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balochii
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Topic: Iran has very limited amount of R1a1 Posted: 08-Jun-2011 at 13:18 |
Most scientists think that R1a1 is the haplogroup of indo aryans, that migrated from central asia to south asia (pakistan, afghanistan, India) and Europe(eastern and northern europe)
as you can see the in the maps below that the distibution of R1a1 is highest in eastern europe/Russia and northern parts of south asia, but how come its lacking in Iran???
the name iran translates to (land of aryans)
Edited by balochii - 08-Jun-2011 at 13:20
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balochii
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Posted: 08-Jun-2011 at 13:22 |
^ most scientists think that home land of aryans was around some where east of caspian sea in central asia, from there they migrated both ways, towards of europe and towards south asia
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MediaWarLord
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Posted: 08-Jun-2011 at 15:38 |
Only 19% of Iranic people in the capital of Tajikistan, Dushanbe, belong to hg R1a. Tajikistan is in Central Asia. It seems that true Iranic people don't have that much of R1a. And Slavic people that have that much R1a is because of the Turks from Central Asia. Turks, Tatars, Huns and Mongols brought more of hg R1a to Russia.
Russia had already more than 20% of R1a, but because of the Mongol and Tatar invasions into Russia their percentage of hg R1a jumped to above 50%.
Iranian people (Ossetians (Alans), Iranians (Persians) and Kurds (Medes)) in the Middle East don't have that much R1a.
Edited by MediaWarLord - 08-Jun-2011 at 18:40
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MediaWarLord
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Posted: 08-Jun-2011 at 15:56 |
It seems that the Altaic & Uralic (Turkic) people have a very high distribution of hg. R1a (M17 marker)!
Edited by MediaWarLord - 08-Jun-2011 at 18:50
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MediaWarLord
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Posted: 08-Jun-2011 at 16:02 |
The most common haplogroup among Iranic people in the capital of Tajikistan, Dushanbe: hg. J2 (M172) = 31%
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Nick1986
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Posted: 08-Jun-2011 at 19:44 |
What exactly is an Aryan? I thought the concept was fabricated by German nationalists (and further embellished by the Nazis) to justify the conquest of Eastern Europe
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Me Grimlock not nice Dino! Me bash brains!
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MediaWarLord
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Posted: 08-Jun-2011 at 19:49 |
Originally posted by MediaWarLord
Only 19% of Iranic people in the capital of Tajikistan, Dushanbe, belong to hg R1a. Tajikistan is in Central Asia. It seems that true Iranic people don't have that much of R1a. And Slavic people that have that much R1a is because of the Turks from Central Asia. Turks, Tatars, Huns and Mongols brought more of hg R1a to Russia.
Russia had already more than 20% of R1a, but because of the Mongol and Tatar invasions into Russia their percentage of hg R1a jumped to above 50%.
Iranian people (Ossetians (Alans), Iranians (Persians) and Kurds (Medes)) in the Middle East don't have that much R1a. |
Here just 1 example how Turkic peoples carried more R1a to Russia (and India)! I have many other examples...
Edited by MediaWarLord - 08-Jun-2011 at 19:50
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balochii
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Posted: 08-Jun-2011 at 23:36 |
Originally posted by Nick1986
What exactly is an Aryan? I thought the concept was fabricated by German nationalists (and further embellished by the Nazis) to justify the conquest of Eastern Europe |
German nationalists went it the wrong way, they thought germans were pure aryans, obviously that way is wrong. There is no such thing as a pure race, but aryans as a people did exist. Now who were those people is still a mystery, the only thing we have of them is a language groups of indo european languages and genetic similarity between northern south asians and eastern/northern europeans.
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PakistaniShield
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Posted: 09-Jun-2011 at 03:55 |
iran does have a higher amount of R1B atleast more than Pakistan the last time i checked. As for Aryan it is best described for Sanskrit speakers and their descendants from where the word originated.
Persians are actually an Iranic people not Indo-Aryan. Baloch, Kurds and Tajiks are also Iranic peoples. Indo-Aryans include speakers of Sanskrit derived languages such as Sindhi and Punjabi.
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MediaWarLord
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Posted: 09-Jun-2011 at 09:51 |
Originally posted by balochii
and genetic similarity between northern south asians and eastern/northern europeans. |
No that's not true. You're only looking at hg R1a and not to other Y-DNA markers like: hg I, hg N1C1 and other Altaic & Uralic haplogroups in Eastern Europe. People of India have their own specific markers like hg H, hg L, hg P (M45).
Also, you don't take any mtDNA into your consideration.
Hey all people in the world are connected with each other. But Eastern Slavic people are more connected with Indo-Europeans & Finno-Ugrian-Altaic Scandinavians, Finno-Ugrian-Altaic Baltic peoples and Turkic-Altaic peoples in Central Asia than with peoples of (north) India.
Edited by MediaWarLord - 09-Jun-2011 at 10:02
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balochii
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Posted: 09-Jun-2011 at 11:58 |
^ i know, i am talking about R1a1, ofcourse india itself has lots of other markers. But btw (pakistan) doesn't have many of those indian markers, except L i think
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MediaWarLord
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Posted: 10-Jun-2011 at 08:12 |
@ balochii
Can you give me the distribution of Y-DNA haplogroups of India, Pakistan and Afghanistan?
