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Topic ClosedAncient & modern Greeks

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Poll Question: Do you believe that modern Greeks are descedants of ancient Greeks?
Poll Choice Votes Poll Statistics
14 [50.00%]
10 [35.71%]
4 [14.29%]
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Jeru View Drop Down
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Direct Link To This Post Topic: Ancient & modern Greeks
    Posted: 09-Sep-2006 at 15:15
That would be the nationalists and not all Turks,every nation has it's own nationalistsWink
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 09-Sep-2006 at 16:26
Jeru you seem to be right but...
Turkish Ministry of Culture , an example:
 
Look how affectedly they don't refair a little bit to  the Greek creators of Byzantion.
How easily the say that the suffix -ion is PhrygianSmile(Aigon, Argostolion etc)
Byzant made by them a anatolian word and not the name of the Megarian Byzas
The Phrygian and the Aegean migrations( A lot of fantasy)
 
They name the Greek colonisation Aegean(in other sites is supported that the "aegeans were turks ... so all the aegean island and coasts are turkish of course)
 
They cut the word "greek" and they say that the phrase "eis tin polin" is byzantine and not byzantine greek.
 
I didn't searched a lot, I bet that there are many other examples of such propagandism in this site.
It's better to return to our subject
 
 
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 09-Sep-2006 at 18:04
patrinos very nice finding.Read and the Troy.The thinks are more worstWink
 
In your thread now.

The Greeks, least of all peoples, deserve the fate to which the several modern scholars have subjected them. The great historian Italian Jew Arnaldo Momigliano observed that

what I think is typically Greek is the critical attitude toward the recording of events, that is, the development of critical methods enabling us to distinguish between facts and fancies.
To the best of my knowledge no historiography earlier than the Greek or independent of it developed these critical methods; and we have inherited the Greek methods
 
Ancient, Medieval or Modern Greeks are the same.
All the above contained in two words.
Descent and Consciouesness. Both should coexists in the formation of a nation.
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 09-Sep-2006 at 19:31
See some turkish opinions to strengthen the Greek-Turkish friendship.Clap(http://goturkey.kulturturizm.gov.tr/BelgeGoster.aspx?17A16AE30572D313A79D6F5E6C1B43FF93B4E8437B69D60E)
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 10-Sep-2006 at 07:50
Originally posted by Patrinos

See some turkish opinions to strengthen the Greek-Turkish friendship.Clap(http://goturkey.kulturturizm.gov.tr/BelgeGoster.aspx?17A16AE30572D313A79D6F5E6C1B43FF93B4E8437B69D60E)
Patrinos let's focus in your thread.I know what the Turks beleived.
 

As I have mention the palaeathnropology is a science that corporate with the archaelogy .I present some sources that prooved the connection between ancient and Modern Greeks.Of course all are published in the academaic community.

 
Nikolaos Xirotiris more recently, surveyed Greek skeletal material and a number of genetical and anthropometrical studies on modern Greeks. His discoveries were that like in antiquity, the Greek terrain which favors isolation, has led to the formation of local types by micro-evolution. He too concludes racial continuity in Greece, not finding traces of any significant alteration of the Greek racial complex, from prehistory, through classical and medieval, to modern times.
[Xirotiris, N., 1979, Rassengeschichte von Griechenland. pp. 157-183. In Schwidetzky, I. (ed.), Rassengeschichte der Menschheit. Volume 6. R. Oldenbourg Verlag, Munich.]

The American anthropologist Roland Dixon studied the funeral masks of Spartans and found them to be Alpine [Dixon, R.B., 1923, The Racial History of Man, New York, London, C. Scribners Sons]

Italian anthropologist Raffaello Battaglia found the death masks of the Shaft Grave Mycenaeans to represent Dinaric physiognomies
 [Battaglia R., in Biasutti R., 1967, Le razze ei popoli della terra, UTET, Turin].
 
