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Europe vs rest of world in the Middle Ages

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  Quote Decebal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Europe vs rest of world in the Middle Ages
    Posted: 12-Sep-2006 at 12:24

This is of course a subject that pops up quite often on AE, and I'm not quite sure if there was a dedicated topic to it. Even if there is, I don't think it's been beaten to death for a while. Anyway, there seems to be a general impression out there, particularly among muslim, chinese and indian members, that Europe was for a long time a backwards region compared to their own civilizations. The period for which this assertion is held to be true for the most part is the Middle Ages. For a while, even I shared to some extent this opinion. Recently though, having visited an absolutely magnificent example of a mid-13th century cathedral (the Sainte Chapelle of Louis IX of France), I have started to have a new appreciation of the sophistication of Medieval Europe and decided to give the matter of their supposed inferiority some more consideration. I have come to realize that this is a very complex issue, and that some questions need to be examined before an answer is given.

1. What period are we exactly talking about? While I have seen members asserting that Han China was more advanced than Rome for example, the general opinion seems to indicate that the Roman Empire was at least on par, if not more advanced than the rest of the world. Europe is asserted to be "inferior" after the fall of the Western Roman Empire in 476 and before a period which I've seen dated from 1453 (fall of Constantinople) to as late as 1648. Let's agree to look at the period 476-1453, for convenience. But then we run into further "issues": in Eastern Europe, the Byzantine empire was an uninterrupted civilized presence for all of this period. In Western Europe, the Ostrogoth, Frank and Visigoth kingdoms were strong continuators of Roman traditions, institutions and culture and Western Europeans did not actually become less civilized after 476. The decline in trade and culture only occured after the Arab invasions of the Middle East in the 7th century which blocked off trade routes. By the 12th century, Western Europe had become strong enough militarily to establish and maintain what were in effect overseas colonies taken from an advanced civilization in Palestine, and to conquer one of the greatest cities in the world: Constantinople in 1204. Culturally, I invite anyone to do some research in the age of cathedrals in the 12th and 13th centuries, especially the Sainte Chapelle, and still assert that somehow this was not a culturally rich society. So anyway, this would restrict the actual period of "inferiority" to the 8th to the 11th centuries.

2. What exactly is "Europe" during the Middle Ages? If we look at the geographical boundaries of Europe as defined nowadays, they would include large areas which were quite advanced during this period, most notably the Roman (Byzantine) Empire, and muslim Spain, which were both easily the equal of any civilization in the world during their heyday. Detractors of Europe would say that these 2 regions belonged to different civilizations or cultural spheres, which opens up a lot of ambiguity. Did Spain gradually and piecemeal became a part of Europe as the Reconquista engulfed more and more petty muslim kingdoms? Was Constantinople only properly a part of Europe during the period of 1204-1261, when it was ruled by latins? Were the Levantine coast and Palestine European during the time of the Crusades? It seems to me that we need to define what "Europe" meant during that time. Traditional historians have drawn a distinction on religious terms between Western Europe and Eastern Europe: not being Catholic, the regions occupied or influenced by the Eastern Orthodox Church were somehow not quite European. But then agian, should southern France be excluded from Europe in the 12th century because it was Cathar? What about the pagans in Northern Europe? If we accept a definition of Europe as areas where Christianity under all its forms was dominant, we run into the opposite problem: Anatolia for example while not part of Europe today, was decidedly "European" up to the battle of Manzikert.

I propose therefore the following definition of Europe: those regions which are part of geographical Europe as defined nowadays, and where a majority of people were either christian or pagan. This will exclude Muslim Spain as part of Europe for long stretches of time, but is inclusive of the Byzantine empire.

3. What does it mean to be "superior" or "inferior", or more or less "advanced"? Are we talking about technology? Economic power? Cultural achievements? Military power? I suppose we need to talk about all of them, and I could write a book examining each aspect, which I just don't have the time to do, but I'm inviting a discussion.

One thing I would like to note here though, is the question of values. Europe during this time was dominated by faith. To people living during that period, such issues as say secular learning and artistic achievements were not very important. To pass judgement on such a society and say that it is inferior would be akin to saying that no one should ever become a priest or a monk, but they should be engineers instead: it is a subjective call which is based on one's own values.

Anyway, what do people think?

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  Quote Maharbbal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Sep-2006 at 21:04
I think you'd like the Sainte Chapelle even more if you knew the tricky political role it played for five centuries but that is another problem.

First and foremost bravo for this great post.

Then it doesn't make much sense to talk as some do of "Europe" or the "muslim world". At the peak of islam even when Europe was in its darkest age, who would assume some places in Europe wheren't more advanced than some places in the Muslim World. So the question is actually 1) considering the most advanced places of each region which of them was backward and which was not; 2) On average, which one was the most advanced.

