Egyptian origins (race/ethnicity)

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Originally posted by Don Quixote

I had never postulated that Afro-Asiatic originated in the Middle East - stop misrepresenting me or site where I have said that.

I am attacking your assertion that the origins of Afro-Asiatic is controversial. I have proved to you that linguist and scholars amongst unanimously agree that the origins of this language phylum was in Eastern Africa. In doing so I am proving that the language AND people directly ancestral to ancient Egypt came from Sub Saharan East Africa. This is confirmed in both of Christopher Ehret's studies which have been presented in this thread.  

no where Afro-Asiatic originated, but to which language Ancient Egyptian was close is what can prove with which population the Ancient Egyptians were in constant contact and probably mixed.

No it does not! Case and point Chadic and Berber languages are closer to each other than they both are to ancient Egyptian. Chadian speakers are in central Africans and Berbers are north Africans, are you insinuating that those two Afro-Asiatic populations are biologically uniform with one another? 

What I said you may consider silly if you want; but anyway it proves that the Egyptians and the Nubians spoke different languages that were not related by language group

You on the other hand have also been provided with a recent study which confirms that despite both populations belonging to different language families, they have been biologically the same since pre-dynastic times. Do you not understand that this consistently biological findings completely refutes what you are asserting regarding the ancient Egyptians being biologically close to Berbers? You have also been presented with recent genetic analysis which confirms that the Berber speakers across Northern Africa are not biologically uniform in the their affinities, and being so Egyptian Berbers show genetic overlapping with Sub Saharan East African populations like Ethiopians and Northwest Berbers tend to closer with either West Africans or Europeans. 

so therefore they weren't one and the same culture to start with.

Wrong again. You are confirming just how little you actually know about ancient Egyptians culture and it's people:

"According to common knowledge, it has generally been held that there was a geographical, cultural and political boundary between Egypt and Nubia in the Predynastic/Early Dynastic period, and it was located between Gebel es Silsila and Aswan . Any Egyptian evidence in Nubia was seen as an import or cultural influence, while any Nubian evidence in Upper Egypt was viewed as the sporadic presence of foreign people within Egyptian territory. As a consequence, the cemeteries located from Kubbaniya southwards were assigned to the A-Group culture.

In recent years, new research on the subject shows that the interaction between the two cultures was much more complex than previously thought, affecting the time, space and nature of the interaction. As a result, the Aswan area probably never was a real borderline. The two regions, and so their cultural entities, are not antithetical to one another, but in prehistoric times are still the expression of the same cultural tradition, with strong regional variations, particularly in the last part of the 4th millennium BC.

Unique cultural features, unknown elsewhere, have been recorded in the area surrounding the First Cataract, and from there northward up to Hierakonpolis and probably even Armant, and southward down to Dehmit. The data recorded in this area always shows a preponderance of Naqadian elements, while the Nubian component, although consistent, is definitely in the minority, disproving an A-Group affiliation. These features may indicate the presence of a regional variant of the Naqada culture combining, particularly during the first half of the fourth millennium BC, both Egyptian and Nubian traditions."  

In the Predynastic period, the Egyptian and Nubian identities still shared many common traits derived from a common ancestry. The Naqada culture developed from the Badarian culture which, as the Tasian, was related to the Nubian Neolithic tradition (Gatto 2002; 2006c). Thus, the definition of what was Egyptian or Nubian at that time in the First Cataract region (and the southern part of Upper Egypt) is not so obvious: are the local cooking pots (shale-tempered ware), for example, Egyptian or Nubian?"

--GATTO M.C.(2009). Field season in the Aswan-Kom Ombo region of Egypt." Aswan-Kom Ombo. Archaeological Project. Report to: The Supreme Council of Antiquities, Egypt.

So according to Egyptian antiquities council and just about every other Egyptologist and African historian, Nubians and ancient Egyptians have been biologically AND culturally the same since Pre-Dynastic times. 

Afro-Asiatic is not related to Nilotic, and the Nubians spoke a Nilotic language, not an Afro-Asiatic.

