "vanish" for one or two centuries archaeologically - yet they reappear later among Saxons.


Central (?) Slavs assimilated and Slovaks and Slavonians not. Why? The only possible logical solution: these slav population was very low in numbers and lived together with people of different origins.

PS:

Hungary is not on the Balkans. Check a map.



I just said, and it's a widely accepted fact, that Slavs migrated to the Balcans via Panonnia (Carpathian basin, Middle Danubian basin or however you want to call it). That happened before the Magyars (and probably the Avars) took control of that region. It was Avar and Magyar control of the Mid-Danub, along with German colonization/assimilation of Austria, what separated the southern Slavs from their western cousins. Obviously many Slavs became Magyar and Austrian in the process, the same that many Celts and Illyrians had become Slavs first.

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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 09:08
Originally posted by Scytho-Sarmatian

Maju has some issues about east-central European peoples, but a lot of what he says seems to go against the facts.  Try not to take him too seriously.

Update: I just found out Maju is a "she."  Sorry about that!


I'm not "she"... I just adopted Ayaan Hirsi Ali as avatar because she is threatened by fundamentalists.

I don't have issues with Central-Eastern European peoples. I just try to be realistic, wether in the east or in the west.

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  Quote Raider Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 09:36
Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Raider

1. You can't be serious. In medieval times nationalism and forceful assimilation was unknown. Hungary was a country with low population density and the kings aided foreign settlers. Do you know that our first king said "A kingdom of one language and custom is weak and powerless." You said that Hungarian was a language of prestige. In this case Slavonians, Slovaks, Germans and Romanians (if you accept the daco-roman continuity theory) why not were assimilated? Do you know that the the ethnic distinction of the Alans and Cumans remained till XVIII. century?

National identity was never non-existent, tough - of course - it wasn't as enhanced as modernly. But there were kingdoms born from nations, wether truly popular (Vasconia and Navarre) or product of the dominating nation: France, England, Hungary - or other more unclear cases as wel: Germany, Poland, etc.

Anyhow when you make someone your slave you don't learn his/her language: you force him/her to learn yours. Masters don't work for their slaves: it's the other way around (and learning languages is a work).

2. Magyars never lived in Finnland. Ancient Hungarians came from the steppes of Europe.

We live here (in the Carpathian Basin) more than  a thousand years. Do you think this is not enough time to mix with neighbouring people, immigrants etc. to create genetic similarities?

Or to assimilate the natives. Much more likely always. If the Hungarians would have been at some time a clearly different "race" they would still have clear markers in larger or smaller ammount that would denote their origin. And, while these exist, their ammount is truly small.


3. As far as I know there is no historian who said else.

As far as I know there's no historian who said anything. All we know is that Magyars irrupted in Europe and they are dicted as criminal hordes by Germans and Italians. And that one century later, after the decissive battle of the Lech, they adopted Christianity and became another member of the European commnunity of nations.

But at least I know little more about Magyars before their formation as a kingdom.


4. Of course the found graves are Hungarians and the unfounds are all Slavic by coincidence. These is nonsense. Or You said there is a two century long, world wide Hungarian conspiration? Dan Brown should write a book about it.


I'm not knowledgeable enough but the same phenomenon is found among Britons: they "vanish" for one or two centuries archaeologically - yet they reappear later among Saxons.


Central (?) Slavs assimilated and Slovaks and Slavonians not. Why? The only possible logical solution: these slav population was very low in numbers and lived together with people of different origins.

PS:

Hungary is not on the Balkans. Check a map.



I just said, and it's a widely accepted fact, that Slavs migrated to the Balcans via Panonnia (Carpathian basin, Middle Danubian basin or however you want to call it). That happened before the Magyars (and probably the Avars) took control of that region. It was Avar and Magyar control of the Mid-Danub, along with German colonization/assimilation of Austria, what separated the southern Slavs from their western cousins. Obviously many Slavs became Magyar and Austrian in the process, the same that many Celts and Illyrians had become Slavs first.

1. National identity != nationalism

2. So, you said what I wrote is conceivable. In this case we have to choose the version which matches to other facts. These other fact shows that the Carpathian Basin was sparsely populated by slavs and magyars were in superior numbers. On those territories where magyars were in minority they assimilated to the local slavs.

3. Than you have mistaken. There is no continous population from the Roman times to the Hungarians in Pannonian cities. By the way magyars not interrupted in Europe. They come from the eastern European steppes to the borderland of the catholic west. It's not the same.

criminal hordes: the Magyars were mostly mercenaries of local princes against other local princes. So choose who was the "criminal".

(For more detailed information the aftermath of the battle of Lech check topic: Notable Hungarian battles.)

4. You stated that a large "native" slav population lived in the Carpathian Basin when the Magyars (relatively small numbers) arrived. You are the one who states, you have to show evidences. The lack of archeological relics is not an evidence. Genetic similarities can be explain in an other way. So What evidences do you have?

Avars arrived to the Carpathian Basin in the 6th century, Hungarians arrived in the very end of the 9th century; the Hungarian conquest 895-899. (And avars still lived there when the magyars arrived.) You said that the avar, and german/frank presence already separated the slavs and you also said that large numbers of slavs lived there. I see some contradiction in your statements.

By the way you do not answered my question. Slavonians, Slovaks etc. why remained unaffected by the forced magyar assimilation? Do you know that ancient Slovaks originally lived only in today western Slovakia and they assimilated the slav immigrants of the east. Not the Hungarians, but the Slovaks assimilated them.