Most defently Europe got through very dark ages from the 4th century to the 12th. But of course some were brighter than others. And lest keep an historic mind, things were changing very fast. If you consider France, well Gaul, in the midddle of the 6th c. the Southern part of the "country" was some kind of barbaric recreation of the Roman times. Gold currency and skilled administration were used. This all existed thanks to the trade with the Byzantin world. 200 years latter, as Charles Martel was fighting the Arabs in Poitiers nothing of this reamained. Yet the grand son of Charles Martel, Charlemagne was to be the cause of what can be defined as a true Renaissance.  So things go up and down.

Some place as Venice, Amalfi, Pisa, Genoa or Bruge were after the 10th c. to be compared in their delicious qualities with Byzance, Cordoba and Bagdad. Here one thing has to be said: the size of a town has nothing (very little) to do with its importance. Big towns are usually only the direct result of a centralized and powerful state which can be a good or a bad thing. People saying Cordoba was more important than Amalfi around 1000 should wonder if they would say that nowadays Mexico City is more important than NY because it is more populated.

But here I am playing the part of the devil's advocate. Europe, also it had marvelous exception, at least until the 12th c. and most likely as far as the 15th was totally late compared to the rest of the world (I will only deal with the Muslim world as I'm not informed about the rest). Here are some little stories to prove my point.
All over the Western Mediterranean muslim pirates were comitting the worst actions against the population: the various Christian lords (except the Basileus of course) didn't have one single boat to oppose them before the 950's. It took over a century for the Southern France lord to re-take a small castle near Saint Tropez hold by muslim pirates who were raiding the lands as far as Saint Gall in Switzerland. Meanwhile Fatamids, Spanish Ommeyads and Byzantines were having massive naval battles near Sicily.
This advance of the 'Orientals' was not only military, it was scientific as well. At one point during the cruzades a muslim doctor is terrorized when he sees how frank physician try to cure headaches... with massive hammer strikes. Not mentionning the fact the muslims were far better sailors and generally more skilled for whatever didn't required a sword. Ultimately the error of the Muslims was to let to the Italian the monopoly of trade with Europe. Little mistake massive consequences.

So to answer shortly: in my views, Europe was not always as backward and underdeveloped as some like to say. Yet Byzance and the Muslim world were way ahead, Europe was third world.
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  Quote konstantinius Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Sep-2006 at 21:18
I like this topic and I'm going to add my 2 cents' worth, though I'm afraid that it's going to generate a lot of ethnic back-hand slapping on the forum.


1. We are roughly talking about a large chronological period, roughly 480 AD-1500 AD. This period is subdivided further into Early Middle Ages, 480 AD-950 AD; High Middle Ages, 950 AD- 1280 AD; and Late Middle Ages, 1280 AD-1500 AD. Keep in mind that these dates are flexible, are being revised by scholars, and anyway are not written in stone.

