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When did Kurds and Persians first names use ?

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  Quote Quaere Verum Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: When did Kurds and Persians first names use ?
    Posted: 25-Jun-2010 at 04:25
Originally posted by Putty19



This is really funny, but hey I can play too, look at the Iraqi flag, it's just an old German flag flipped upside down but with someone scribbling Allahu Akbar on it, I guess this proves the German background of Iraqis LOL

 
Read the background of flags before comparing them just like that.
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  Quote Quaere Verum Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jun-2010 at 04:30
Originally posted by opuslola

So, which is it? Is it "Courduene?" or "Corduene?:, etc.?

One might well note that in my opinion, there could exist a great deal of difference between "Cour", and "Cor?"
 
 
It is Corduene. "Courduene" is just Putty's misspelling.
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  Quote Quaere Verum Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jun-2010 at 04:45
Originally posted by Putty19


the Iranians (Not to be confused with Indo-Aryans although they do have the same origin) came into the middle east from the area where the original Indo-Iranians (Iranians and Indo-Aryans) originated, and this located is in South Central Asia (Around Afghanistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, and norther parts of Pakistan), or perhaps the origins were a little north of that (Southern Kazakhstan), we see an earlier wave of Indo-Aryans (Not Iranians) come down to India and Pakistan where you see Indo-Aryan languages established today,
 
The entire idea is just a hypothesis with many other alternative thoughts indeed.
 
Originally posted by Putty19

perhaps a very small wave made it to the middle east through Iran (The Mitanni) but that's still under debate whether they were actually Indo-Aryans or not since the majority of their population spoke Hurrian (Caucasian language).
 
How come you mention the dispution over the Mitanni being Indo-Iranian and absolutely affirm Hurrian to be a Caucasian Language whilst it is only speculated to be related to Northeast Caucasian by some linguists and historians? 

Originally posted by Putty19

The Iranians were a later arrival, unlike the Indo-Aryans they did not go deep into South Asia, instead they roamed north into the steppes (Scythians and later the Sarmatians who became Alans), into the middle east through Iran (Medes, Persians, and Parthians), and many remained scattered around South Central Asia (Indo-Scythians which are also known as Saka for most part), clearly the middle eastern Iranian heritage comes from the 3 I mentioned (Persian, Median, and Parthian), while those who still remain in South Central Asia like Pashtun, Pamirs, Tajikis, and so on have an Indo-Scythian heritage (Even though many of Tajiks and Afghans adopted Farsi as their language), and the only legacy for the northern Iranians (Scythians and Sarmatians/Alans) would be the modern Ossetians.
 
For your information many Tajiks and other Persian speaking folks of Afghanistan and Central Asia are of Mongoloid. By the way please spend some time reading history of Iran, specially the presence of Scythians in northwest and southeast Iran.
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  Quote Quaere Verum Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jun-2010 at 04:50
Originally posted by Putty19


 
in this test the Kurds score higher with other middle eastern populations rather than the Iranians in general.
 
I am sorry but you seem to have a few problems with realizing the concepts of these names: Iran, Assyrian, Middle East. Please regard these facts: Iran is located on Middle East and Iranian peoples are Middle Eastern too. Middle East does not imply Assyrian or Semitic merely.


Edited by Quaere Verum - 25-Jun-2010 at 04:51
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  Quote Quaere Verum Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jun-2010 at 04:59
Originally posted by opuslola



Is not the earliest representation of the Kurds one of a group of pastorialist or herders of sheep or goats, etc.?
 
Not generally.

Originally posted by opuslola

Now there can be no doubt that Kurds eat a lot of Curds!
 
How come? And does it mean that they eat it more than the other peoples around the world?
 
Originally posted by opuslola

So, just why could not a naming connection also be made?

 
English "curd" (< crud) is likely to be derived from an Old English verb "crudan" and as a matter of fact its current meaning differs as you trace it back whilst the term Kurd is over in use atleast since up to 1800 years ago. The outward likeness between Kurd and curd is to be scientifically referred to as likeness between two false friends. 


Edited by Quaere Verum - 10-Jul-2010 at 09:58
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  Quote Ince Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jun-2010 at 05:56
Originally posted by Quaere Verum

Originally posted by Putty19


 
in this test the Kurds score higher with other middle eastern populations rather than the Iranians in general.
 
I am sorry but you seem to have a few problems with realizing the concepts of these names: Iran, Assyrian, Middle East. Please regard these facts: Iran is located on Middle East and Iranian peoples are Middle Eastern too. Middle East does not imply Assyrian or Semitic merely.


Also those tests are not very reliable as they did not test every Kurdish city or go to every region to test large population.  Most of those tests are done on a few Kurds.

Y-dna and Mtdna on Kurds are more similar to Iranians in Iran and Anatolian Turks.


Edited by Ince - 25-Jun-2010 at 06:01
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  Quote Putty19 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jun-2010 at 10:32
Verum, I would appreciate if you learn how to reply in a structured manner so it makes the life of the person answering you easier, you just spread out 3 to 4 replies back to back commenting on line by line when you could have done it in a simpler way, anyways, I'll try to gather your answers so I can answer you.

what it is? I am afraid but seemingly it is you who needs to deal with the truth. Because you boastfully claimed Assyrian to be the language of Adiabene, while it is all wrong since its official language was for sure Aramaic (like the other western parts of those days Iranian empires) and its native languages are currently uncertain, but presumable indeed. As well as you affirmed that Adiabene is equal to Assyria, in spite of the very fact that the term Assyria was only applied to Adiabene at the end of its independence (after some 100 years) when Romans annexed it to their Roman province of Assyria.


Let's get one thing straight here, it was the term Adiabene that was put over Assyria, not the other way around.

I am sorry but your words in this regard are not clear. Akkadian and Aramaic are two distinct Semitic languages. Both got their own old forms, whilst Aramaic is still spoken in new forms (Neo-Aramaic speeches are related to the Old Aramaic since they are all Aramaic languages), but Akaddian is by all means an extinct language.


Yes, and?

There is not such a stuff at all. Aramaic is supposed to be replacing Akkadian (Assyrian as well as Babylonian dialects) as lingua franca (and not first language) since your aforesaid time. But as a matter of fact the most important era for Old Aramaic getting pervaded all over the mesopotamia (as first language) begins with the rise of Achaemenid dynasty. And its usage as a lingua franca is not restricted to Babylon or Assyria, but to many other lands as well.


It was the Assyrians who made this possible, the change would have not taken place if the Assyrians did not use the language themselves, here you go:

http://cal.huc.edu/aramaic_language.html

"Aramaic was used by the conquering Assyrians as a language of administration communication, and following them by the Babylonian and Persian empires, which ruled from India to Ethiopia, and employed Aramaic as the official language. For this period, then (about 700–320 B.C.E.), Aramaic held a position similar to that occupied by English today. The most important documents of this period are numerous papyri from Egypt and Palestine."