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  Quote Mosquito Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 19:45

Originally posted by Raider

1. National identity != nationalism

National identity, nationality and nationalism are not the same. In medieval times national identity existed only to some extent but we cant talk about nationalism or nationality.

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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Feb-2006 at 22:17
Originally posted by Raider

1. National identity != nationalism

Not. Nationalism or patriotism is the political or ideological articulation of national or ethnic identity.

2. So, you said what I wrote is conceivable. In this case we have to choose the version which matches to other facts. These other fact shows that the Carpathian Basin was sparsely populated by slavs and magyars were in superior numbers. On those territories where magyars were in minority they assimilated to the local slavs.

Data!

I say that the Carpathian Basin was dwelt by ts native peoples cntinuously since Paleolithic. Genetics seem to demonstrate that, even if admixture of "foreign" newcomers was modifying it through the centuries. Still today Hungary has basically genetic lineages that relate to Western Europe (Magdalenians), the Balcans (Neolithic) and Eastern Europe (IEs and other steppary peoples, including Magyars). Grossly you can say that these are 1/3 each. Still the haplogroups that could more directly relate to Finno-Ugric Peoples are virtually absent in Hungary (though they exist in small ammounts in Slovakia, Chekia, Poland, etc.)

Hungary is a true crossroads of Europe but Finno-Ugric (or Turkic for the case) genetic presence doesn't seem particularly clear.


3. Than you have mistaken. There is no continous population from the Roman times to the Hungarians in Pannonian cities. By the way magyars not interrupted in Europe. They come from the eastern European steppes to the borderland of the catholic west. It's not the same.

See above. I say there is and that it ammounts to at least 60%, possibly much more.



criminal hordes: the Magyars were mostly mercenaries of local princes against other local princes. So choose who was the "criminal".

No. The early magyars acted on their own like bands of bandits making incursions deep into Germany and Italy without any pretext other than they could do it. They acted in a violent and honorless way that definitively shocked their contemporaries.

The accounts of Magyars entering villages and killing everyone but the young wome who may serve them as concubines or sex slaves are widespread. In some cases they carried them naked and tied by their hairs.

Such behaviour, not found among Viking or Muslim raiders or in anybody except maybe Attila himself, is what caused me to call them criminals, not in the sense of mere robbers but in the sense of war criminals of the worst type.

Of course our values do not apply well to that time but, in any case, the values of their conteporaries, used to war and violence, didn't easily accept that at all. They were as shocked and outraged as I am.


4. You stated that a large "native" slav population lived in the Carpathian Basin when the Magyars (relatively small numbers) arrived. You are the one who states, you have to show evidences. The lack of archeological relics is not an evidence. Genetic similarities can be explain in an other way. So What evidences do you have?

Avars arrived to the Carpathian Basin in the 6th century, Hungarians arrived in the very end of the 9th century; the Hungarian conquest 895-899. (And avars still lived there when the magyars arrived.) You said that the avar, and german/frank presence already separated the slavs and you also said that large numbers of slavs lived there. I see some contradiction in your statements.

No contradiction: assimilated Slavs are not anymore Slavs but Germans or Magyars. Even when they were still in the process of assimilation, the political continuity had been broken by non-Slavic states.


By the way you do not answered my question. Slavonians, Slovaks etc. why remained unaffected by the forced magyar assimilation? Do you know that ancient Slovaks originally lived only in today western Slovakia and they assimilated the slav immigrants of the east. Not the Hungarians, but the Slovaks assimilated them.



I don't know all the details about Slovaks. But I know that Slovenians were the original inhabitants of Austria (of course, before them, they were Romans or Gallo-Romans).

The sources of the Early Middle Ages are scarce, specially regarding Central and Eastern Europe. I can't document each step but neither do you. We can only reconstruct what happened.

I will just mention the scarce references of Wikipedia:

The first Slavs came to the region, almost certainly from the north, soon after the departure of the Ostrogoths (471 AD). Along with the Lombards, they were to be the principal inhabitants of the territory until the arrival of the Avars.

Around 530, the Germanic Lombards settled in Pannonia. They had to fight against the Gepidi and the Slavs. In 568, pushed out by the Avars, they moved into northern Italy.

The nomadic Avars arrived from Asia in the 560s, utterly destroyed the Gepidi in the east, drove away the Lombards in the west, and subjugated the Slavs, partly assimilating them. The Avars, just as the Huns had decades before, established a big empire. This empire was destroyed around 800 by Frankish and Slavic attacks, and above all by internal feuds. The few remaining Avars were then quickly assimilated by the Slavs.

Around 800, northeastern Hungary became part of the Nitrian principality, which itself became part of Great Moravia in 833. Also, after 800, southeastern Hungary was conquered by Bulgaria, but was lost in 881 to Great Moravia. Western Hungary (Pannonia) was initially tributary to the Franks, but in 839 the Slavic Balaton Principality was founded in southwestern Hungary, and in 883/884 the whole of western Hungary was conquered by Great Moravia. The advanced economic and political conditions of the Slavs, who had been settling in the entire area, exerted a significant influence over the newly-arrived Magyars after 896 (see below); in fact, several Hungarian words relating to agriculture, politics, religion and handicrafts, were borrowed from Slavic peoples.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hungary_before_the_Magyars

Notice that when we talk of "Slavs", "Avars", "Magyars", etc. (as for almost any other people), we don't talk of genetics, maybe not even paternal lineages, we are talking about loyalties. And we must also consider that any given noble of any nationality, had a bunch or slaves and serfs, who may well be of a diferent ethnicity, at least initially. The names are given by the aristocrats but the genes are transmitted also by the plebeians - who seldom appear in history.


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