2. During this period, Europe was not a homogenous culture. Under feudalism the power of the locality was developed and expressed through certain economic relations relating to ownership of land and exchange of military service. Feudalism varied throughout the continent and occured differently in France, England, Spain, and Germany each of which constitutes a separate entity within the wider context of the continent. To these we should add the Eastern Roman Empire and the powers of the Muslim world peripheral to Europe; the Abbasid and Ummayad Caliphates, Ayyubids and Mameluks in Egypt, Seljuks, and of course the Mongols. Though these cultures fall geographically outside the confines of Europe per se, their interactions and influence have to be studied and recorded as well.
The Early Middle Ages  are also generally known as the Dark Ages, though recently the level of the aforementioned "darkness" has come into question by scholars thanks to a better understanding of the Vikings as well as archaeological finds in Ireland, Denmark, and Scotland. Generally speaking, though, there was a regression in everything, cities shrunk or altogether dissapeared, agricultural production plummeted, trade decreased throughout, and previous Roman knowledge was lost or forgotten. We cannot possibly overstate the role that the Raids played in this regression as for over 200 years Vikings, Slavs, and Arabs ravaged the continent leaving little room for stability and achievement.
Mentally and spiritually this was an era of devout religiousness mixed with superstition and agony about the upcoming End since everyone expected the second coming to happen in the Year 1000 AD. Intellectual creation did not altogether dissapeared as we thought before, but seems to have been largely confined to monasteries and other religious houses. There, the art of manuscript illumination produced masterpieces while outside the winds of darkness howled endlessly.
The Eastern Empire and the Arab world did not experience this kind of regression since they had become the depositories of all the ancient Greco-Roman knowledge and a simple sight of Constantinople or Baghdad would've utterly stupefied any W. European king or prince. Paris in the 800's had a population of a mere 4,000 while Constantinople neared 800,000 and Baghdad 1,000,000.
Things did not improve for Europe untill  or just after 1000  AD.  The raids ceased for one; this allowed for the land to return to regular tending and whatever crops were grown could be now kept and distributed, not pillaged or burned.  We don't know why or how, but around this time certain agricultural inovations appear, such as a different, stronger kind of hoe that could overturn the soil deeper and easier and the system of crop rotation which increased the yield of the land. Also the well-known Roman practice of the three-field system, where two fields are used at a time while allowing the third to lay fallow for a year, reappeared out of--seemingly--nowhere. Monastic houses expand and  there's a genuine demand for reform in the Church which will lay the intellectuall basis for what is known as the "12th Century Renaissance", a great re-awakening of the pursuit of knowledge. Roughly around this time the first re-intoductions of ancient texts into W. Europe seems to have been facilitated  by the increased contacts with the Arab world. This fact, in turn, leads to the effort for conciliation of Platonic thought and the teachings of the Church, an effort that produces such brilliant minds as Abelard in France and Thomas Beckett in England. Abelard is one of my favorite philosophers of all time; in the midst of 11th-century, cassock-dominated French society, he would pose querries like: "If we're made to the image of God and we're such terrible sinners does that mean God's imperfect?" No wonder that he, just like so many inquiring figures before and after him, was excommunicated.
This is the time of the "sansons de geste" in France, stories about love and heroism of which "The song of Roland" is the most well-known example . The sansons are considered to be the first folk literature  laying the foundations for the code of chivalry and even Chaucer's stories to follow much later.
This is also the beginning of the great cathedral-building, though this will not really take off untill the 1160's. Medievel Europeans outdid the Romans in one think, the invention of the vaulted arch which due to its increased support can bear much greater loads than the simple Roman arch. Without the vaulted arch the cathedrals would not have been possible.
The later M. Ages are a story of decline of the nation-state and the Papacy, stagnant economies, war, and pestilence. The years 1300- 1450 seem like a bloody path cut through by men-at-arms wielding their terrible long-pole weapons. Because I don't find them "exciting" enough--the 100 Years's War notwithstanding-- I haven't read much about them and my knowledge dwindles post-1280 AD.
Throughout this time line, the Eastern Empire is running her own course: Heraclious years, Iconoclasm, weak Emperors, the Macedonians, the Komnenoi and increased feudalism and ties with the West, the infamy of 1204, Nicaean Empire, the Lascaris family, the disastrous civil war of the Kantakouzeni, well-meaning but impotent Palaeologi, the Fall.

3.Heh, and now for the "Big Bang": let me state my assertion, supported by History. Since civilization appeared 8000-4500 BC the cradle of power has been shifting Westards. From the Fertile Crescent, to the Greeks, to the Romans, and eventually to W. Europe which will come out as a world power at the end of the period we're discussing during the era of maritime  exploration and colonization.  If we add N. America to  this lineage, the line continunes  down to our days. 
I am NOT asserting that India, the Arab world, and China lack in world contribution or that empire-building and colonization by Europeans was a good and holly thing. But there's a definite edge with the Europeans both technologically and militarily. Why was that? Geography or the climate do not provide sufficient explanation on their own. We have to look at the cultures and the mindset they produced. The West, my friends, has produced the independent, free-thinking mind and all the accoutrements that come with it: the desire to better one's own that has lead to competition and open markets, trade, inventions and entrepreneurial spirit. The ability for and encouragement of ABSTRACT THOUGHT, research for the sake of research, things that in turn lead to more inventions and breakthroughs. Militarily it has produced people that go into the slaughter out of their own free will, not because of coercion or conscription. What this means becomes obvious in a scenario like Marathon where free Athenian citizens went up against slave-like Persian levies. An Athenian could turn around and go home, surely to be given hell  or even become ostracized by his fellow citizens, but the CHOICE was still there. What would've happened to a Persian or a tributary levy who dared to defy the Great King?
During the middle ages independent landowners quickly gave way and by 1000 AD most previously independent small-holders had been reduced to serfdom. But even in serfdom certain rights were quarantedd, i.e. the lord could not separate the serfs from the land, or brake up serf families. In Germany, the earlier tradition of the comitatus was never abolished and serfdom was not as widespread as in the rest of Europe. As soon as Europe emerged from the lethargy of the Dark Ages, social mobility, both upwards and downwards, regained its dynamic and soon a new class was going to change the face of the continent forever. It wouldn't be an exageration to say that the modern bourgeouis has his roots in the medievel European serf.