J. Lawrence Angel expressed similar opinions in that he believed that northern intruders in Greece were always of Dinaroid-Alpine central trend added to the earlier Mediterranean/Alpine blend. Racial elements were not separate but combined to produce Greek civilization
[Angel, J. Lawrence, 1946, Social Biology of Greek Culture Growth, American Anthropologist].
 
Finally, a more recent statistical comparison of ancient and modern Greek skulls resulted in the discovery of a remarkable similarity in craniofacial morphology between modern and ancient Greeks.
[Argyropoulos, E. et al., 1989, A comparative cephalometric investigation of the Greek craniofacial pattern through 4,000 years, Angle Orthod 1989 Fall;59(3):195-204]
 
The best summirized came from Dienekes Pontikos that  mention:
  1. Physical anthropology indicates racial continuity in Greece, with main Dinaric-Alpine-Mediterranean racial elements. Racial type of aristocrats, commoners and criminals is the same.
  2. Hellenic  literature furnishes evidence of brunet and fair individuals, as today, without ascribing any superiority to either type.
  3. Helleinic  art shows a predominance of brunet types, with a small minority of fair ones, rarely as fair as northern Europeans and with the same physique as their brunet counterparts.
  4. Hellenic descriptions of themselves and others indicate that they were intermediate in pigmentation to northern and southern barbarians, as they are today.


Edited by akritas - 10-Sep-2006 at 07:51
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 10-Sep-2006 at 11:10

The Fallmerayer Thesis in the Light of Genetic Evidence  by Dienekes

(http://www.answers.com/topic/jakob-philipp-fallmerayer)

Jacob Fallmerayer stirred quite a controversy in the 19th century by proposing that the Hellenic nation had perished in the Middle Ages by admixture with Slavs and Albanians.

We are now in a position, through genetic evidence to evaluate this thesis, at least with respect to the question of Slavic settlements.

Slavs are distinguished by having a specific Y-chromosome haplogroup R1a, or HG3, or Eu19. This reaches frequencies of higher than 50% in Poles and decreases significantly in non-Slavic populations. The "Macedonians" of FYROM, the Slavic population immediately to the north of Greece have frequencies of R1a of 35%.

We must warn that R1a itself is not a Slavic marker. This means that any particular R1a sequence could, or could not be of Slavic origin. But, a population that has mixed with Slavs is likely to show this in relatively high levels of R1a.

Ornella Semino published a study in Science 290: 1155 in which the levels of R1a (which she calls Eu19 are given in various populations. Greeks have 11.8%, that is about 1/6 that of the Hungarians, who top the list at 60%. The Hungarians are not Slavs, but from the genetic standpoint they could very well be of Slavic origin, converted linguistically by the Asiatic Magyars. The Poles at 56.4% are the highest Slavic population.

We must note that ancient Slavic groups at the time of the Slavic dispersals probably had even higher levels of R1a. After all, Poles and Hungarians are themselves only partly Slavic in origin, and the result of admixture of a predominantly Slavic element with indigenous pre-Slavic ones. As a result, it is likely that at the time of their migrations, the Slavs had even higher frequencies of R1a.

R1a did not originate with the Slavs (that is why it is not a Slavic marker). Its origins in a Eastern European refugium after the Last Glacial Maximum means that it has had plenty of time to spread across the continent even to places where Slavs were never present. For example, its frequency in Syrians at a frequency of 10%, close to that of Greece, in the Saami of Scandinavia at 10%, Turks at 6.6% and in Albanians in 9.8%. It is even found in the Dutch, at a frequency of 3.7%, a population that has been largely unaffected by any Slavonic incursion. Given that Greece is closer to the area where R1a probably originated, it is very likely that R1a lineages would have been part of early population elements of the Balkans.

