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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Most powerful country
    Posted: 13-Jun-2006 at 05:38
So the Spanish defeated England and the Netherlands?
So Blenheim was a French victory?
And it was the French, not the British that conquered India and most of the West Indies?
And Nazi Germany was never going to beat either the British Empire or the Soviet one. Not enough raw materials and resources. Or people for that matter.
 
Shouldn't this be in the alternative histories forum?
 
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  Quote Scheich Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jun-2006 at 10:54
I think that Nazi Germany was able to defeat UK, when UK didn't get US-help.
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  Quote Scheich Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jun-2006 at 10:59
There is written Spain 1571-1588(biggest empire and much silber best fleet), and after 1588, because the Armarda was destroyed England got the first navy-power!
I think that after 1588 England and Frace were both the strongest....England had the biggest Empire and largest fleet and Frace had the most powerful army in Europe.
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  Quote Scheich Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jun-2006 at 11:02
By the battle of Blendheim England and Austria(which had a large army) fought against Frace and Bavaria(wich had a small army)!
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  Quote Omar al Hashim Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Jun-2006 at 20:41
Originally posted by Mudfahedrin

With the "the most powerful country in XXX" I mean, that these country was able to defeat every other country in an duel(without interference of a 3rd country) in that time:

Well then, given that critera I can sum the list up well:
none.

No country has ever been able to defeat every other country in a duel. The British Empire lost to Afghanistan, Napoleon was defeated by Russia, the Mongols by the Delhi Sultanate, the Mamlukes, and everywhere else their advance was checked. The Soviets by Afghanistan, the Americans by Afghanistan, the Safavids by Afghanistan, lol, you get the drift.
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Jun-2006 at 08:39
 
Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

Originally posted by Mudfahedrin

With the "the most powerful country in XXX" I mean, that these country was able to defeat every other country in an duel(without interference of a 3rd country) in that time:

Well then, given that critera I can sum the list up well:
none.

No country has ever been able to defeat every other country in a duel. The British Empire lost to Afghanistan,
 
Since it's a duel...touch!
Napoleon was defeated by Russia, the Mongols by the Delhi Sultanate, the Mamlukes, and everywhere else their advance was checked. The Soviets by Afghanistan, the Americans by Afghanistan, the Safavids by Afghanistan, lol, you get the drift.
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Jun-2006 at 08:47
Originally posted by Scheich

I think that Nazi Germany was able to defeat UK, when UK didn't get US-help.
 
This has been argued here before.
 
However, by the winter of 40/41 the western European theatre was at a standstill. Britain had recovered from its bad start, and was holding - thanks as usual of course to the Channel.
 
St Vincent's dictum 'I cannot say they will not come. I can only say they will not come by sea' still held. And the Battle of Britain had shown they would not come by air either.
 
And Britain still hadn't fully mobilised its Imperial and Commonwealth forces but it had got itself into a position to blockade Germany the way it had France in Napoleonic times.
 
Frankly, at that point, with no-one else intervening, it looked like a standoff in the west, which is, I suspect, why Hitler felt free to turn to Russia.
 
Thereafter, don't forget that Japan and the US entered the war simultaneously. Without Japan's intervention, Britain would have been able to concentrate on North Africa, before turning to the possibility of invading in the West.
 
Don't forget either that the British had, de facto, after Alamein, won in North Africa already beforeany US troops were involved in Europe or Africa.
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  Quote Scheich Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Jun-2006 at 14:29

germany had most of the Wehrmacht armies on the soviet border.

If these armies were put to Africa and
north-Frace, Britain never was able to defeat Germany without any US or CCCP help!


Edited by Scheich - 15-Jun-2006 at 14:30
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  Quote Scheich Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Jun-2006 at 14:35
December 1941
germany: 212 divisions and 38 Luftwaffe-relays
uk:             54 divisions and 16 RAF-relays
 
Germany also was able to use the French, the Czech, the Polnish and the Benelux industry!
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Jun-2006 at 05:20
 Han dynasty of China ,I think so! it beated  down Hun, the latter then moved into europe,and changed the trail of the world history
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Jun-2006 at 09:09
Originally posted by Scheich

germany had most of the Wehrmacht armies on the soviet border.

If these armies were put to Africa and
north-Frace, Britain never was able to defeat Germany without any US or CCCP help!
 
On the Soviet border was precisely where Hitler wanted them. The war in the West was not something Hitler wanted. Once he was satisfied the west was stagnating, he turned on the Soviet Union, his prime target.
 
If you want to ignore that, and assume Hitler would have still tried to occupy England (why?), then you have to face the fact that Germany lost the Battle of Britain, and did not have either air or naval supremacy in the Channel or North Sea, so all the armies in the world in northern France wouldn't get him anywhere. Much the same goes for the Mediterranean, once the British had destroyed the French fleet at Mers-el-Kebir and put the Italian one effectively out of action at Matapan and elsewhere.
 