Edited by konstantinius - 12-Sep-2006 at 21:23
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 04:18
I don't have much to add to that, but it's maybe worth pointing out that the reason the Dark Ages were originally called 'Dark' is not anything to do with the conditions of the times directly, but simply that we didn't know very much about them.
 
So the more we learn about them, the less 'dark' they get.
 


Edited by gcle2003 - 13-Sep-2006 at 04:19
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 06:32
Originally posted by gcle2003

I don't have much to add to that, but it's maybe worth pointing out that the reason the Dark Ages were originally called 'Dark' is not anything to do with the conditions of the times directly, but simply that we didn't know very much about them.
 
So the more we learn about them, the less 'dark' they get.
One of the seldom occasions I agree with you Tongue
 
In a way the phenomenon described here is the similar with the one happening between neighbours, each one promoting his own version of the tale (history, that is) in a form convenient for himself.
 
 
Originally posted by konstantinius

Generally speaking, though, there was a regression in everything, cities shrunk or altogether dissapeared, agricultural production plummeted, trade decreased throughout, and previous Roman knowledge was lost or forgotten.
Talking of recent scholarship, there are small periods (and for relatively not very vast areas) where a regression is absolute.
Cities shrunk from the late Antiquity, the invasions were relatively localized (for Western Europe - the areas devastated by Vikings where the northern Shores and the lower courses of the larger rivers, the areas devastated by Saracenes was in the Southern Gaul), agricultural production was even growing (check the Merovingian Gaul for a nice example) and new innovations made way for the later demographical boom, the trade decayed on the Roman routes, but in other parts of the Europe trade routes just started to consolidate the new kingdoms. Take the trade routes over the Channel between Merovingians and Brittish kings, for instance.
 
Mentally and spiritually this was an era of devout religiousness mixed with superstition and agony about the upcoming End since everyone expected the second coming to happen in the Year 1000 AD.
Not true. One, the Christianization was a shallow mark on the masses which "mentally and spiritually" were rather pagan. Two, except for some clerics and perhaps a hand of aristocrats influenced by them, the others couldn't care less for year 1000 or 1030-33. And that if they knew what year they lived in LOL
 
We don't know why or how, but around this time certain agricultural inovations appear, such as a different, stronger kind of hoe that could overturn the soil deeper and easier and the system of crop rotation which increased the yield of the land. Also the well-known Roman practice of the three-field system, where two fields are used at a time while allowing the third to lay fallow for a year, reappeared out of--seemingly--nowhere.
The crop rotation was practiced by Merovingians, five centuries before your account for it. The three years rotating crops are practiced in Medieval Europe since 8th century if I'm not mistaken.
 
Roughly around this time the first re-intoductions of ancient texts into W.
Let's keep in mind that a corpus of ancient texts was always known to Western Europe.
 
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  Quote Reginmund Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 07:56
Amen, konstantinius. One could even say the fall of western Rome was beneficial, for who knows what other directions Europe might have developed in if the conditions were changed.

Edited by Reginmund - 13-Sep-2006 at 07:56
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  Quote Dream208 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 09:32

Population size does mean something before the industrialization. The emergence of large cities represented advancement of many perspectives - production, governance, economy, and society.

I doubt there were any Western cities, except Constantinople whoes "Westerness" soemtimes came into question, comparable to Chinese metropolis during the so call Darkage. A little example here, the average annual iron production during Northern Song more than twice of entire Europe combine (I must admmit I don't have source in my hand currently, they are all dust in my old home). I don't think liviving quality from both side were in the same level neither. If anyone interested in evidence, they could compare record about live in Chang'an during Tang with the live in Paris during the same period.
 
Also, I think you overlooked many historical backgrouds when you claimed that Europe is more advance in philosophy and military in general. Since I believed most of us do not want to restart another Han vs Rome thread, then let's talk about military and philosophy influence between Europe and China after the fall of Han and Rome. 
  
To use an extreme example, I highly doubt European army from the first crusade has any technological and structural superiority compared to comtemproray Liao, Xia, Jin and Song. And I also highly dobut the general education level in Europe at that time was in any place near to the educational level in China mainland. I also doubt the on-court and off-court philosophical debats were widely spread in Europe under the tight control of the Catholic church. 
 
The number of historical studies about the dark age are indeed increasing. And the dark age was also not as bad as many previously perceived. But if one tried to assert that the life quality in Europe during that thousand year period was comparable to East Asia, I alone with many other scholars would seriously question that.
 
I do not know whether the collapse of W.Roman empire did become a benefite to Europe in the long run. But I do believe the legacy of unification left by Han had brought China (or East Asia in general) numerous age of prosperity till this day. Do not let the mere history of past 200 years blind you from the larger picture. The world is still live under the shadow of Han and Rome, and their influences could not be undermined.
 