Thus, we know that at least a part of 11.8% of R1a in Greeks is of pre-Slavic origin. We also know that the ancient Slavs had frequencies of it in excess of 50%. It's hard to quantify the exact percentages, but I will give an educated guess, that 5% of R1a lineages in Greece are of Slavic origin, while the ancient Slavs had it in frequency of 75%. The picture is not much different if we change these numbers, but they will do for now. As a result, the Slavonic influence in Greece turns out to be about 7%, an almost exact match for the figure given by Vasiliev in his History of the Byzantine Empire based on demographic considerations.

This figure might turn out to be less, or slightly more. Better resolution using markers distinguishing R1a chromosomes might provide us with additional information. But, the conclusion seems unavoidable, that the contribution of Slavs to the Greek gene pool (if any) is very limited, certainly not enough to extinguish the noble Hellenic nation as Fallmereyer had proposed.



Edited by Patrinos - 10-Sep-2006 at 11:17
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 10-Sep-2006 at 11:37
Thus, at present, in a total of seven studies( Rosser et al,Helgason et al,Malaspina et al,Semino et al,Weale et al,Di Giacomo et al,Bosch et al.,), in which 966 Greek males were tested, one HG16, one HG28, one HG10/HG36, and one haplogroup A chromosomes have been found, for a total of 0.4% possible non-Caucasoid contribution to the modern Greek male gene pool. Additionally, the latest studies [9, 10] with a more refined version of the Y chromosome phylogeny indicate that influences from the Near East and North Africa in historical times are unlikely (perhaps in the order of ~2%).
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Sep-2006 at 09:40

An analysis of 10 autosomal allele frequencies in Southern Europeans (including Greeks, Cretans and other islanders) and various Middle Eastern and North African populations revealed a "line of sharp genetic change [that] runs from Gibraltar to Lebanon," which has divided the Mediterranean into distinct northern and southern clusters since at least the Neolithic period. The authors conclude that "gene flow was more the exception than the rule," attributing this result to "a joint product of initial geographic isolation and successive cultural divergence, leading to the origin of cultural barriers to population admixture."

(Simoni et al., Hum Biol, 1999)
 
(We need someone who has an opposite opinion to rekindle the conversation)

 



Edited by Patrinos - 11-Sep-2006 at 09:44
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Sep-2006 at 13:37
I would expect those who vote "no" to rationalize your opinion.
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Sep-2006 at 14:37
Originally posted by Ey_Iran

I wanted to share some funny thing about the turks that arrived 800 years ago, they think that.
Ancient Sumeria was Turkish.
The culture of the ancient Greece and Anatolia is Turkish in origin.
The Etruscans of pre-Roman Italy were Turks.

 
Heh, it is an easy thing to generalize..."They think that"...Any reliable proofs except dumb approaches?
 
About Etruscans,though, there was some genealogy research going on AFAIK, and they found a link between the modern Turks and Etruscans..
 
It wouldn't be realistic to say it was in Turkish origin,but in genealogy, there had been some stuff found linking modern Turks and Etruscans and old Anatolian folks like the Hatti..Mainly because of mixing of the different races that took place in Anatolia 


Edited by Kapikulu - 11-Sep-2006 at 14:38
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we couldn't find neither;
we made up sorrows for ourselves;
we couldn't be consoled;

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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Sep-2006 at 14:40
Mainly, I have a question about Greeks...Didn't the Dorians come from the north and broke Achaean rule in Greece and settled down?
 
So, can we claim that today's Greeks are not "exactly" the same as Ancient Greeks adding to the Dorian arrival that different folks coming in and out in centuries in Roman/Byzantine era+Ottoman conquest, but of course has a strong connection?


Edited by Kapikulu - 11-Sep-2006 at 14:48
We gave up your happiness
Your hope would be enough;
we couldn't find neither;
we made up sorrows for ourselves;
we couldn't be consoled;

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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Sep-2006 at 14:46
Vlachs were Greek Tribes which SPOKE GREEK. LAter when Greece was Conquered from Romans their language influenced by latin. The mixture was either not Greek or lATIN. i CALLED IT SOME KING OF ANCIENT GREEK. Please geive a different name if you can. The Vlachs language it is not latin because it has many differences. One of them is that they use the article after the noun but the latins they use it before the noun.
Did you read any aticle of those who were suggested to you or only the propagandistic ones?
REGARDS ARBER Z
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Sep-2006 at 14:51
Originally posted by Kapikulu

Mainly, I have a question about Greeks...Didn't the Dorians come from the north and broke Achaean rule in Greece and settled down?
 