But, as a duel, you couldn't give Germany the French and Italian fleets anyway.
 
So it's a standoff, because of course the British alone probably could not have invaded the continent.
 
If Germany gets no help from anyone, and Britain gets no help from anyone (except the Empire/Commonwealth) then Germany is blockaded rigid (unless it goes for Soviet resources), which means in the long term Germany would probably have folded due to internal discopntent, as in 1918, but it would have been a long time coming.
 
PS A further thought is that if it is to be strictly a duel between the two, you can't give Western Europe to Germany, because that would put all the French, Dutch and Belgian possessions at Britain's disposal - as indeed they were in real life.
 


Edited by gcle2003 - 16-Jun-2006 at 09:11
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Jun-2006 at 09:27
Originally posted by Scheich

December 1941
germany: 212 divisions and 38 Luftwaffe-relays
uk:             54 divisions and 16 RAF-relays
 
Germany also was able to use the French, the Czech, the Polnish and the Benelux industry!
 
Take a look at the relative strengths of the navies. Britain doesn't fight its wars on the ground (or on the ground alone). Also, if you're giving Europe to the Germans, that kind of stops it being a duel, and it also requires Germany to pin down forces on garrison and counter-resistance duty. and, obviously puts the French, Dutch and Belgian empires on Britain's side.
 
And, not unimportantly, who had the oil? And the money - or money-equivalent - to buy assistance?
 
And you can't let Germany start torpedoing neutral vessels, or you get the US coming in anyway as in 1917. So the Battle of the Atlantic swings Britain's way earlier than it did.
 
Finally, who actually ends up with the nuclear bomb? It has, on the record, to be the British-Canadians helped by European refugees, which of course would have made a massive difference to post-war geopolitics.
 
 
 
 
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  Quote Scheich Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-Jun-2006 at 07:26
If Germany had in december1941 peace with all countries and kept it's teretories, they would have much recoures in east Europe.
And the British Empire never was able to defeat Germany alone in 1941.
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  Quote Dream208 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-Jun-2006 at 12:23
If I my memory did not fail me, I believe China and Japanese already start the full-scale war at 1937. However, the 1941 Japanese naval assult did fuse the East-Asia and Europe theater together - hence the world of wars.
 
PS: From the Chinese perspective, the WWII began at 1937/7/7
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  Quote Red4tribe Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-Jun-2006 at 22:09
Germany's biggest mistakes werei nvading the soviet union, and declaring war on the USA.If they had not done either of thosse all of Africa would have fallen to the Italians and Germans.
Had this day been wanting, the world had never seen the last stage of perfection to which human nature is capable of attaining.

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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 19-Jun-2006 at 04:07
Germany had been beaten in the West before it attacked the Soviet Union and before it declared was on the US. The British had naval supremacy in the North Sea, the Channel and the Mediterranean, and air supremacy in the first two areas.
 
(That is even WITH Germany having all the territories of Western Europe north of the Pyrenees under its control.)
 
The eternal question is: how is the continental power going to get its troops into Britain (or in this case as well, into Africa)? Transporting the relatively small Afrika Korps is one thing: transporting more than that would have terribly vulnerable to British naval attack.
 
Originally posted by Scheich

If Germany had in december1941 peace with all countries and kept it's teretories, they would have much recoures in east Europe.
And the British Empire never was able to defeat Germany alone in 1941.
 
What that first paragraph suggests is that an ALLIANCE of the European countries would have beaten Britain. That is a whole different question than whether Britain or Germany would have emerged victorious in a duel.
 
The second paragraph overlooks the fact that Britain did defeat Germany in 1940, though admittedly it was only a defensive victory. September 15 1940 is as important a date in history as October 21 1805, for similar reasons.
 
That was in spite of the fact that Germany had begun war preparations long before Britain had. From that time on, Britain became gradually stronger while Germany stayed at best the same.
 
You also overlook my points about money and the nuclear bomb - which was always going to be the ultimately decisive factor in any war of the period.
 
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  Quote Dampier Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 20-Jun-2006 at 08:23
Total agreement with all GCLE says.
 
Britain could not win but neither could Germany.
 
Also if you want to expand from the duel then you have to take; Commando raids, SOE and the growing groups of partisans and the British use of Empire.
 
Put it this way, we have a blockade on Germany that weakens them (remember Napoleons Continental Bloackade- sometimes all of Europe is not enough) (also remember Britians blockade of WW1).
 