You do exactly mean after this therefore because of this! Aramaic as official language cannot imply any connection with being Assyrian in a thousand years, because otherwise the entire ancient Iranians, Jews, etc. would be Assyrians too! Currently Semitic Christians, Jews, and even some Muslims speak Neo-Aramaic speeches over Middle East. Please spend some time reading linguistic and historical sources about Assyrian Akkadian and Old Aramaic in order to perceive the very fact that they are two distinct languages respectively spoken by two distinct peoples, namely Assyrians and Arameans.


I never said Assyrians were the only Aramaic speakers, I said they used it when they were at their might as a daily language, to you Assyrian means Akkadian only, you're obviously wrong since Aramaic is also an Assyrian language since they adopted it and used it.

Could we conlcude that Aramaic is the same as Assyrian Akkadian only on account of Jews calling their Hebrew script "Ketav Ashuri"?! Anyways I again suggest you to read more about Assyrian Akkadian and Aramaic and for your knowledge scripts do not implicate any thing on their own. For instance many middle Iranian languages were written in Aramaic scripts too, or today Persian is written in an Arabic (particularly the Perso-Arabic) script, which for sure they call it "Khatt-e Farsi" (Persian script; since Persians contributed to develop it).


Do you not read what I write? Did I ever say Aramaic and Akkadian were the same language? No, I never said that, there was Assyrian Akkadian and Assyrian Aramaic, of course your lack of Semitic knowledge is evident here so I will not go into details about differences and what not, in any case you're so quick to say the Kurdish Jews are Kurds yet do not acknowledge the Assyrian Aramaic when the Jews say Ketav Ashuri?

Also the Khatt al Farsi that you speak of is called that because the Persians contributed and made it, in the same sense you need to acknowledge the Ketav Ashuri because it was the Assyrians who made it.

What is interesting and causes my wonder is that most likely you do not discern native language (of people) and official language. By the way Kurdish Jews using Neo-Aramaic dialects is a stuff due to the fact that it is their religious language indeed as well as they are a mixture of Jews by blood (whose first language was Aramaic by those times) and converted ethnic Kurds. By the way Aramaic lonlily has nothing to do with any Assyrian entity at all.


Ok, in that case you yourself just admitted that the language of the Jews was Aramaic, the language of Assyrians was also Aramaic (After Akkadian), but what is the language of Kurds?

Firstly speaking Aramaic is not restricted to Assyrians. It is an unfortunate fact that you do not distinguish Aramaic from Assyrian. Secondly on how come you do dare refer to Adiabene as Assyria since the first and the only time that it got associated with Assyria was after the Romans conquest and its annexation into their Province of Assyria?!


How? Because it is Assyria lol, dude are you mad? Did all the other hundreds if not thousands of years of the land being called Assyria not count? Wow, then Kurdistan only exists in the clouds if that's how you treat the term Assyria.

You just pasted it from Wikipedia ("Adiabene was home to our [< Assyrian] Church") and meantime omitted the rest (namely "Persian Zoroastrians").


I never posted wikipedia source, I don't know where you're coming up with these lies, maybe you should pay attention to what I write before claiming things that are not true, my source is our old church records.

Sure thing, and it of course had nothing to do with the term Assyria during its short life.


Yea, a side from occupying the Assyrian territories I guess:

http://www.jstor.org/pss/3264908

Does 23andMe asseverate that Kurds are not related to Iranians but to Assyrians?


I challenge you to sign up and check for yourself, I had initially thought the same about Kurds not being related to us and what not, but this does not seem the case.

Y-DNA and MtDNA are nonsense?


When you're trying to prove current ancestry, yes it's very useless, why? Because Y-DNA and mtDNA are haplogroups that go back thousands and thousands of years (I'm talking over 10,000 years here), what does Kurd have to do with this?

Let me give you a good example, in Cameroon today there's a group who have the haplogroup R1b, this is the most dominant haplogroup in Western Europe today, these people look black Africans and there's nothing European about them, what did the Y-DNA prove here? Absolutely nothing.

Also since you lack knowledge in this area, let me tell you how this is useless, assuming a white man migrated to Japan and had married a Japanese woman, their son would obviously be half white and half Jap right? Sure, then let's assume their son married another Jap, and their grandson also married a Jap, and so on for another 30 generations, now here we are 30 generations later (Which is about 750 years), we take a sample from their off-spring only to discover they carry a European haplogroup, but they look completely Japanese, what does that make them? white or Asian? Clearly NOT white, the same story goes for the Kurds, you may have some ancestors from the east but your genetic make-up is middle eastern, and the amount of eastern ancestors you have is similar in other neighboring populations.

Not to mention haplogroups have nothing to do with Kurds, Iranians, Assyrians, Monkeys, Trees, or whatever, these are only useful for deep ancestry to track ancient migration out of Africa, that's it, nothing more nothing less, not very useful for modern ancestry is it? Of course it's not.

Anyways, I'm not gonna go on about your closeness in terms of language since I talk from what the scholars say, on the same token your lack of Semitic languages should be pointed out here and since you can't argue you with me there, let's agree to drop the whole language issue.

Please if you do decide to respond, do it in a fashion that is simple, thank you.
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  Quote Quaere Verum Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jun-2010 at 11:56
Originally posted by Putty19

 
Verum, I would appreciate if you learn how to reply in a structured manner so it makes the life of the person answering you easier, you just spread out 3 to 4 replies back to back commenting on line by line when you could have done it in a simpler way, anyways, I'll try to gather your answers so I can answer you.
 
It aint no pleasure to answer you line by line in details, pardon my solecism. But when I face fallacious lines it definitely calls for replying them one after another because it would be the most coherent this way.

Originally posted by Putty19

Let's get one thing straight here, it was the term Adiabene that was put over Assyria, not the other way around.
 
I am not in since that is obviously wrong. Because this way we could also have said that it was exactly the term Assyria that got tagged on the originally Hurro-Urartian settlements. As a matter of fact there was no such a term as Assyria in the entire history of the Adiabenese Kingdom, until Romans toppled it and annexed it into their province of Assyria.

Originally posted by Putty19

Yes, and?
 
 
And Aramaic language being an official language in the entire ancient Persian empires could not even hint being Assyrian at all.

Originally posted by Putty19

It was the Assyrians who made this possible, the change would have not taken place if the Assyrians did not use the language themselves, here you go:

http://cal.huc.edu/aramaic_language.html

"Aramaic was used by the conquering Assyrians as a language of administration communication, and following them by the Babylonian and Persian empires, which ruled from India to Ethiopia, and employed Aramaic as the official language. For this period, then (about 700–320 B.C.E.), Aramaic held a position similar to that occupied by English today. The most important documents of this period are numerous papyri from Egypt and Palestine."
 