According Herodotus mother home of Dorians (Hylleis, Pamphyloi, and the Dymanes) during the Deucalion Kingdom were in the Pthiotis (middle Greece, close to Thessalia)  and during Doros Kingdom were in the Histiaiotis (Thessalia) region. When Cadmeians they turned out from there, Dorians it dwelt in Pindos and was called Makednian.

Thence moved afterwards to Dryopis (middle Greece)  and from Dryopis it came finally to Peloponnesus (displacing the native Achaeans), and began to be called Dorian.

Dorians was a tribe migrated from its place to other and  in any direction (Macedonia, Thessaly, Peloponnisos, Rhodos, Crete  e.t.c.).

Now if we accept Herodotus work, Mythology and finally the archaeological data, we found that Dorians never invaded outside to inside.

The Dorians originated from north, northwestern Greece ( Macedonia and Epirus). From these points they began to invade toward the south, into the center of mainland Greece, and then to the Peloponnesian, and the southern Aegean islands. Once their invasions of central Greece ceased, their descent to southern Greece produced waves of invasions through the Peloponnesus, into Crete, and westward to Rhodes. Dorian invasion in the Peloponnese is dated on the basis of the catalogues of the Spartan kings to 1148 B.C. or 1104 B.C. according to two different calculations, that little differ from the years 1125 B.C. or 1120 B.C. provided by archaeological data concerning the same event.

more in

http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=5730& ;PN=6

Originally posted by Kapikulu

 
So, can we claim that today's Greeks are not "exactly" the same as Ancient Greeks adding the different folks coming in and out in centuries in Roman/Byzantine era+Ottoman conquest, but of course has a strong connection?
 
 
 
I can't understand your second  question and the connection with the first oneConfused


Edited by akritas - 11-Sep-2006 at 14:55
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Sep-2006 at 14:54

i agree with you Akritas. According to new theory Dorieans at 1100bc they were reurnig from the north. Whe i say RETURNING i mean that they were living in GReece they go north and they return.

 

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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Sep-2006 at 15:01
Perikles the internal Dorian "invasion" has confirmed from the archaelogy long time ago. Is one that Hammond supported his conclusion as about the History of  Macedonia(Volume I). Of course there are a lot that never read his book and continue theirs arbitaries argyments!!
 
 
 
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Sep-2006 at 15:14
None of the Greeks historians and writers ever said that Dorians came from out of Greece.They called their cathode " the return of the Herakleideis" that means the sons of Hercules.(Alexanders dynasty claimed that their progenitor was Hercules).
Kapikulu I suprised with your  opinion.
It couldn't be logical to say that they were invanders because they simply spoke greek,in a dialectal form with some differences like these:
  1. Preservation of long ā (α) where Attic/Koinechange it to long open ē (η), as in γᾶ μάτηρ (gā mātēr) "earth mother" Attic/Koine γῆ μήτηρ (gē mētēr).
  2. Contraction ae > η (ē) instead of Attic/Koine (ā).
  3. Original eo, ea > ιο, ια (io, ia) in certain Doric dialects.
  4. Certain Doric dialects ("severe Doric") have η, ω (ē, ō) for the "spurious diphthongs" Attic/Koine ει, ου (ei, ou) (i.e. secondary long ē, ō due to contraction or compensatory lengthening. The most prominent examples are genitive singular in () = -ου (-ou), accusative plural in -ως (-ōs) = -ους (-ous) and the infinitive in -ην (-ēn) = -ειν (-ein).
  5. Short α (a) = Attic/Koine ε in certain words: ἱαρός (hiaros), Ἄρταμις ('*Artamis), γα (ga), αἰ (ai)

