Is Germanic a subgroup of the Iranian languages?

In  what I wrote about 'chicken' I was misleading in saying in Spanish it seemed to have turned to 'th'. That's true about the single letter 'c' before a soft vowel ('ch' in Italian and 'th' in Spanish) but the 'ch' sound still remains when it is spelt that way, as in 'chica' (which I remembered when I posted about 'girl'.

Because the nearest Persian was about 3000kms far away from England. While the nearest Celtic or Vulgar Latin speaker was across the street...therefore.

Edited by Slayertplsko - 14-Jun-2008 at 16:31

And where is it that I say there is no 'x' sound in Germanic languages???

Not a large group, but an elite military unit under command of Romans.

There is no link between Scythians, Sarmatians and Persian since Old Iranian (the one to link them) is an 'imaginary language'.

Anyway, you're dragging us off the topic with the English - start a new thread here, or continue in the Saxon and Scythian thread if you wanna discuss it.

1, So, as has been proved, Iranian have got much different declension - 8 cases, whilst Germanic have only four, with another two rarely appearing. Germanic languages moreover lack the dual number for nouns and pertain it with pronouns (1st and 2nd person).

2, The personal pronouns are much different as well. - azə̄m, tvə̄m, hō tat hā, vayam, yūžam, tā

3, They have a completely different phonology. - proved here.

4, The standard word order of an Avestan clause or sentence is generally Subject-Object-Verb, whereas Germanic have SVO.

5, The demonstrative pronouns are different as well. - ha- 'this', hvo- 'this', a- 'that' (check the declension - very interesting)

6, Avestan has four tenses - present, aorist, perfect, and future, whilst germanic have only two - present and past.

7, Avestan has three voices - active, middle and passive - Germanic only two - active and passive.

These are just a few differences. I could list much more of them.

'ceallian' was replaced by ON kalla. I don't know about 'ceorfan' (maybe because of the pp form?).

I still don't see any logics in your post.

the first two (call, carve):
tsh - k (tsh - tsh proposed by you)

the last one: tsh - tsh (tsh - s proposed by you!!)

You're mixing up different shifts here.


Edited by Slayertplsko - 14-Jun-2008 at 20:39

Did you answer my question?!!

This is just another variant on the 'cold', 'caldo', 'chaud', 'gelid', 'kholod' theme, in which it means either cold or hot depending on your language. Is there any IE language that does NOT have this root, meaning either hot or cold?   Incidentally, what does it mean in Persian?

You should answer my question, "Chaiidan" in Persian doesn't mean "Cold" but "to feel cold" and also "to shudder",  I think the best meaning is "to chill".

Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri Nope. The 'ch' sound in otherwise Germanic words developed all by itself in England, possibly under Norman French or church Latin influence. Please first answer this question: Why OE "Ceallian" is changed to "Call", not "Chal" or OE "Ceorfan" to "Carve", not "Charv" but OE "Ceowan" is not changed to "Cew" but "Chew"?

Do you really think "k" sound has been changed to "ch" in English by random?! It seems as if you say it was originally Swedish "Kina" which has been changed to "China" in English "by random", is it English language which lacks the "k" sound or Swedish "ch"?

What do these two words have to do with 'choose'?? And what do they have to do with this thread?? What does the ENGLISH itself have to do with the topic?!
As for the 'choose', the OE past participle even had the rhotacism JUST LIKE in Latin!

About "Chew": http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?search=chew&searchmode=none you see that it says this word comes from PIE base *gjeu- "to chew.", "g" could be changed to "K" but there is also a "j" after "g".

And do you see any Iranian language there??




Edited by Slayertplsko - 15-Jun-2008 at 09:31

Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri Do you really think "k" sound has been changed to "ch" in English by random?!