I am not talking about who paved the way or something. As a matter of fact Aramaic owes its heyday to the Achaemenid dynasty, particularly Cyrus the Great, in terms of replacing the other local Semitic vernaculars in the western parts of the Persian empire, such as Assyrian Akkadian and Babaylonian Akkadian which faded away and ultimately became extinct forever.

Originally posted by Putty19

I never said Assyrians were the only Aramaic speakers, I said they used it when they were at their might as a daily language, to you Assyrian means Akkadian only, you're obviously wrong since Aramaic is also an Assyrian language since they adopted it and used it.
 
I am sorry that nationalism has biased you to the point that you asseverate Aramaic language is Assyrian, in such a puerile and disrupted way. For your knowledge Assyrian Akkadian is linguistically the native language of the so-called Assyrian people which is as a matter of fact all extinct by now and the fellow Assyrian folk do speak a Neo-Aramaic speech instead which is resulted from the native language of Aramean people.

Originally posted by Putty19

Do you not read what I write? Did I ever say Aramaic and Akkadian were the same language? No, I never said that, there was Assyrian Akkadian and Assyrian Aramaic, of course your lack of Semitic knowledge is evident here so I will not go into details about differences and what not, in any case you're so quick to say the Kurdish Jews are Kurds yet do not acknowledge the Assyrian Aramaic when the Jews say Ketav Ashuri?
 
You did it. And you explicitly redid it by such an absurd state: "Aramaic is also an Assyrian language". My ken regarding to Semitic languages is fair enough to be iformed that Assyrian Neo-Aramaic is an Aramaic speech which is written in Syriac letters whilst the so-called Hebrew alphabet (which is also referred to as "Ketav Ashuri") is a distinct alphabet, nonetheless they are similar since they both are derived from the Aramaic script indeed. I think you really need to peruse about Semitic languages once again carefully, or perhaps the best way would be to get ride of the blinding prejudice which does not let you to apprehend that Assyrian Neo-Aramaic is an Aramaic language and is distinctive from Assyrian Akkadian the extinct native language of Assyrians. Only give it to you in a nutshell the difference between Aramaic and Assyrian Akkadian is as signifcant as even the Assyrian word for "Assyria" is "Ashuraye*" whilst its Aramaic cognate is "Atur*" (which for sure is followed by the bulk of the so-called Assyrian people when they refer to themselves as "Aturaye*" ~ "Assyrian").  

Originally posted by Putty19

Also the Khatt al Farsi that you speak of is called that because the Persians contributed and made it, in the same sense you need to acknowledge the Ketav Ashuri because it was the Assyrians who made it.
 

Khatt-e Farsi is basically an Arabic script which is modified by Iranians and Hebrew alphabet is basically an Aramaic script modified initially by Assyrians. But it does not mean that then Adiabene was Assyrian! If not then Egypt would be Persian since Egyptions speak Arabic and in Iran people refer to an Arabic-based script as Persian!! Just look that how partiality could make a person that much pathetic that you yourself from stating "the language of Adiabene was Assyrian" run into such an incredible reasoning like this: "Jews call their Aramaic-based script Assyrian, then the language of Adiabene was Assyrian".

Originally posted by Putty19

Ok, in that case you yourself just admitted that the language of the Jews was Aramaic, the language of Assyrians was also Aramaic (After Akkadian), but what is the language of Kurds?
 
For your knowledge in this case language do not implicate any thing on its own, since there are even Muslims who do speak Aramaic vernaculars as native language. And the fact that Kurdish Jews speak Aramaic has nothing to do with being Assyrian, if not so then even, God forbid, Jesus Christ would also be an ancient Assyrian personage too!

Originally posted by Putty19

How?
 
Since Romans conquerred and annexed it into their province of Assyria.
 
Originally posted by Putty19

Because it is Assyria lol, dude are you mad? Did all the other hundreds if not thousands of years of the land being called Assyria not count? Wow, then Kurdistan only exists in the clouds if that's how you treat the term Assyria.
 
For your information the respective area on which Adiabene got founded was originally a Hurro-Urartian land. I am sure you do not need to be reminded of the very fact that Hurrians' presence within the aforesaid area antedates that of ancient Assyrians who later appeared as devastating invadors from the south.

Originally posted by Putty19

I never posted wikipedia source, I don't know where you're coming up with these lies, maybe you should pay attention to what I write before claiming things that are not true, my source is our old church records.
 
I see. Then someone has to blame your Old Church for its attempt to twist the truth by means of omitting the presence of Zoroastrianism over Adiabene, in its ecclesiastical records.

Originally posted by Putty19

Yea, a side from occupying the Assyrian territories I guess:

http://www.jstor.org/pss/3264908
 
 
Wrong conjecture, unfortunately. In your provided link it is said: "Adiabene occupied part of the territories of ancient Assyria". In this regard, someone could easily replace the word Assyria with ancient Land of Hurrians, or ancient Persian empire, ancient Mede Empire, Northern Iraq, Kurdistan, and so on. It is only a mention to help the contemporary readership with the location of Adiabene. But historically we only notice the term Assyria to associate Adiabene right after its annexation into the Roman province of Assyria. Please meticulously ponder what ever you want to express, because this way you would not be entrapped into fallacy and then you would make your life easier on your own initiative.


Originally posted by Putty19

I challenge you to sign up and check for yourself, I had initially thought the same about Kurds not being related to us and what not, but this does not seem the case.
 
I myself do not represent the entire Kurdish people genetically.

Originally posted by Putty19

When you're trying to prove current ancestry, yes it's very useless, why? Because Y-DNA and mtDNA are haplogroups that go back thousands and thousands of years (I'm talking over 10,000 years here), what does Kurd have to do with this?

Let me give you a good example, in Cameroon today there's a group who have the haplogroup R1b, this is the most dominant haplogroup in Western Europe today, these people look black Africans and there's nothing European about them, what did the Y-DNA prove here? Absolutely nothing.

Also since you lack knowledge in this area, let me tell you how this is useless, assuming a white man migrated to Japan and had married a Japanese woman, their son would obviously be half white and half Jap right? Sure, then let's assume their son married another Jap, and their grandson also married a Jap, and so on for another 30 generations, now here we are 30 generations later (Which is about 750 years), we take a sample from their off-spring only to discover they carry a European haplogroup, but they look completely Japanese, what does that make them? white or Asian? Clearly NOT white, the same story goes for the Kurds, you may have some ancestors from the east but your genetic make-up is middle eastern, and the amount of eastern ancestors you have is similar in other neighboring populations.

Not to mention haplogroups have nothing to do with Kurds, Iranians, Assyrians, Monkeys, Trees, or whatever, these are only useful for deep ancestry to track ancient migration out of Africa, that's it, nothing more nothing less, not very useful for modern ancestry is it? Of course it's not.
 