The doric dialect still survives in Tsakonian, Sarakatsanian and in South Italy. Doric influenced are the northen Greek dialects(Epirus,Macedonia)

 

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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Sep-2006 at 15:50
Originally posted by perikles

Vlachs were Greek Tribes which SPOKE GREEK. LAter when Greece was Conquered from Romans their language influenced by latin. The mixture was either not Greek or lATIN. i CALLED IT SOME KING OF ANCIENT GREEK. Please geive a different name if you can. The Vlachs language it is not latin because it has many differences. One of them is that they use the article after the noun but the latins they use it before the noun.
Did you read any aticle of those who were suggested to you or only the propagandistic ones?
REGARDS ARBER Z
 
You can never prove that the Vlach were greek tribes, this is not documentated. If they spoke some kind of greek, as you believed they still do, then Vlach would be full of greek words (not loans). Fortunately, the vlach language is studied by many scientists, go make your own research, if you are really interested on it (I really doubt that you have any interests on knowledge, except of telling to the world that you are right). Just for your info, the Vlach is a neo-latin language, and belongs to the same branch of IE languages as Portuguese, Spanish, Catalan, French, Occitan, Romansch, Italian, Neapolitan, Romanian, Sardee etc. The neo-latin languages, which are also called latin languages or Romance, all find their linguistic origin back to the Latin of ancient Rome. This branch of IE languages splits in two other branches, the western romance and the eastern romance. In the eastern romance belong the Romanian and its dialects, as well as the Vlach. According to many scientists the vlach is one of the languages which preserved better the old latin charachteristics, due to isolation in the mountains of southern albania & northern greece. 90% of the vlach language comes directly from the old latin, and most of the non-latin part is composed by charachteristics found only in Romanian and in Albanian. Most of the non latin words are similar in the three languages, while is the same regarding the phenomena of the suffixes and the articles, it is the same in romanian and in albanian. But while albanian is not a latin language, and it is not mutually comprehensible with the Vlach, Romanian is almost identic with the vlach, and certainly, perfectly comprehensible.
 
I have read the materials on the sites you provided, and I have read even more. Did you ever try to read something in Vlach and see if you can understand a word. LEave nationalism behind, and try to see the truth...
 
And to the clever who said that I hijacked the forum, read what the forum is about. The vlach that today are greek citizens are certainly part of the modern greek nation. Is up to you to decide if they are the descendants of the ancients. Well, even Sofokles Schortianitis is a part of the modern greek nation, but apparently the fans of Olympiakos do not see in him the real descendant of Perikles (not you, the classic one).
Regarding the arvanites, who are greek citizens and certainly a part of the modern greek nation,  I believe you know that they are not the descendants of the ancient greeks, as they are just albanians who settled there in the 11 - 15 century, and still speak their language. The same is about the "slavophones". You might want to call them slavicised greeks, but in the stadium, when Panathinaikos or Olimpiakos goes to Thessaloniki they yell to the PAOK, Iraklis or Aris fans and they call them Bulgars. And guess what do they reply??? I was three years ago in a match, and I heard the PAOK fans yelling to Eladda and to hellenism...(I remember also the greek words, which were easy to translate). No doubt, the slavophones are part of the modern greeks as well. But IMO, they know it themselves that they are not the descendants of the modern greeks.
 
The real descendants of the ancient greeks are the modern greeks with no slavic, albanian, turk or vlach origin.
 
This is my answer for the topic, and I dont want to provocate flamewars, or nothing else. Just trying to find a truth. Probably I am wrong, but I expect my life to be longer than this night, and I will certainly read more.
 
Regards Perikles
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 11-Sep-2006 at 20:05

According to an official vlach page the Etymological Dictionary  of the Vlach Language by K.Nikolaidis(1909) contains 6.657 words. Of that 3650 have greek origin,latin 3560,185 slavic,150 albanian and 157 with unknown etymology.