 
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 10:14
A little example here, the average annual iron production during Northern Song more than twice of entire Europe combine (I must admmit I don't have source in my hand currently, they are all dust in my old home).
Northern Song means 10-12th centuries. According to Jean Gimpel, Richard I (late 12th century) ordered tens of thousands of iron horseshoes for his crusade (an order means a relatively fast execution). Later, in the second half of the 14th century at Calais we find hundreds of thousands of nails. The Western European weapons and armors since the Merovingian age required iron (and that requirement growed after 10th century, especially in armors, as more powerful pierceing weapons were created). To have a perspective on the usage of iron can be misleading - the peasantry uses little iron in their tools, while we find buildings with walls strenghtened with iron, sometimes that being harmful to the building, therefore a waste.
I don't have an evidence for iron economy for the entire Europe, nor entire Northern Song China, so I wonder what is the actual argument in this comparision.
 
I also doubt the on-court and off-court philosophical debats were widely spread in Europe under the tight control of the Catholic church. 
Well, start reading Medieval philosophy and literature and eliminate your doubts :)
 
But if one tried to assert that the life quality in Europe during that thousand year period was comparable to East Asia, I alone with many other scholars would seriously question that.
Quality of life, maybe not. But many other things were extraordinarily developed in this period and they were probably discussed in many threads of these forums, and this thread intended to emphasize that.
 
Do not let the mere history of past 200 years blind you from the larger picture.
 The Western culture manifests with a relative continuity before 19th century. Monteverdi composed in 17th century, Bosch painted in late 15- early 16th centuries, Abelard wrote in 11th century. Do not minimize a civilization you don't understand.
 
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  Quote Reginmund Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 10:20
Originally posted by Dream208

To use an extreme example, I highly doubt European army from the first crusade has any technological and structural superiority compared to comtemproray Liao, Xia, Jin and Song. And I also highly dobut the general education level in Europe at that time was in any place near to the educational level in China mainland. I also doubt the on-court and off-court philosophical debats were widely spread in Europe under the tight control of the Catholic church.


You might be right, in fact I think it would be interesting to do a comparative study on this. But, when you say "I highly doubt" it strikes me as if you're saying you don't really know much about this period in Europe and that you're just making guesses based on a vague notion of what Europe was like in the middle ages. If I'm wrong, then could you explain why you "highly doubt" these things? That's the interesting part.
 
Originally posted by Dream208

The number of historical studies about the dark age are indeed increasing. And the dark age was also not as bad as many previously perceived. But if one tried to assert that the life quality in Europe during that thousand year period was comparable to East Asia, I alone with many other scholars would seriously question that.


Are there any studies on this? For the average person, was life in medieval Europe worse than life in eastern Asia in the same period? One would be inclined to answer yes, as the level of civilization achieved by China since early days is praised by most historians, but did this really benefit the vast majority of the population and give them a quality of living higher than that of peasants in Europe?
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  Quote Dream208 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 13:24
My European history is mainly from my Europe I&II, Crusades, and Medieval Innovation, Roman Empire, and High Antiquity classes. My alma mater is Rutgers - New Brunswick.
 
I used the word "highly doubted" because I am back in Taipei for vacation, and all my notes and books are currently in the United States. I can't give you the source of my statement, thus I used the word "highly doubt".
 
If I claimed that the Ming dynasty "female poets" alone had the number greater than entire European composer combine, you probably won't believe me.
 
If I said during Tang dynasty, there were more than 10 Chinese cities exceeded the population of 100,000, you might fawn at my claims. 
 
I highly doubt any of you understand the scale and depth of Chinese civil service examination, but I do not have any hard number available for me right now (nor I have time when facing works and GRE). 
 
From my fuzzy memories, I do not record any European commoner during the Dark Age had regular debates with Prime-Ministers and Emperors themselves on court about the foreign relationship and agricultural reforms.
 
I do not know during the darkage any European country had a demand for a book so high that the great cities like Louyang became short of paper.
 
I do not record any massacre of Jews, expect during the invasion of Mongles, when thousands of them dewelled in nearly every costal cities of China.
 
I do not have hard figure to show how many scholars had entered civil service examination every year, but I do know they came every single Chinese provinces. Even towns near the mountain at Yunan had its quotas.
 
I do not have the record which would tell you that during Northern Song, commoners and peasants love to drink tea and collect antiques.
 
I do not have the record with me which wold tell you when Chinese charge into fields they do not shout "kill the infidels and their babies". I see no Jerusalm massacre during Tang and Song and perhaps Ming.
 