Mr. Know-It-All, the usage of Y-DNA and MtDNA, what you nonesensically referred to as nonesense, is inevitable in order to discover the ancestry properly. For instance Y-chromosome is not restricted to at least over 10,000 years since a partiuclar Y-DNA marker test could tell you on your common forefathers from one to ten or maybe twentry generations (approximately back to some 500 years ago) at your will, with another person.
 
After all you really need to learn that Iranian peoples (particularly Persians, Lurs, Bakhtyaries, Gilaks, Mazandaranies, the Talysh, etc.) are Middle Easterns too. The only words of yours that I can take for granted is that Kurds can genetically be similar to the people living in their vicinity. Which include Persians, Lurs, Azaries, Turcophone Anatolians, Arabs, Armenians, Arameans, Assyrians, etc. But as a matter of fact Kurdish people, whose majority follows Islam, have not intermarried surrounding Christians, such as Assyrians, for the last 13 centruies at least. Nevetheless that there could be Indo-European, and particularly Indo-Iranian, appearances amongst Aramaic speaking Christians and this could associated with the intermarriage with either Armenians or Kurdish Christians (e.g. Christian refugees from Mosul had most likely intertwined with originally Kurdish Christians of Hakkari area, since Hakkari Christians had the same Kurdish tribal way of life in fact). Regarding to Kurdish Christians It is worthy of mention that since their religious language was Aramaic and the bulk of their compatriots were either Muslims or Jews, then a significant number of historical Kurdish Christians are possibly assimilated into the body of Semitic Christians. It would be no surprise if some Aramaic speaking individuals carried Iranian characteristics in their gene pools.
 
Anyways besides the above discussions you have to regard the very fact that the concept of people is by no means defined by genetics, but by historical, cultural, and social characteristics. For example both of Swedes and the Welsh are racially Nordish though they both are distinct peoples indeed.
Originally posted by Putty19

Anyways, I'm not gonna go on about your closeness in terms of language since I talk from what the scholars say,
 
You did not say what linguists have exactly speculated. You just colored it with your naive viewpoints too since up to now no linguist has clearly rejected the exclusive connection between Kirmanji Kurdish and Scythian, even theoretically.
 
Originally posted by Putty19

on the same token your lack of Semitic languages should be pointed out here and since you can't argue you with me there, let's agree to drop the whole language issue.
 
 
It is exactly you who lacks in knowledge about Semitic languages, since you seemingly do not know that Assyrian Akkadian and Aramaic langauge are linguistically distinct languages, which the first one is the native and extinct language of Assyrians while the second one is the native language of Arameans which later replaced the native vernaculars of some other Semitic communities, including Assyrians.
 
 
Originally posted by Putty19

Please if you do decide to respond, do it in a fashion that is simple, thank you
 
 
Your whole attempt to stubbornly maintain an unreasonable pretention such as "Kurdish people are not an Iranian folk", is inidisputably inept. You should try another way in order to stick with your fancies or you may simply knock off the hot air.


Edited by Quaere Verum - 26-Jun-2010 at 14:20
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  Quote Quaere Verum Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jun-2010 at 13:26
Originally posted by Ince



Also those tests are not very reliable as they did not test every Kurdish city or go to every region to test large population.  Most of those tests are done on a few Kurds.

Y-dna and Mtdna on Kurds are more similar to Iranians in Iran and Anatolian Turks.
 
Yes they are most likely incomprehensive. By the way it is all obvious that Kurds would share genetic similarities with their Muslim neighbors, particularly Iranian ones.
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  Quote Putty19 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jun-2010 at 15:32
Originally posted by Quaere Verum

I am not in since that is obviously wrong. Because this way we could also have said that it was exactly the term Assyria that got tagged on the originally Hurro-Urartian settlements. As a matter of fact there was no such a term as Assyria in the entire history of the Adiabenese Kingdom, until Romans toppled it and annexed it into their province of Assyria.


Your problem is you have a Kurdish agenda, you despise anything with the term Assyrian on it, deal with it buddy, history does not lie, and just so you know I actually acknowledged an existance of a Kurdistan today so clearly there's no bias on my part, however it's the idiotic opinion that you impose on here that's simply laughable, well, history books don't lie, you can make up things all you want if that what makes you sleep at night, hey you can tell yourself you come from King Darius and King Shapur, I'm sure that will give you some good night sleep.
 
I am not talking about who paved the way or something. As a matter of fact Aramaic owes its heyday to the Achaemenid dynasty, particularly Cyrus the Great, in terms of replacing the other local Semitic vernaculars in the western parts of the Persian empire, such as Assyrian Akkadian and Babaylonian Akkadian which faded away and ultimately became extinct forever.


Hmm, if the Assyrians had not used Aramaic there would be no Aramaic official language, period.

I am sorry that nationalism has biased you to the point that you asseverate Aramaic language is Assyrian, in such a puerile and disrupted way. For your knowledge Assyrian Akkadian is linguistically the native language of the so-called Assyrian people which is as a matter of fact all extinct by now and the fellow Assyrian folk do speak a Neo-Aramaic speech instead which is resulted from the native language of Aramean people.


Both languages are Assyrian in the sense that both languages have been used by the Assyrians, let me ask you a question, is Zazaki a Kurdi language or no? Cause clearly Zazaki and Kurmanji are two different things.

In any case, it does not matter, you have a problem with Assyrians therefore you let facts get in the way of your judgment, you're simply one of those guys who get's all excited when someone says "There are no more Assyrians"quite laughable and absurd.

You did it. And you explicitly redid it by such an absurd state: "Aramaic is also an Assyrian language". My ken regarding to Semitic languages is fair enough to be iformed that Assyrian Neo-Aramaic is an Aramaic speech which is written in Syriac letters whilst the so-called Hebrew alphabet (which is also referred to as "Ketav Ashuri") is a distinct alphabet, nonetheless they are similar since they both are derived from the Aramaic script indeed. I think you really need to peruse about Semitic languages once again carefully, or perhaps the best way would be to get ride of the blinding prejudice which does not let you to apprehend that Assyrian Neo-Aramaic is an Aramaic language and is distinctive from Assyrian Akkadian the extinct native language of Assyrians. Only give it to you in a nutshell the difference between Aramaic and Assyrian Akkadian is as signifcant as even the Assyrian word for "Assyria" is "Ashuraye*" whilst its Aramaic cognate is "Atur*" (which for sure is followed by the bulk of the so-called Assyrian people when they refer to themselves as "Aturaye*" ~ "Assyrian").


Do you read what I type or not? I said they're both Assyrian languages because they were both spoken by the Assyrian people, if you don't get that then I can't help you anymore. 


Khatt-e Farsi is basically an Arabic script which is modified by Iranians and Hebrew alphabet is basically an Aramaic script modified initially by Assyrians. But it does not mean that then Adiabene was Assyrian! If not then Egypt would be Persian since Egyptions speak Arabic and in Iran people refer to an Arabic-based script as Persian!! Just look that how partiality could make a person that much pathetic that you yourself from stating "the language of Adiabene was Assyrian" run into such an incredible reasoning like this: "Jews call their Aramaic-based script Assyrian, then the language of Adiabene was Assyrian".