Those analogies arent so accurate because of the small number of words but shows the huge greek influence in the vlach vocabulary.

To say that the greek influence in the vlach language is much less from 12% shows the unreliability of your sourse.

 

The Vlachs never believed that they are different from the rest of Greeks ethnically(apart of those few who migrated to Romania and are seen by the Vlachs as traitors),and they fought and died for Greece long before the establishment of the state.

The  presence of vlach speaking people along the two ancient and modern trade roads,Dunabe and Egnatia,shows that they are an effect of the latinisation  through the participation of the indigenous people as mercenaries in roman legions.Ioannis Lydos in the ages of Justinian says that the Greeks uses a lot the latin language.

The lack of historic references about a mass dacoromanian migration, it would be a great event this mass removing of a big population and it would be recorded in writings and oral traditions,the Vlachs dont have a memory of a previous homeland,which would be utopic if we accept the origin of Vlachs from the fertile plains of Romania. If you have seen where Vlachs live in Greece you will wonder why some people would leave the plains to live to the barren slopes of Pindus. The common customs between the Vlachs and the rest of Greeks, same dances, same folk believes(neraides(ancient niriides forest female spirits),kalikantzaroi etc).

 

The slavomacedonians (est. 50-100 thousands) are the slavic remaints of the population exchanges and immigration, and can be found only in the west macedonia as a linguistic minority along a Greek majority of Pontian and Macedonian Greeks.

 

 

About Arvanites who are estimated around 150000 are considered Greeks who gained this right by fighting side by side with Greeks,accepted the greek culture and  of course they consider themselves as Greeks and nothing else. Their original homeland is in the south albania and north epirus. The original fares who came in the late middle ages contained and greek elements. After the invitation of the Frank and Katalunian rulers and economic  motives given the already mixed group of arvanites intermarried with the local greek elements of the lands they colonised.

 

And about our team funs ,i can say the ironic fact that we say the paok funs bulgars even though the majority of paok funs are descedants of Greeks from Ionia. You cant take seriously these nonsences. We also call the AEK funs turks because the establishers of the team where from turkey. Again ironically even though the majority of AEK and PAOK  funs are of Ionian and Constantinopolitan origin the one calls the other turk and bulgar. This happens just because its football and every one try to say something insulting for the other, because like  big insults are considered by all this type of characterizations.

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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Sep-2006 at 02:59
You know Funs of PAOK they are insulted when we call them Bulgars. If they were BUlgars they wouldn't be insulted. If i call you Albanian you will be insulted?
 
You should never judge people without knowing them first
I have many times said that i was wrong in this forum. HAve you?
I am not become member of this foum to provoke and express my ultra fanatism as you imply. After all i have never suggested propagandistic sites to the other members like you have. I could do. There are many of that kind. And if i were you i would be more carefull with the way you express for other people. Just a smal warning.
 
I canot understand vlachs because as it is already been said it is not pure Greek Language. Has many latin words and i can't speak latin.
 
As far as Arvanites is not Albanian origin. They came from Albania as it is said before. South Albania. Guess what people live in Southern Albania since centuries. GREEKS. YES INDEED. Didn't know that? They fight next to Greeks and the local people called them Arvanites because came from ALbania.
Right know the most of them live in Mesogeia of Attica. Come here, and call an Arvaniti Albanian. PLease try that and you see what will happen.
PLease as you said don' express your ALbanian propaganda here.
 
ps. Schortsianitis is an Imigrand who lived in Greece many years. It has no Greek Origin but according to Greek LAw is deserted the Greek nationality.
Who said that it is  a descendant of ancient Greeks? It has the Greek culture.
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Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Sep-2006 at 03:34
"It has no Greek Origin
It has the Greek culture".

He my friend. He.
Schortsianitis doesn't have to wait for the law to get Greek nationality. He does have Greek origins. His father is a Greek.
I also believe you don't have to prove anything to nobady, about your Greek origins. You have to be Greek to know and if you are, you know.
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