 
In short, I do not have any hard data in my hand to convince you about the life in East-Asia when Europe was in Dark Age. But I do know there are several historical records from Jews and Muslims about their travel to China and Europe. But their records might be bias as well, because I don't think they have any blood debts with Chinese dynasties.


Edited by Dream208 - 13-Sep-2006 at 13:29
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 13:39

It's futile to summarize the entire European history of two millenia in some paragraphs to persuade you. If you don't have the data or the knowledge, then please do your readings first and we'll talk after. I challenged you on the iron issue, I received no answer. I'm talking about refined culture, you're talking about numbers Clap. On the debates now you start talking about commoners, after next reply you'll talk about a man whose first name started with X and had red underwears, and so on ad nauseam and ad absurdum to prove a mythical nationalistic superiority.

I don't have neither the time nor the mood to answer or explain to each of your shortages. However, just keep in mind that the world you (not you personally, Far East countries generally) yearned so much to be part of had a strong Western (European) print. You have a lifetime (if you want) to discover how, why, when, where what you see today was created and evolved. If you prefer to think you were godly beings on Earth while Europeans were scum, you are free to. It's your narrowmindedness, not anyone else's loss.
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  Quote Decebal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 14:09

What a lot of people don't seem to realize is that the term "dark ages" was not initially coined to describe a certain time of Europe's history because things were indeed so bad for the population, nor was the term meant to indicate the general lack of knowledge about that period (though it is true that we know less about that period than others). The term was coined by some Enlightenment scholars who meant it as a protest since they were intensely anti-ecclesiastic, and the Church had dominated Europe during the Middle Ages.

If we take the comparison with China, let's examine some of the claims made. True, China had several large population centers, but that's because there was a large centralized state present. In Europe by contrast, most of the land was controlled by small competing feudal states, and so towns were small. This was of course the case where there weren't large centralized states, such as for Constantinople and Thessaloniki in the Byzantine Empire, like , as well as in Spain- Cordoba and Granada.  These cities were comparable to Chinese cities in population and wealth. The overall population of Europe was about 45 million in the year 1000 (see link below).

http://www.ggdc.nl/maddison/China_book/Chap_1_tables/Table1.8.pdf#search=%22population%20Europe%201000%22

I recall that the population of T'ang China was about 50-60 million and went down to as low as 15-25 million after the An Lu Shan rebellion. I don't see China as having a large demographic edge. 

As for the high level of education required for the Confucian entry-levl examinations in the Chinese civil public service, we should not look for an equivalent in the European civil servants. The most educated people in Europe were monks and priests, due to the high regard in which religion was held. These were men who often spent their entire lives reading and copying manuscripts and thus were the intellectual elite in Europe comparable with the bureaucrats which were the intellectual elite in China. I doubt that the Chinese literacy rate was indeed higher among the common populace.

I believe that the low opinion of religion which 19th and early 20th century scholars had of religion has contributed a lot to the image of ignorance and barbarity which medieval Europe has. Things were probably not as bad as most of them believed. The one area where I'm inclined to acquiesce a definite edge to China is technology. But even there, I attribute this to the low prestige which such secular concerns had in a society where the intellectual elite was so religious. Can we really blame medieval European intellectuals for being more concerned with spiritual matters than technology? In our age this is difficult to accept and understand; but that is largely because we take the opposite view and we place a lot of emphasis on technological rather than spiritual matters.

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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 14:19
I believe "Dark Age" as a term was born in Rensaissance as the artists who cherished the greatness of Graeco-Roman culture despised the earlier medieval one. However, only during the Enlightenment the term received a clear anti-religious conotation as you said.
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  Quote Dream208 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 14:25
Chilbudios
 
I think I already mentioned where I received my University education, and I wonder why you still think I read no European history at all.
 
I stated here again, I used the word "highly doubt" and "do not know" becuase I do not have my notes and books with me to back up my claims with numbers. I can't recite all I learned in the past 5 years from my mind. And I also used "do not know" here in a sarcastic way, though this is a Chinese writting style.
 
Originally, I do not even want to post in this thread seeing you and konstantinius making claims that western civilization was more influencial than any other civilization in the world. In my heart, I hate those "best" or "worst" generalization and comparison. Pompus nationalism is one of the ugliest and dangerous thing in the world, and that's what I learned from both China and America.
 
But the reason why I challenged you two here is not because I want to announce to the world Chinese sumpreme. Believe me, I know more dark sides of Chinese history and comtemporary mainland than what you might think previously. I challenge you two because you are using fainting lights of the Dark age as the evidences of European superiority. And I used few examples right out from my head just to remind you about the picture of East Asia before the past two hunderd years.
 