This is why you lack knowledge this subject, first of all the Aramaic alphabets are NOT Aramaic, they are Phoenician, here you go:

http://www.omniglot.com/writing/phoenician.htm

The Arameans simply just copied the exact same alphabets and called them Aramaic, here you go, these are the original so-called Aramaic alphabets:

http://www.omniglot.com/writing/aramaic.htm

Now compare the two, seriously, how different are they? Not very different, so before you act like you know what they're called and what not it's better to check the sources first.

Second of all even Arabic comes from the same alphabets, I guess we should start calling Arabic Aramaic alphabets don't you think?

For your knowledge in this case language do not implicate any thing on its own, since there are even Muslims who do speak Aramaic vernaculars as native language. And the fact that Kurdish Jews speak Aramaic has nothing to do with being Assyrian, if not so then even, God forbid, Jesus Christ would also be an ancient Assyrian personage too!


Dude, I never said the Jews were Assyrians, we are Assyrians and our language is our legacy to us and our culture, the Jews are Jewish, the Kurds are Kurdish, and so on. When the Jews were brought to Assyria they already had Hebrew as their language, they learned Aramaic in Mesopotamia, go ask any Rabbi and he'll tell you the exact thing I'm saying.

For your information the respective area on which Adiabene got founded was originally a Hurro-Urartian land. I am sure you do not need to be reminded of the very fact that Hurrians' presence within the aforesaid area antedates that of ancient Assyrians who later appeared as devastating invadors from the south.


You are mistaken, the Assyrians were not invaders from the south as you say, the name itself comes from the name of a city that had already existed in north Mesopotamia long before the arrival of the Semitic Akkadians, it's just the dynasty that found the first Assyrian kingdom was Amorite that came from Syria, and they called it Assyria because the name of their capital was the city of Assur, the same thing happened to the Babylonians, they also were Amorites that made the city of Babylon their capital city.

In reality there was no such thing as Assyrian-Babylonian ethnic group, they are a mixture of groups that lived in the region and were part of the kingdom, in the case for Assyria the majority were Caucasian Hurrians which are the majority of our ancestors, it's also the majority of your ancestors too but apperantly, you say you come from the Iranians that came from the east.

I see. Then someone has to blame your Old Church for its attempt to twist the truth by means of omitting the presence of Zoroastrianism over Adiabene, in its ecclesiastical records.


Once again I see you did not read what I wrote, did I ever deny the existence of Zoroastrianism in Assyria? No I did not, I said this region was the home of our Church for a very long time and we had our base there, and it is indeed the home of our church, there's nothing to deny about it unless you're ignorant and you want to make up fairytales to make you sleep better at night.

Wrong conjecture, unfortunately. In your provided link it is said: "Adiabene occupied part of the territories of ancient Assyria". In this regard, someone could easily replace the word Assyria with ancient Land of Hurrians, or ancient Persian empire, ancient Mede Empire, Northern Iraq, Kurdistan, and so on. It is only a mention to help the contemporary readership with the location of Adiabene. But historically we only notice the term Assyria to associate Adiabene right after its annexation into the Roman province of Assyria. Please meticulously ponder what ever you want to express, because this way you would not be entrapped into fallacy and then you would make your life easier on your own initiative.


Well in history it was most well known as Assyria, today it's mostly known as Kurdistan, if I can deal with it being called Kurdistan today I'm pretty sure you can man up and accept the truth of it called Assyria, you're so hung up on a small period in history on what the Romans did, the Romans could have pissed there for all I care, the real fact it since the 1800's BC up to the 600's BC it was mostly known as Assyria, prior to the 1800's it was known as Subartu, and after the 600's BC it was still known as an Assyrian province for most part but there was other names for it as well, hell even today a big part of it is called the Province of Ninwa which was the ancient capital of the Assyrians, are you gonna deny all of this too?


Mr. Know-It-All, the usage of Y-DNA and MtDNA, what you nonesensically referred to as nonesense, is inevitable in order to discover the ancestry properly. For instance Y-chromosome is not restricted to at least over 10,000 years since a partiuclar Y-DNA marker test could tell you on your common forefathers from one to ten or maybe twentry generations (approximately back to some 500 years ago) at your will, with another person.


That's true, but what does that have to do with Iranians? There's no special marker for the Iranians in the middle east, they were of mixed haplogroups, so how do you prove you were Iranian like that? Clearly you cannot, hence, makes it useless.

Trust me, I have done enough tests and think of this as one of my favorite hobbies, if you're trying to establish an ancestry that goes back say, 500 years ago, it could be possible to identify a common ancestor with another person only if he shares your haplogroups (Both J2 for example), and you must not differ so much in the genetic distance (Meaning you should match at around 64/67 markers), the more markers you differ in the more genetic distance there's, to make matters simple, if the genetic distance is over 11 markers different in a 67-marker test, not only are you not related, but you likely have not shared an ancestor for the past thousands of years:

http://www.familytreedna.com/genetic-distance-markers.aspx?testtype=67

The other thing is if the Kurds belonged to one haplogroup, you would have a strong case, but the haplogroup diversity among you is just like any other middle eastern population, very diverse and you have different ancestors, in the case for an Iranian background, well there has been ancient dna found in the steppes where Iranian tribes roamed and were pure of mixing, the marker they carried was over 90% R1a1a, I'm not sure what the Kurds carry for most part today but clearly, they have a big significance of other haplogroups and R1a1a is in fact a minority among you, here you go:

http://www.eva.mpg.de/genetics/pdf/Kurds.pdf

Kurmanji Kurds in Turkey
E (E1b1b1) - 11.5%
C - 1.1%
K* (T) - 12.7%
P1 (R2) - 8%
P* - 5.7%
R1* - 4.6%
R1a1* - 12.7%
F* - 11.5%
G* - 2.3%
J2* - 13.8%
I* - 16.1%

Kurmanji Yezidis in Georgia
K* (T) - 8%
P1 (R2) - 44%
P* - 4%
F* - 12%
J2* - 32%

Kurds in Turkmenistan
R1* - 29%
R1a1* - %12
F* - 41%
J2* - 18%

Zazakis in Turkey
E (E1b1b1) - 11.1%
C - 3.7%
P* - 3.7%
R1* - 11.1%
R1a1* - 25.9%
F* - 7.4%
G* - 3.7%
I* - 33.3%
 
There's your Y-DNA, you have Kurds from both Turkey and Turkmenistan, Zaza people, and Yezidies all in front of you, explain to me what does this have to do with your so called Iranian background.

