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Mordoth
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Topic: BCE and CE notations Posted: 04-Dec-2006 at 15:11 |
For the objectivity of history to be protected ;
BCE : Before COMMON Era
AD : Anno Domini
As far as , i know .
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If Electricity Comes from Electrons ; does Morality come from Morons :|
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M. Nachiappan
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Posted: 05-Dec-2006 at 02:19 |
Mr. Mordoth, you are mixing both.
I do not know why the confusion?
CE = COMMON ERA and BCE = BEFORE COMMON ERA.
Here, no religion is involved, as claimed by the historians.
You mention about the protection of "objectivity of history"! What is it? Would you please elaborate it?
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M. Nachiappan
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Posted: 05-Dec-2006 at 02:32 |
JamaRook noted, " As a side note, does anyone else hate it when people use 0 CE or 0 AD as a date? I mean come on years are ordinal not cardinal.
The Christians, when devised, manipulated and introduced chritiian era, thery could not mention "Zero year", as they did not know it.
Ask Dionysius Exigus, a monk from Scythia, around 6th century reportedly invented!
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gcle2003
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Posted: 05-Dec-2006 at 03:04 |
Originally posted by M. Nachiappan
So datings made on suuch helical risings, Nile floodings etc., have been used to date Egyptian chronology? |
I believe so. But when you count the New Year as starting isn'l all that important to long-term chronology like that involved in Egyptian history.
What is more important is that the Egyptian year count is very accurately aligned with the solar year. A hundred years Egyptian is, if anything, more accurate than a Gregorian or Khayyam hundred years, let alone any of the earlier calendars, or the lunar ones.
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Achilles
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Posted: 05-Dec-2006 at 18:24 |
Personaly I like the old A.U.C. method. (After the founding of Rome)
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Der Erste hat den Tod,
Der Zweite hat die Not,
Der Dritte erst hat Brot.
Fur immer frei und ungeteilt
-always free and undivided-
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M. Nachiappan
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Posted: 05-Dec-2006 at 22:10 |
Request to gcle2003:
The point is if the Egyptians had reportedly recorded the helical risings, folooding of Nile etc., and the dating of Egyptian events are done adopting astronomical methods, that aspect has to be verified.
How the astronomical datings have beenb accepted by the archaeologistrs correlating?
These points are to be clarified in the case of Egyptian chronology.
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M. Nachiappan
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Posted: 05-Dec-2006 at 22:13 |
Is it not Romo-centric?
When I mentioned about a book, "Hindu America" as a reference in pre-Columbian forum, a member alarmed to express about, "Hindu0-centric".
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JanusRook
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Posted: 05-Dec-2006 at 23:21 |
For the objectivity of history to be protected ;
BCE : Before COMMON Era
AD : Anno Domini
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(>.>)....... Mordoth, that's not objective. Anno Domini is latin for "In the Year of Our Lord." So it is even more religious than "Before Christ." Creating an objective timeframe is like creating an objective Prime Meridian, it just can't be done.
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Economic Communist, Political Progressive, Social Conservative.
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Eondt
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Posted: 06-Dec-2006 at 00:43 |
History isn't objective. We can strive towards objective history but a there will always be a measure of subjectivity contained within writings. It's human nature.
If you want to strive towards "more" objective historical writings then I put forward that there is bigger obstacles to cross than the renaming of timeframe references.
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gcle2003
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Posted: 06-Dec-2006 at 00:56 |
Originally posted by M. Nachiappan
The point is if the Egyptians had reportedly recorded the helical risings, folooding of Nile etc., and the dating of Egyptian events are done adopting astronomical methods, that aspect has to be verified.
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Against what? Even the years of accession of the latter-day pharaohs of the 26th - 30th dynasties are conjectural. If you have an inscription that such and such happened on the 1st day of Thoth in the seventh year of the Pharoah Sesotris (if it gives the pharoah, which it may not), then how do you compare it with anything else?
Some of the Egyptian king lists correlate with the Persian or Babylonian lists at some points and thence to Roman records, but they only give vague indications.
When, for instance, you can't date Hammurabi reliably to within a couple of hundred years, it doesn't make much difference whether you're working with years based on the rising of Sirius or the vernal equinox, or whenever.
How the astronomical datings have beenb accepted by the archaeologistrs correlating?
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Again, correlating what with what?
These points are to be clarified in the case of Egyptian chronology. |
How?
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M. Nachiappan
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Posted: 06-Dec-2006 at 03:10 |
You yourself say that, " Even the years of accession of the latter-day pharaohs of the 26th - 30th dynasties are conjecture", how then the dating of Egyptian dynasties are dated back to c.3000 BCE. This, I am asking how, if it is not done based on helical rising, NIle flooding etc.
The Egyptian dynasties have been dated astronomically. So, how such datings have been correlated with other methods of dating?
You accept that,"Some of the Egyptian king lists correlate with the Persian or Babylonian lists at some points and thence to Roman records, but they only give vague indications", but those correlatioons are accepted historically or not?
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gcle2003
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Posted: 07-Dec-2006 at 04:44 |
Originally posted by M. Nachiappan
You yourself say that, "Even the years of accession of the latter-day pharaohs of the 26th - 30th dynasties are conjecture", how then the dating of Egyptian dynasties are dated back to c.3000 BCE. This, I am asking how, if it is not done based on helical rising, NIle flooding etc.