I used cities and population as the example of agricultural advancement.
I used civil service examination and local quoatas as the example of widespread of education.
I used demand of books as the example of burgeon of litureature
I used court debates as the example of social equality and intellectual competitons
I used female poet numbers as both educational level and gender relationship
I used tea and antiques as the example of wealth of normal populations
I used Jewish dewellment as the example of religious and ethnical tolerance, and also international influence
I used soldiers and massacres as the example of nature of warfare and foreign relationship
 
I am working and preparing for an graduate school examination, and that's why do not bother to search for internet datas. But since you brought this up -
 

Accompanying this was the beginnings of what one might term the Chinese industrial revolution. For example the historian Robert Hartwell has estimated that per capita iron output rose sixfold between 806 and 1078 (AD), such that, by 1078 China was producing 125,000 tons of iron per year, a per capita consumption of roughly 1.5 kg of iron per year (compared to 0.5 kg in europe). This iron was used to mass produce ploughs, hammers, needles, pins, cymbals among other routine items for an indigenous mass market and for trade with the outside world, which also expanded greatly at this point. Concurrently the Chinese invented or developed gunpowder, the cannon, the flamethrower (as did the Byzantines with Greek fire), and printing technology which increased literacy with the mass production of printed materials. This meant that parents could encourage sons to learn to read and write and therefore be able to take the civil service exams (科舉) and become part of the learned growing bureaucracy. As a result of these innovations (and the concurrent agricultural revolution) China boasted some of the largest cities of the world at this time. For example it has been estimated that Hangzhou (杭州) had roughly 500,000 inhabitants at this point: far larger than any European city - in western Europe by 1200, only Paris and Venice had a population of over 100,000, though Constantinople had 300,000.

Second to the most common estimates, the GDP per capita income with purchasing power parity under the Sg Dynasty was estimated to be over $600 in 1990 international dollars. Western Europe had a per capita income of roughly $550 by 1000 AD, significantly smaller. Western Europe started to become slightly wealthier in per capita income than a slowly declining China after 1300 AD. By the 16th century, Europe's per capita income was vastly superior.

 
I don't like to use wiki, but your reply does not make me feel I should respect your posts.  If you want to know about Chinese economy, please go to East-Asian section; I believed there are more knowledgable scholars ready to answer you.
 
Lastly, I recognized the achievement of China during the past, but I do not claim Chinese is the most superior race/civilization in the entire world. As I mentioned above, there are  many darksides and problems in China past or present.
 
But you sir, on the other hand, had claimed western supremacy and turned blind eye to the vast non-western influences both past and present around the globe. Your eurocentric view (which is a term I rarely used) has blinded you and kept your ignorant from others history.


Edited by Dream208 - 13-Sep-2006 at 14:32
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  Quote Reginmund Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 14:27
No, Chilbudios, that was the "medieval", or "middle" age, medio aevum, the age in between Graeco-Roman antiquity and the Italian Renaissance.

Dream208, I think your "I do not"-thread proved your point well. If what you say is beyond reasonable doubt then I must agree with you that eastern Asia was indeed more sophisticated than Europe in this period, to the point of completely outclassing it. Sadly I don't know enough about Chinese history to form much of an opinion of my own, though I've been meaning to get into it eventually, as it is a civilization that has had quite an impact on the history of this planet. If Chinese history is a strong field of yours, I'd appreciate it if you could direct me to some good introductionary works. Send me a PM with a few suggestions if you can be bothered.


Edited by Reginmund - 13-Sep-2006 at 14:39
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  Quote Decebal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 14:33
Originally posted by Dream208

Chilbudios
 
Second to the most common estimates, the GDP per capita income with purchasing power parity under the Sg Dynasty was estimated to be over $600 in 1990 international dollars. Western Europe had a per capita income of roughly $550 by 1000 AD, significantly smaller. Western Europe started to become slightly wealthier in per capita income than a slowly declining China after 1300 AD. By the 16th century, Europe's per capita income was vastly superior.
 
I don't know, maybe it's just me, but does the comparison of "over $600" to $550 really warrant the epithet of significantly smaller, when we're talking about a vast period and vast regions 1000 years ago, about which we can only really make educated guesses? And what about Eastern Europe, in particular Byzantium? How does that income compare to those above?
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  Quote Dream208 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 14:37
Decebal
 
Last post before I sleep (nearly 3 am here...). From what I've been taught in school, they measure GDP or income in the past by purchase power. Usually something like how much rice could an average farmer's wage purchase, and what is the total tax compare to total production.
 
But I could be wrong... as I mentioned above, I recite everything from my head -_______-lll
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  Quote Maharbbal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 15:09
YES! Chickfight!