After all you really need to learn that Iranian peoples (particularly Persians, Lurs, Bakhtyaries, Gilaks, Mazandaranies, the Talysh, etc.) are Middle Easterns too. The only words of yours that I can take for granted is that Kurds can genetically be similar to the people living in their vicinity. Which include Persians, Lurs, Azaries, Turcophone Anatolians, Arabs, Armenians, Arameans, Assyrians, etc. But as a matter of fact Kurdish people, whose majority follows Islam, have not intermarried surrounding Christians, such as Assyrians, for the last 13 centruies at least. Nevetheless that there could be Indo-European, and particularly Indo-Iranian, appearances amongst Aramaic speaking Christians and this could associated with the intermarriage with either Armenians or Kurdish Christians (e.g. Christian refugees from Mosul had most likely intertwined with originally Kurdish Christians of Hakkari area, since Hakkari Christians had the same Kurdish tribal way of life in fact). Regarding to Kurdish Christians It is worthy of mention that since their religious language was Aramaic and the bulk of their compatriots were either Muslims or Jews, then a significant number of historical Kurdish Christians are possibly assimilated into the body of Semitic Christians. It would be no surprise if some Aramaic speaking individuals carried Iranian characteristics in their gene pools.


Assyrians from Hakkari are not Kurdish, this is one of the most stupidest things I have ever heard, I guess you would call it equally stupid if I call some modern Kurds Assyrians, but you know what? There's a little rumor out there that says Barzani family is indeed Assyrian, regardless I'm not gonna call you Assyrian and you're not gonna call us Kurds, we'll keep it at that.

In any case the Assyrians barely married with Armenians, yes we did merry with them but it was not significant enough to lose our culture, heck marriage outside our villages was hard enough as it is, let alone a total stranger? Most of the marriages that happened between Assyrians and Armenians were in big cities like Diyarbaker and Urmia, villager Assyrians remained pure for most part.

I will however agree with you that some of us do carry some Iranian blood that you speak of, it happened during the early Christian period when some Iranians decided to convert to Christianity, on the same token the modern Kurds also have Assyrian blood since many Assyrians (In fact most Assyrians) converted to Islam and either assimilated to Kurds or Arabs, but that does not make us Iranians and it does not make you Assyrians.
 
Anyways besides the above discussions you have to regard the very fact that the concept of people is by no means defined by genetics, but by historical, cultural, and social characteristics. For example both of Swedes and the Welsh are racially Nordish though they both are distinct peoples indeed.


That's fine, I was talking about genetics, not culture.
 
It is exactly you who lacks in knowledge about Semitic languages, since you seemingly do not know that Assyrian Akkadian and Aramaic langauge are linguistically distinct languages, which the first one is the native and extinct language of Assyrians while the second one is the native language of Arameans which later replaced the native vernaculars of some other Semitic communities, including Assyrians.


Let me ask you a few questions and I would appreciate if you answer them straight:

- What do you consider Yiddish language to be?
- What do you consider the Ladino language to be?

Answer these two questions and I'll carry on from there.
 

Your whole attempt to stubbornly maintain an unreasonable pretention such as "Kurdish people are not an Iranian folk", is inidisputably inept. You should try another way in order to stick with your fancies or you may simply knock off the hot air.


I simply said genetically the Kurds are mostly natives to the middle east (And they are), which as a Kurd yourself, I thought you would be happy an Assyrian would say that and acknowledge the native roots of the Kurdish population to the middle east, but you're an odd one that's for sure.
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  Quote Ince Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jun-2010 at 16:44
^ You are still looking as if Kurds have to havbe mostly R1a1 like the East Iranians.  We know Kurds have mixed genetics, for example I am 1/4 Turkish.  And many people in my family married Turkish people.  I see my self as Kurd and so do most of them.  Now my wife could be 1/4 Turkish or Armenian or Arab and the combined genetic information would be passed on to my Children who will indenitfy themselves as Kurds.

By your logic Persians,Lurs,Talyash,.ect in Iran are also not true Iranians because they have genetic make similar to Middle-easteners rather then East Iranians?  

The Ancient Iranians were already a mixed bunch it is not known how much of a Genetic impact the Aryan tribes had when they came, the Elamites were absorbed into modern day Iranians and their is still a Province called Ilam and Iran was the centre of the Iranian Empires.


Edited by Ince - 26-Jun-2010 at 17:27
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  Quote Ince Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jun-2010 at 16:52
Heres the Y-dna of Iranians in Iran similar to Anatolian Kurds, so they are not true Iranians as well?
http://www.eva.mpg.de/genetics/pdf/Caucasus_big_paper.pdf



Iranians from Tehran

Iranians from Isfahan





MtDNA

http://www.eva.mpg.de/genetics/pdf/Nasidze.AnHG.2004.pdf



Figure 2 MDS plots based on pairwise Fst  values, showing relationships among the North and South
Ossetians, Caucasian, European, Central and West Asian populations. Ossetians are represented by
stars; other Caucasus groups are represented by circles; squares correspond to populations from
Europe; Central Asian groups are represented by diamonds; and West Asian populations by triangles.
A. Based on mtDNA HVI sequence data. The stress value for the MDS plot is 0.104. B. Based on Y
chromosome SNP data. The stress value for the MDS plot is 0.126. The populations are given the
following abbreviations: Os Dig – Ossetians from Digora, Os Ala – Ossetians from Alagir, Os Zil –
Ossetians from Zil’ga, Os Zam – Ossetians from Zamankul, Os Ard – Ossetians from Ardon, S Os –
South Ossetians, Sv – Svans, Rut – Rutulians, Kazb – Kazbegi, Lez Dag – Lezginians from Dagestan,
Lez Az – Lezginians from Azerbaijan, In – Ingushians, Che – Chechenians, Ch – Cherkessians, Ava –
Avarians, Kab – Kabardinians, Ab – Abazinians, Ge – Georgians, Az – Azerbaijanians, Ar –
Armenians, Abk – Abkhazians, Bal – Balkarians, Ir Isf – Persians from Isfahan, Ir Teh – Persians from
Tehran, Leb – Lebanese, Dr – Israeli Drusi, Syr – Syrians, Tur – Turks, Kur – Kurds, Rus - Russians,
Ukr – Ukrainians, Mar – Mari, Pol – Polish, Hung – Hungarians, Gr – Greeks, Sar – Sardinians,
Cz Sl – Chez and Slovaks, Sp - Spanish, Fr – French, Ger – Germans, It – Italians, Br – British, And
– Andalusians, Dut – Dutch, Cat – Catalans, Bas – Basques, Fr Bas – French Basques, Sp Bas –
Spanish Basques, Turkm – Turkmans, Kara – Karakalpak, Kyr – Kyrgiz, Kaz – Kazakhs, Ishk –
Ishkinasi. The abbreviated names of the populations are also used in the Y-SNP MDS plot.


Edited by Ince - 26-Jun-2010 at 17:22
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  Quote Putty19 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jun-2010 at 18:39
Let me ask you a question, what if you great great great great grandfather was a Mongol who carried haplogroup C3, but all the other ancestors you had were Kurdish, would that make you Kurd or Mongol?