Yet you completely ignore the fact that the ancient Egyptian language infused integral Nilotic customs and words into their own language (despite both belonging to different language families):

But several notable early Egyptian crops came from Sudanic agriculture, independently invented between 7500 and 6000 B.C. by the Nilo-Saharan peoples (Ehret 1993:104-125). One such cultivated crop was the edible gourd. The botanical evidence is confirmed in this case by linguistics: Egyptian bdt, or "bed of gourds" (Late Egyptian bdt, "gourd; cucumber"), is a borrowing of the Nilo-Saharan word *bud, "edible gourd." Other early Egyptian crops of Sudanic origin included watermelons and castor beans. (To learn more on how historians use linguistic evidence, see note at end of this article.)(Christopher Ehret, "Ancient Egyptian as an African Language, Egypt as an African Culture," in Egypt in Africa, Theodore Celenko (ed), Indiana University Press, 1996, pp. 25-27)

Are you going to ignore this also? 

he explains the mtDNA of the Berbers with mass weddings of Sub-Saharan males to European women, which is not a logical scenario / like all of the sudden all males lost their appetite for their own women and probably sold them and got themselves only European women. But he also says that:

No one disputes the fact that some modern Berber populations have closer biological affinities towards non African populations, which is all that your quote spam is stating.  What has been proven by Frigi and postulated by many other scholars however, is that the population foundation of all Northern Africans came from Sub Saharan East Africa. Therefore your point is moot and also has nothing to do with the origins of ancient Egypt. 

This supposition in the last quote is what I find illogical

Genetics don't lie. The mtdna is primarily Eurasian while the majority of the North African Y Chromosome is of East African origins. 

I don't see though any East-African DNA to fit your map that the Berbers came from  East Africa so their language is closer to Egyptian because of that, as you claimed.

Every last one of your post throughout this thread, seems to be express complete ignorance of the evidence which has been laid out directly for you. Once again you can that Egyptian Berbers still retain their genetic affinity towards Sub Saharan East African populations:

"The mitochondrial DNA variation of 295 Berber-speakers from Morocco (Asni, Bouhria and Figuig) and the Egyptian oasis of Siwa was evaluated.. A clear and significant genetic differentiation between the Berbers from Maghreb and Egyptian Berbers was also observed. The first are related to European populations as shown by haplogroup H1 and V frequencies, whereas the latter share more affinities with East African and Nile Valley populations as indicated by the high frequency of M1 and the presence of L0a1, L3i, L4*, and L4b2 lineages. Moreover, haplogroup U6 was not observed in Siwa. We conclude that the origins and maternal diversity of Berber populations are old and complex, and these communities bear genetic characteristics resulting from various events of gene flow with surrounding and migrating populations."-- Coudray et al. (2008). The Complex and Diversified Mitochondrial Gene Pool of Berber Populations. Annals of Human Genetics. Volume 73 Issue 2, Pages 196 - 214

My entire theory is only a speculation? I posted nothing but studies that can be followed

NO, you spammed the biased and misleading conclusions of selective studies from an qualified individual which have been refuted by my later replies. To which you never replied to, because you yourself do not understand what does studies mean and was dependent on another individuals faulty and dishonest argument. 

Now if you don't like the studies I posted this is not my problem.

No I refuted the copy and pasted misinterpretations of the studies that you presented, and posted numerous studies of my own spanning every scientific discipline from anthropology, genetics, linguistics to archaeology. All of which conclude that the original ancient Egyptians were a mixture of Nilotic Saharans and Sub Saharan East African populations. 

There is no racial agenda in the studies I cited as studies, so please stop insinuating about such things.

First all the guys name is "RACIAL REALITY". He is a "Caucasoid-centrist" and is a stark promotor of the biological concept of race, despite the fact that the overwhelming majority of the scientific community rejects such a notion. This is reason why the name of the thread from which you hi-jacked your argument is called the "CAUCASOID affinities of the ancient Egyptians and Nubians". Notice that he is also claiming that the ancient Nubians were "Caucasoid" as well. Do you know why he does this? HE KNOWS THAT THE BIOLOGICAL EVIDENCE IS IRREFUTABLE THAT THE ANCIENT EGYPTIANS AND NUBIANS WERE ESSENTIALLY THE SAME POPULATION SINCE PRE-DYNASTIC TIMES. Therefore he knows that logically he cannot promote one population as "Caucasoid" and the other populations as "Negroid" as you are attempting to do. 