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 11-Jun-2011 at 04:34 |
As I have serveral times in this forum, the path of Iranian migration was from the west of Caspian see and Iranians are related to people of the Caucasus, southeastern Europe and of course Germanic lands.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Haplogroup_I_(Y-DNA) : The greatest density of Haplogoup I is to be found in Bosnia and Herzegovina 65% : Bosnia 54% [1], Herzegovina 71%. [1] Other higher than average densities occur in the Caucasus: Darginians of Dagestan 58% and Abkhazians 33% [7] Croatia (mainland 38% [1][8][9], Hvar 66% [8], Korcula 54% [8]), Norway 40% [9][10], Sardinia 37% [11] 42% [9], Sweden (North 26% [9], Gotland & Värmland 50% [12]), Denmark 39% [9][13], Montenegro 38% [14], Germany 38% [15] (highest frequency in Northern Germany 37.5% [6]), Serbia 36% [1]( Bosnian Serbs 36% [16]), Macedonia 34% [1], Iran: in Tehran 34%, though in Isfahan only 10%, [7] Iceland 33%, and West Finland 41%, though the figure drops in East Finland to 20% [17].
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MediaWarLord
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Posted: 13-Jun-2011 at 12:12 |
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri
As I have serveral times in this forum, the path of Iranian migration was from the west of Caspian see and Iranians are related to people of the Caucasus, southeastern Europe and of course Germanic lands. |
Southeastern European (Balkanic), Kurdish and maybe Caucasian haplogroup I2 is older than northwestern European haplogroup I1. This does mean that migration waves of the haplogorup I came from the southeast. And not from northwest, like you said.
Haplogroups I2a and J2a are closely related to each other, because both haplogroups are descendants of haplogroup IJ.
Of all Y-DNA haplogroups only haplogroup I1 (maybe hg I2 too, but I am not sure) is native to Europe. But the ancestor of this haplogroup is from the Near East / West Asia.
Edited by MediaWarLord - 13-Jun-2011 at 12:27
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Miller
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Posted: 03-Jul-2011 at 02:02 |
Originally posted by balochii
Most scientists think that R1a1 is the haplogroup of indo aryans, that migrated from central asia to south asia (pakistan, afghanistan, India) and Europe(eastern and northern europe)
as you can see the in the maps below that the distibution of R1a1 is highest in eastern europe/Russia and northern parts of south asia, but how come its lacking in Iran???
the name iran translates to (land of aryans)
Per these maps Gobi desert has a major concentration of Aryan ;)
The maps seems to be a better fit to Mongolian/Turkic historical movements than Aryans
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balochii
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Posted: 03-Jul-2011 at 14:48 |
btw, just really recent studies indicate that afghanistan has the most R1a1a found anywhere, some 73% of pashtuns of afghanistan show that they are R1a1a, ^ so the above map posted has to be updated, it will show eastern afghanistan as the most R1a1a
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radogost18
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Posted: 14-Jul-2011 at 02:07 |
Altaic Turks have limited R1a1 while iranians have about 18% R1a1 and 9% R1b1.
R1A1 have nothing with Turks tribes but are remains of asimilated Scythian and Alanic tribes who were asimilated by Turks.
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PakistaniShield
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Posted: 30-Sep-2013 at 15:33 |
Originally posted by balochii
Most scientists think that R1a1 is the haplogroup of indo aryans, that migrated from central asia to south asia (pakistan, afghanistan, India) and Europe(eastern and northern europe)
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I think you're confusing Indo-Aryan for Indo-Iranic. Indo-Aryan is a subgrouping of Indo-Iranic, the other 2 being Iranic and Nuristani. As far as I know there is no Indo-Aryan language spoken in Afghanistan, at least significantly. Many Afghans do speak and understand Urdu and even fewer Sindhi and Punjabi. But that's because they lived in Pakistan. At some time in history there were Indo-Aryan spoken in present day Afghanistan but that was thousands of years ago before being displaced by Iranic speakers.
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PakistaniShield
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Posted: 30-Sep-2013 at 15:47 |
Originally posted by radogost18
Altaic Turks have limited R1a1 while iranians have about 18% R1a1 and 9% R1b1.
R1A1 have nothing with Turks tribes but are remains of asimilated Scythian and Alanic tribes who were asimilated by Turks.
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Exactly. All R haplogroup markers found in turkic population are due to them mixing with remaining IE populations in central asia. Original turkic populations do not belong to haplogroup R
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mojobadshah
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Posted: 02-Oct-2013 at 23:55 |
Originally posted by Nick1986
What exactly is an Aryan? I thought the concept was fabricated by German nationalists (and further embellished by the Nazis) to justify the conquest of Eastern Europe |
The development of the designation "Aryan" is a history on its own. It was first used as a national self-designation among the ancient Irano-Afghans. Among the Hindus it was used in the spiritual sense. Racial philosophers believed the Ariane or Irano-Afghans to have been peopled by the white race. Modern philologers falsely hypothosized that all the Indo-Europeans had at one time self-designated themselves Aryan. This is when the term as a national designation extended from the Irano-Afghans to all Indo-Europeans.
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