Please answer the question and don't go in circles.
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jun-2010 at 19:02
The real answer depends upon just whom you want to be considered as! And, if others of the clan you have chosen accept you as one of them!
http://www.quotationspage.com/subjects/history/
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  Quote Ince Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jun-2010 at 19:41
Originally posted by Putty19

Let me ask you a question, what if you great great great great grandfather was a Mongol who carried haplogroup C3, but all the other ancestors you had were Kurdish, would that make you Kurd or Mongol?

Please answer the question and don't go in circles.


Kurd, because thats what was passed on to me is Kurdish language and culture.


--

Genetic purity does mean anything at end of the day we are all humans and all share  common ancestors. 

It is you who is trying to distance Kurds from been Iranian by genetics when Kurds are culturaly and linguistically Iranians and are part of Iranian people  which is what matters the most and Kurds seem themselves as Iranic, apart from a few who are Anti-Iran due to politics.  

The Qa'rdu you always bring up existed so long ago, since then they were absorbed into the Iranian people and like I mentioned before they only existed in a small part of what is today Kurdistan.

Modern Iranian people were born with the Median empire, or what is known today as Greater Iran, look at the Median empire and then the Parthian,Sassanids to the Safavids, it was always nearly the same regions.
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  Quote Putty19 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jun-2010 at 00:55

Kurd, because thats what was passed on to me is Kurdish language and culture.


Then stop using the Y-DNA argument, if you're not gonna take it in that manner there's no need to use it.

Genetic purity does mean anything at end of the day we are all humans and all share  common ancestors.


Agreed, I never said because you're closer to us genetically that means you'll have to stop being or doing the things you want to be or do, it's simply a discussion based on facts, that's it.

It is you who is trying to distance Kurds from been Iranian by genetics when Kurds are culturaly and linguistically Iranians and are part of Iranian people  which is what matters the most and Kurds seem themselves as Iranic, apart from a few who are Anti-Iran due to politics.


That's fine, but the point was genetically the Kurds are middle eastern, this has nothing to do with trying to separate you from Iranians and what not, what I'm trying to say is your genetics does not match the genetics of an ancient Scythian found in the steppes of Central Asia, on the other hand it could match and ancient Armenian dna found in the mountains of Urartu.

The Qa'rdu you always bring up existed so long ago, since then they were absorbed into the Iranian people and like I mentioned before they only existed in a small part of what is today Kurdistan.


The modern Kurds bare their name from these Qardu people, if you were Medians you should call yourselves Medes, not Kurds, Qardu/Carduchi/Corduene is your heritage.

Modern Iranian people were born with the Median empire, or what is known today as Greater Iran, look at the Median empire and then the Parthian,Sassanids to the Safavids, it was always nearly the same regions.


Modern Iranian people were born with the Indo-Iranians in Central Asia, from there waves started to spread around, the Iranians were already spread all the way in the steppes of Eurasia long before there was such thing as Median empire.


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  Quote Ince Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jun-2010 at 05:09
Originally posted by Putty19


Kurd, because thats what was passed on to me is Kurdish language and culture.


Then stop using the Y-DNA argument, if you're not gonna take it in that manner there's no need to use it.

Genetic purity does mean anything at end of the day we are all humans and all share  common ancestors.


Agreed, I never said because you're closer to us genetically that means you'll have to stop being or doing the things you want to be or do, it's simply a discussion based on facts, that's it.

It is you who is trying to distance Kurds from been Iranian by genetics when Kurds are culturaly and linguistically Iranians and are part of Iranian people  which is what matters the most and Kurds seem themselves as Iranic, apart from a few who are Anti-Iran due to politics.


That's fine, but the point was genetically the Kurds are middle eastern, this has nothing to do with trying to separate you from Iranians and what not, what I'm trying to say is your genetics does not match the genetics of an ancient Scythian found in the steppes of Central Asia, on the other hand it could match and ancient Armenian dna found in the mountains of Urartu.

The Qa'rdu you always bring up existed so long ago, since then they were absorbed into the Iranian people and like I mentioned before they only existed in a small part of what is today Kurdistan.


The modern Kurds bare their name from these Qardu people, if you were Medians you should call yourselves Medes, not Kurds, Qardu/Carduchi/Corduene is your heritage.

Modern Iranian people were born with the Median empire, or what is known today as Greater Iran, look at the Median empire and then the Parthian,Sassanids to the Safavids, it was always nearly the same regions.


Modern Iranian people were born with the Indo-Iranians in Central Asia, from there waves started to spread around, the Iranians were already spread all the way in the steppes of Eurasia long before there was such thing as Median empire.




You did not understand what I meant when I said the modern day Iranians were born with the Medians.  It was the Medians that established the Iranians empire that united the Iranians tribes and what is today known as today and Greater Iran.

The name Kurd is still today debated wether it comes from the Qa'rdu what about the Guti,Kyrtie? all have similar sound names to Kurd and lived in the same place.  How do we know that the Median tribes were not abosrbed into the Kurd name over time, tribes like the Sindi,Mattini,Gawirk and many other tribes still have non Qa'rdu origins.  Some theorys suggest the term Kurd was as a social label rather then a ethnic one, as Kurd means Sheppard in many Iranians dialects. 

What about the langauge name, Kurmanji? what does that mean? some say it means "Son of Maji" and the Maji were a Medians tribes.  For example like I mentioned before, Jamiaca, the name given by Native indians, yet majority of the people who live in Jamiaca are black africans and call themselves Jamiacans.

Again you bring up genetics and that Kurds are middle-easteners, I will ask you a question, Persians and Lurs in Iran have the same Genetic make up as Kurds do, now are Persians in Iran not true Iranians? Genetics can change over thousands of years, the tribes that came from central asia most likely did not come in great enough numbers to have major genetic impact many people were Aryanized.






Edited by Ince - 27-Jun-2010 at 05:19
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  Quote Putty19 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jun-2010 at 16:24
Originally posted by Ince


You did not understand what I meant when I said the modern day Iranians were born with the Medians.  It was the Medians that established the Iranians empire that united the Iranians tribes and what is today known as today and Greater Iran.


This is supposed to be the Median empire:





Of course there are a lot of areas within this territory that were not Iranians mostly, on the same token, the big majority of the eastern parts which included Scythians for most part were not covered by the Medes.

In my opinion the Medes were the start of the Western Iranians, not the entire Iranian people, the Eastern Iranians were less mixed while the Western Iranians mixed in very heavily with other local populations.

The name Kurd is still today debated wether it comes from the Qa'rdu what about the Guti,Kyrtie? all have similar sound names to Kurd and lived in the same place.  How do we know that the Median tribes were not abosrbed into the Kurd name over time, tribes like the Sindi,Mattini,Gawirk and many other tribes still have non Qa'rdu origins.  Some theorys suggest the term Kurd was as a social label rather then a ethnic one, as Kurd means Sheppard in many Iranians dialects.