@ Dream 208: I don't know what kind of books you've been reading but here some food for your thoughts: have you ever seen in medieval China big troops of beef or horses? No? Well then guess who was laboring instead of them and also guess what kind of proteine peasant were having at every meal. No meat.

Let me be highly doubious about the peasants and the lords enjoying teatime on a daily base. Considering Europe, well be ready to revise all you may have seen before as hard evidence: commoners though often in a state close to slavery sometimes managed to reach the highest place namely pope for instance.

Besides, I do belive the Chinese never killed jews if you tell me so but let me doubt they were born pacifists. Just consider how spread the Ha ethnicity is nowadays and you'll find something odd to say the least.

Considering books well of course the demand wasn't as important but just look at one of them: they are so beautyful it is just obvious how valuable they were to their owners.

I could go on and on, underlining the fact that effectively poor, underdevelop and backwardish the European were curious and discovered more land in 300 years (1200-1491) than the Chinese in a thousand. But it would be pointless.

Europe was evidently late compared to China but it is useless to overrate this.

And once more a big city doesn't mean anything. Though easily ten times less numerous Venice and Genoa enslaved Constantinople for 400 years... Belive me number matters but is not enough.
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 15:54

Dream208,

I have not made claims of superiority. So you haven't challenged me, you put your claims here to be challenged by others. Most of your examples are not appropriate but, like I said, I won't detail on them. I detailed on few and we reached nowhere.
I don't need to read Eastern Asian topics as long as I'm not making wild claims. You, on the other hand, you should read more European history.
You give me your education and wiki. I give you:
 
Pierre Riche - Education et culture dans l'Occident barbare (VIe et VIIIe siecles)
Pierre Riche - L'Europe barbare de 476 a 774
Jeannine Quillet - Les clefs du pouvoir au Moyen Age
Jacques Le Goff - Pour un autre Moyen Age. Temps, travail et culture en Occident.
Jean Gimpel - Le revolution industrielle du Moyen Age.
Andre Scobeltzine - L'art feodal et son enfeu social.
Georges Duby - L'art et la societe, 980 - 1420 
Jurgis Baltrusaitis - Le moyen age fantastique.
Ioan Couliano - Eros et Magie a la Renaissance, 1484
Michel Pastoreau - Une histoire symbolique du Moyen Age occidental
 
...
 
I guess don't need to go on (if you want more French titles, but also English, Italian or German titles or even Romanian ones Tongue let me know).


Edited by Chilbudios - 13-Sep-2006 at 16:00
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  Quote konstantinius Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Sep-2006 at 20:18
My oppinion is that in the years 400-900 AD China was far more developed than W. Europe. A quick comparison should be enough, please not dot deny historical facts in favor of localisms:
A) Central goverment
It took the monarchies of Europe hundreds to years to solidify (England is an exemption as the Normans inherited the well-developed administration of the Anglo-Saxons and Alfred the Great). The Crown in France did not consolidate its power untill Phillip Augustus in the 1200's. Spain is fighting each other and the Moors; Ferdinand and Isabella in the 1500's are nowhere in the picture yet. In Germany, Frederick Barbarossa had been the strongest emperor; From that point on Germany will enter a period of increased fragmentation that will only end the 1860's with Bismarck. Italy is already a country of city-states. In the east, the kingdom of Hungary will not enter the Middle Ages proper untill the 1200's.
In China we have a large standing, professional army with ranks and files, officers, insignia and uniforms, drill practice, etc. At the same time when a force of 600 cavalry and 1500 foot was considered large even by Charlemagne's standards, China could field armies of hundreds of thousands. There's simply no point of comparison.
B) Civic administration/bureucracy. Europe is in its infantile stage, the power lying with the local lords who are at the same time judge and jury. In China of the time there's an elaborate civic administration with departments for different affairs each employing hundreds. There are schools for civic servants maintained and paid by the Emperor. There is also an elaborate court ceremonial in the Forbidden City when at the same time the kings of Europe travel from court to court on horseback (no one particular location being able to support the king and his entourage for too long of a time).
C)Centralized taxation. One of the same. Even money itself (bullion) was rare and most taxes werepaid in kind again to the locallord orthe monastery. In China they're pulling in enough to be able to run all of the above.
    All this having been said, I stick to my point of the previous post about the make-up of the Western mind: the hairy, unwashed, drunk barbarians will rise above at the end EXACTLY because they have no manners, they don't take their shoes off at the door, or bow politely, or keep their feelings to themselves. Instead they'll shout and fight (even each other), shoot their big guns for no reason at all, and will completely run you over upon encountering you, take your house,  and demand that you give them your daughter in marriage! BECAUSE IT'S THEIR GOD-DAMNED RIGHT TO DO SO!          
" I do disagree with what you say but I'll defend to my death your right to do so."
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