Next think of it this way- how could Germany win in North Africa, not only did Britian nearly do it on her own before America joined but consider Hitlers preoccupation with Russia (which would have continued, even if only defensively as they were the only opponent to fear) and the British infliction of losses on Rommels shipping. Rommel got I believe less than a third of what set out. Nor was Malta or Gibralter captured. So North Africa is a British victory. And think what would have happened with all the Commonwealth troops (Indian, Springboks, ANZACS) around. Africa would essentially be British.
 
Next Europe. Britain could not conquer but she could be very annoying. SAS, LRDG (have to be renamed!), SOE, partisans are not much fun for the Germans. Enigma still comes our way (thanks Poles!), the Atlantic has still been won and Resistance movements would be widespread.
 
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  Quote Red4tribe Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 20-Jun-2006 at 09:07
They would not have been able to defeat Britian but they could have conquered Africa.Italy owned Libya at the time so they had a landing base there.Going into the mediterranean would have been extremply tough for them.Thats deep inside German and Italian zones.(Germany also had French North Africa to use for landings)
Had this day been wanting, the world had never seen the last stage of perfection to which human nature is capable of attaining.

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  Quote Scheich Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 20-Jun-2006 at 09:23

Do you think that Napoleon was able to defeat Britain in an duell?

I know that a duel between two states is unreal(in every war a country took other weaker countries or other countries sent supplies or troops into war).
But the Germans developped the me 262, V2 missels and Arado bombers....I think that Uk without US suplies and other US help could't win alone.
 


Edited by Scheich - 20-Jun-2006 at 09:23
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 20-Jun-2006 at 11:36
Originally posted by Red4tribe

They would not have been able to defeat Britian but they could have conquered Africa.Italy owned Libya at the time so they had a landing base there.Going into the mediterranean would have been extremply tough for them.Thats deep inside German and Italian zones.(Germany also had French North Africa to use for landings)
 
Your now talking about a German-Italian-French alliance against Germany. In any case Britain had naval superiority in the Mediterranean throughout the war, even over the Germany-Italy-Vichy France grouping, No need to theorise. The British sank the French fleet to stop it helping the Germans, and they also shattered the Italians. After that the ONLY fleet in the Med was the British.
 
The Mediterranean was a 'British lake': an aim that Britain had made a focus of its strategy since it was driven out in 1797 and re-established control there in 1798.
 
The Royal Navy could not of course stop every ship making the crossing, but it stopped most.
 
Since Britain won in the Med historically, and since there were no other naval forces available for Germany to move there, there's absolutely no reason to suppose Germany would have won fighting alone. In fact, how is Germany alone even going to GET there?
 
As for Libya being Italian - by the time Rommel got there it wasn't. As far as I remember German shipments had to be brought in via Tunis.
 
But again, before Germany (unallied) can use any of these facilities, it has to occupy France and Italy. Which means French and Italian resistance and French and Italian help to Britain away from the home countries.
 
Originally posted by Scheich

Do you think that Napoleon was able to defeat Britain in an duell?
 
Nope. It's not a matter of opinion. You overlook the fact that historically he failed to do so.
 
I know that a duel between two states is unreal(in every war a country took other weaker countries or other countries sent supplies or troops into war).
But the Germans developped the me 262, V2 missels and Arado bombers
 
The ME 262 may have been slightly faster than the Meteor but it was less reliable. They never of course came into mutual combat, though they were both introduced at the same time.
 
The Arado bomber led the larger jet aircraft but the versions produced carried only a single 500Kg bomb. Not a terribly threatening weapon. And while it was too fast for piston-engined planes to catch, The Meteor could match it. (It had no trouble catcing V1s.)
 
Germany was obviously ahead in rocketry (though it wasted some effort on manned rockets) but it didn't have anything that could hit the UK from Germany, and it's operational bases were vulnerable. The real point though was that there was no significant warhead, and they weren't aimable. So the actual destruction caused was random and minimal.
 
...I think that Uk without US suplies and other US help could't win alone.
As I pointed out, the ultimate decision in a duel here would be who got the atom bomb first. Nothing else mattered very much. And Germany was nowhere in that race.
 
The actual first bomb was developed by an Anglo-American-Canadian cooperation in Canada and the US. Take the US out of the equation and you're still left with an impressive set of human resources. And if there were some neutrals around with more useful skills - who was in the better position to buy them?
 
The other key long-term factor is money. And Britain at the time was far richer than Germany. Even in a duel you have to take into account the ability to buy resources, human and otherwise.
 
So - basically you have a short-to-mid term standoff, with Germany running out of money first and Britain developing nuclear technology to put an end to things - if it goes that far.
 
And, say, Nuremberg goes into the history books instead of Hiroshima.
 
 


Edited by gcle2003 - 20-Jun-2006 at 11:38
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