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Mostly it's done by comparing Egyptian archaeological records with records from the other contemporary civilisations. Plus guesswork and intelligent interpolation, helped nowadays by things like carbon dating. Where eclipses and other notable astronomic events are mentioned - which isn't often - it's possible to back-calculate when they must have occurred in our year count.
Since the records from other civilisations are just as sporadic and hazy as the Egyptian ones, the results are never all that accurate. We have, for instance, pretty good records of the years when specific Roman consuls held office, but at best they go back to around 500 BCE, and it's rare until much later that there are Egyptian record indicating that such and such happened 'in the year of the second consulate of X'.
You seem to be wanting to say that such and such happened in such and such year on such and such a day in our calendar. In early Egyptian history you can't do that.
The Egyptian dynasties have been dated astronomically.
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Not accurately they haven't.
So, how such datings have been correlated with other methods of dating?
You accept that,"Some of the Egyptian king lists correlate with the Persian or Babylonian lists at some points and thence to Roman records, but they only give vague indications", but those correlatioons are accepted historically or not? |
Approximately. That's the point.
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The_Jackal_God
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Posted: 13-Dec-2006 at 15:41 |
'If you want to strive towards "more" objective historical writings
then I put forward that there is bigger obstacles to cross than the
renaming of timeframe references."
in fact, this attempt to rename involves as much subjectivism as that it seeks to remove.
if you read the talk page on the wikipedia entry for Jesus, there is a monumental debate on this.
Edited by The_Jackal_God - 14-Dec-2006 at 18:02
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rider
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Posted: 15-Dec-2006 at 09:52 |
I read that the BCE is Before Christ's Era (or something very alike) and CE is Common Era...
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JanusRook
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Posted: 15-Dec-2006 at 14:25 |
I read that the BCE is Before Christ's Era (or something very alike) and CE is Common Era...
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Okay, everyone it's not as complicated as your making it out to be. (I'm not just singling you out rider.) BCE: Before Common Era CE: Common Era This nomenclature was created to overlap and replace the previous Christian and Western biased historical time references. Which were: BC: Before Christ AD: Anno Domini (Latin for 'In the Year of Our Lord') or to translate even further, this was the year that scholar's believed that Jesus Christ was born. Thus 1 A.D. meant the 'year Christ was born'. The year before that was 1 B.C. and the year after it was 2 A.D. It is an Ordinal system, basically meaning there is no year zero since 1 A.D. means the first A.D. Personally I think that if we want to create a non-biased way to record time, we should just set 1 CE to be the year 2001, the year of the millenium to make conversion from AD to CE easy enough.
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rider
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Posted: 17-Dec-2006 at 09:24 |
It would still be difficult... we would live in 5 CE (for these few days) and then we would use some old history books that tell us of 1980 CE.,.. I imagine how confusing that could be:D
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JanusRook
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Posted: 17-Dec-2006 at 14:54 |
It would still be difficult... we would live in 5 CE (for these few
days) and then we would use some old history books that tell us of 1980
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I take it then history books in europe have used CE (Common Era) for a while now? Here in America only the most recent history books attempt to use CE as a reference, still to this day most textbooks use AD and BC notation. So I guess it would be easier for Americans to make my suggested transition rather than europeans, or am I still mistaken? Anyway rider, come on it's easy, 1980 would be 21 BCE with my new reference.
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Economic Communist, Political Progressive, Social Conservative.
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M. Nachiappan
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Posted: 26-Dec-2006 at 05:10 |
The dates mentioned (as we see in the history books), are in Christian angle.
Before the medieval period, the documents do not show date specifically in Christian era.
In fact, when calendar reformation was going on another confusion was made by mentioning the dates in OS and NS, the two dates of birth are given to Newton.
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Reginmund
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Posted: 26-Dec-2006 at 10:08 |
Originally posted by Ikki
If you want a neutral chronology, make a new chronology like the french of the revolution times made, but i think that try to take the BC era, change the name of the era, and negate the nature of that era can be named at least historical rob, with negative consecuences for both europeans and non europeans.True about that differents eras can be confuse, generally we only use one translating the others to this; but in certain examples as i said before, is better to do like many books about the islamic civilizations that have both, the islamic and the christian time and i see it very useful for the historical investigation.
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I am with Ikki here, to create another system of chronology for no other reason than having one that can't be related to Christianity seems both unnecessary, as the one we have works well, and complicating, as we would still be forced to relate to the old system for many decades still.
Even worse, it is rather historyless IMO. I am, and many of us are, European or European-Americans, and even if we are not Christian our background and historical identity has been heavily influenced by Christianity, most of us still are, and I have no need, in fact I blankly refuse to downplay this part of my cultural heritage.
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Chilbudios
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Posted: 26-Dec-2006 at 14:29 |
Though suggested, it wasn't perhaps drawn more clearly: BCE and CE mean the same thing as BC and AD, the only thing changed are the acronyms. I for one prefer the Christ refering ones - like BC and AD or like a.C(hr). and p.C(hr) - for the sake of preserving the meaning (I find no real use to hide it behind another(!) arbitrary convention - a "common era"), the computations of a Christian monk. In a similar manner we have AUC dates, H dates, etc.. There's no fuss about them being Rome-centric or Islamo-centric (they surely are), there are just other ways to divide eras. And certainly there's no universal moment of time of same value for the entire humankind, so no matter what time division we will use it will be something-centric. We just have to live with that.
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