There's actually very little to debate here, check out where Qardu is located:

http://de.academic.ru/pictures/dewiki/65/Asia_minor_p20.jpg

That's like the heart of Kurdistan, it's not a coincidence that modern Kurds still bare the same name.  

What about the langauge name, Kurmanji? what does that mean? some say it means "Son of Maji" and the Maji were a Medians tribes.  For example like I mentioned before, Jamiaca, the name given by Native indians, yet majority of the people who live in Jamiaca are black africans and call themselves Jamiacans.


What about Kurmanji? You know language can spread and people can adopt, Azeri is a Turkic language but before it was Turkic it was a northwestern Iranian one until the Turkification happened.

Again you bring up genetics and that Kurds are middle-easteners, I will ask you a question, Persians and Lurs in Iran have the same Genetic make up as Kurds do, now are Persians in Iran not true Iranians? Genetics can change over thousands of years, the tribes that came from central asia most likely did not come in great enough numbers to have major genetic impact many people were Aryanized.


That's the exact point I'm trying to make, the Kurds for most part are more related to Anatolian populations more than they are to Persians, this may not be important to you but we are working on personal projects in 23andMe to see where everyone fits, so far we have a good number of Assyrians, Armenians, Iranians (Mixed Persians and Azeris for most part), Anatolian Turks, Arabs, Jews, and so on, it would be nice if we had a few more Kurds to compare with, but from the few Kurdish individuals that exist, they are closest to Armenians, Assyrians, and Anatolian Turks, and a bit more distant to Persians, so whether this matters to you or not that's not the point I'm trying to make, I'm just saying in terms of genetics, from what I have seen the Kurds seem more similar to the Near East than anything else, I just hope more Kurds sign up so we can get the proper picture.
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  Quote Ince Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jun-2010 at 17:03
Originally posted by Putty19

Originally posted by Ince


You did not understand what I meant when I said the modern day Iranians were born with the Medians.  It was the Medians that established the Iranians empire that united the Iranians tribes and what is today known as today and Greater Iran.


This is supposed to be the Median empire:





Of course there are a lot of areas within this territory that were not Iranians mostly, on the same token, the big majority of the eastern parts which included Scythians for most part were not covered by the Medes.

In my opinion the Medes were the start of the Western Iranians, not the entire Iranian people, the Eastern Iranians were less mixed while the Western Iranians mixed in very heavily with other local populations.

The name Kurd is still today debated wether it comes from the Qa'rdu what about the Guti,Kyrtie? all have similar sound names to Kurd and lived in the same place.  How do we know that the Median tribes were not abosrbed into the Kurd name over time, tribes like the Sindi,Mattini,Gawirk and many other tribes still have non Qa'rdu origins.  Some theorys suggest the term Kurd was as a social label rather then a ethnic one, as Kurd means Sheppard in many Iranians dialects.


There's actually very little to debate here, check out where Qardu is located:

http://de.academic.ru/pictures/dewiki/65/Asia_minor_p20.jpg

That's like the heart of Kurdistan, it's not a coincidence that modern Kurds still bare the same name.  

What about the langauge name, Kurmanji? what does that mean? some say it means "Son of Maji" and the Maji were a Medians tribes.  For example like I mentioned before, Jamiaca, the name given by Native indians, yet majority of the people who live in Jamiaca are black africans and call themselves Jamiacans.


What about Kurmanji? You know language can spread and people can adopt, Azeri is a Turkic language but before it was Turkic it was a northwestern Iranian one until the Turkification happened.

Again you bring up genetics and that Kurds are middle-easteners, I will ask you a question, Persians and Lurs in Iran have the same Genetic make up as Kurds do, now are Persians in Iran not true Iranians? Genetics can change over thousands of years, the tribes that came from central asia most likely did not come in great enough numbers to have major genetic impact many people were Aryanized.


That's the exact point I'm trying to make, the Kurds for most part are more related to Anatolian populations more than they are to Persians, this may not be important to you but we are working on personal projects in 23andMe to see where everyone fits, so far we have a good number of Assyrians, Armenians, Iranians (Mixed Persians and Azeris for most part), Anatolian Turks, Arabs, Jews, and so on, it would be nice if we had a few more Kurds to compare with, but from the few Kurdish individuals that exist, they are closest to Armenians, Assyrians, and Anatolian Turks, and a bit more distant to Persians, so whether this matters to you or not that's not the point I'm trying to make, I'm just saying in terms of genetics, from what I have seen the Kurds seem more similar to the Near East than anything else, I just hope more Kurds sign up so we can get the proper picture.


Of course Kurds who live in Anatolia will be a litte distant from Persians and closer to Anatolian Turks by genetics, Persians live more further away,plus Kurds were seperated from Iran many times over time by Turks and Arabs.  Kurds of Anatolia are more closer to Azaris of Iran by genetics as they live more closer to Kurds, also it is speculated that the Safavids had a strong Kurdish element before the Turkification.  Kurds who live in West Iran will be more closer to Persians as they live more closer, like for example Ardashir 1 of the Sassanids was half Kurdish.   Kurds who live in different regions are not even close to eachother by genetics,  many Kurds of Anatolia are most likely more closer to Antolian Turks then to Kurds who live in Iran or Iraq and many Kurds who live In in N.Iraq will be likely closer to Assyrians.

The Corduene existed in a small part of what is today Kurdistan, at time of the Corduene their were Kurds living all the way in the Fars province.  Also I do not think the name is the most important aspect, because Kurds see themselves as Iranic and everything about them from language to culture is Iranic over time they became part of what is Iranian today.  Kurds have many different elements in them from Scythian to Mittani to Median and modern day Kurds are the product of these elements. 

Plus the different elements within the Kurds has been discussed even on this forum, heres a post by Cyrus_Shahmiri where he posts about the Kurds and Sycthians. http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=28346&PID=632094#632094

I think it is more easier to do Quantum Mechanics then to figure out Kurdish history.

The Kurdish language Kurmanji is only spoken by Kurds not by any other Iranian people, you will bring up the Balochi but Balochi is close to Kurdish but no the same.  Infact I cannot understand a single thing a Balochi speaker even says, I understand Persian much better.

I don't think  Kurds are genetically close to everyone in the Middle-East, they are more distant from Arabs from the south.  Kurds cluster more with Eastern Europeans like Greeks then with most Arabs.



Edited by Ince - 27-Jun-2010 at 18:15
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jun-2010 at 20:05
Based upon the map you have both presented, just where is Phrigia / Phrygia / Frigia, located?

Just who/whom do you both consider those who are reported to occupy a large portion of Asia Minor?

You might well note, that upon other sites, and looking at other maps of this same area, you might well notice that Phrygia, etal, seems very coericed into the most very Western portion of Asia Minor?

Does Phrygia move like the wind or waves, like Armenia?
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